Infectious Disease Flashcards
1
Q
Interaction between two organisms in which both organisms benefit:
A
mutualism
2
Q
Interaction between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is neither harmed or helped
A
Commensalisms
3
Q
Example of commensalism:
A
C. Albicans
4
Q
- Bind to or enter host cells
- Release endotoxins or exotoxins
- Please enzymes that degrade tissue components
- Damage blood vessels and cause ischemic injury
- Induce host inflammatory and immune responses
These are all ways that:
A
pathogens can injure cells and cause tissue damage
5
Q
- Prions
- Viruses
- Bacteria
- Chlamydia
- Rickettsia
- Mycoplasma
- Fungi
- Protozoa
- Helminths
- Ectoparasites
These are all:
A
pathogens
6
Q
What are the steps to viral infection and replication? (5)
A
- attach
- penetrate
- reproduce
- assemble
- release
7
Q
Give an example of a transient viral infection:
A
Hep A
8
Q
Give an example of a chronic latent viral infection:
A
herpes simplex virus
9
Q
Give an example of chronic productive viral infection
A
Hep B
10
Q
Give examples of transforming viral infections:
A
Epstein Barr virus or HPV
11
Q
Natural reservoir for human herpes virus (HHV):
A
humans
12
Q
HHV-1:
HHV-2:
HHV-3:
HHV-4:
HHV-5:
HHV-8:
A
HHV-1: HSV1
HHV-2: HSV2
HHV-3: Varicella zoster virus
HHV-4: Epstein Barr virus
HHV-5: cytomegalovirus
HHV-8: Kaposi sarcoma associated virus
13
Q
Flu-like illness with fever, malaise, arthaglia, headache, and cervical lymphadenopathy:
A
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
14
Q
What ganglion is affected in HSV infection?
A
Trigeminal ganglion
15
Q
Herpes infection behind the ear: (common in wrestlers)
A
herpes gladiatorum
16
Q
around eye involvement with HSV:
A
HSV autoinoculation
17
Q
Herpes of the cornea:
A
keratitis
18
Q
- focal mucosal destruction; a t-lymphocyte mediated cytotoxic reaction:
A
recurrent aphthous stomatitis
19
Q
Describe the evolution of an aphthous ulcer:
A
- erythematous macule
- ulceration
- fibrinous membrane
20
Q
The precipitating factors for current aphthous stomatitis include: (7)
A
- SLS
- Stress
- Trauma
- Allergies
- Acidic foods/juices
- Gluten
- Endocrine alterations
21
Q
Clinical forms o recurrent aphthous stomatitis include:
A
- minor aphthae
- major aphthae
- herpetiform
22
Q
What is a key difference in the recovery of minor vs. major aphthae?
A
Major involves scarring
23
Q
How can we differentiate between herpetiform aphthae and recurrent intra-oral herpes simplex>
A
Herpetiform aphthae is located on non-keratinized mucosa and and does not begin as vesicles
24
Q
Describe the vesicular stage presence, number of lesions, and location of lesions of recurrent herpes:
A
- Yes
- Multiple, confluent
- Masticatory mucosa
25
Describe the vesicular stage presence, number of lesions, and location of lesions of recurrent aphthae:
1. No
2. Frequently solitary
3. Moveable tissue
26
Aphthous-like lesions may be associated with systemic diseases such as:
1. beichet's syndrome
2. reiter syndrome
3. inflammatory bowel syndrome (ulcerative colitis & Crohn's disease)
4. Maslabsoprtion syndromes (gluten sensitive enteropathy)
5. cyclic neutropenia
6. HIV/AIDS
27
Discuss the transmission of Varicella (chicken pox)
transmission by inspirations of infected droplets
28
What ganglion is involved in the latent phase of varicella zoster (shingles phase)
dorsal spinal ganglion
29
Varicella = _____
Herpes zoster= ____
chickenpox; shingles
30
Hepatitis A is ___ infection
transient
31
Name two viruses that involve chronic latent infections:
1. cytomegalovirus
2. HSV
32
Name a virus that is considered a chronic productive infection:
Hep B virus
33
Name two viruses that are considered transforming infections:
1. epstein barr
2. HPV
34
Atypical lymphocytes called downey cells are characteristic of:
infectious mononucleousis (HHV-4)
35
What cell is shown in this image? What are they characteristic of?
Atypical lymphocytes called downey cells; infectious mononucleosis (HHV-4)
36
What gingival disease is associated with infectious mononucleosis?
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
37
What laboratory tests are used to test for infectious mononucleosis?
1. monospot test
2. EBV- specific testing
3. heterophile antibody (although non-specific for EBV)
38
What is the heterophile antibody induced by EBV infection? (for mono)
IgM antibody
39
The antibody involved in infectious mononucleosis is a ____ antibody
heterophile
40
The heterophile (IgM) antibody induced by the EBV infection binds to ____ antigen of sheep and bovine RBCs
Paul-bunnell
41
Infectious mononucleosis tends to be ____ and recommended treatment is ___.
symptomatic; bed rest to prevent splenic rupture
42
Epithelial hyperplasia associated with EBV infection:
Oral Hairy Leukoplakia
43
What is a common location for oral hairy leukoplakia?
lateral border of tongue
44
Although oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with EBV infection, it may occur:
in any immunodeficiency state
45
What is shown in this picture?
Hairy Tongue- NOT oral hairy leukoplakia
46
What is shown in this image? What is this condition often associated with?
Oral hairy leukoplakia (epithelial hyperplasia); infectious mononucleosis) (EBV)
47
What is shown in this image? What is this condition often associated with?
Oral hairy leukoplakia (epithelial hyperplasia); infectious mononucleosis) (EBV)
48
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) may also be called:
HHV-5
49
Most of the population is affected by CMV by age:
60
50
Most CMV infections are:
asymptomatic
51
What are the stages of cytomegalovirus? (3)
1. initial infection
2. latency
3. reactivation
52
This histological slide is characteristic of:
Cytomegalovirus
53
Cytomegalovirus is similar to ____ but is _____ negative
infectious mononucleosis (EBV); heterophile antibody negative
54
Rarely, what comorbities may accompany cytomegalovirus?
acute sialadenitis with painful swelling & xerostomia
55
A result of cytomegalovirus in immunocompromised individuals include: (2)
1. retinitis- blindness
2. colitis
56
Self-limited disease that occurs in epidemics of flu-like symptoms in young children:
coxsackie virus group A
57
Coxsackie Virus Group A is transmitted by:
fecal-oral and airborne routes
58
Herpangia involves what type of symptoms?
constitutional
59
Begins as small vesicles that rupture and ulcerate:
herpangia
60
Common locations of herpangia include:
posterior oral cavity and oropharynx
61
Vesicular eruption of hands, feet and anterior mouth:
Hand Foot and Mouth Disease
62
Another name for measles:
rubeola
63
Measles (rubeola) is a ____ disease often seen in ____, characterized by ___
communicable; children; skin rash
64
Children are given the ____ vaccine to protect against measles (rubeola)
MMR
65
_____ are characteristic of Measles (rubeola)
Koplik spots
66
"grains of salt" on an erythematous base:
Koplik spots (characteristic of measles)
67
Koplik Spots in measles signify:
foci of epithelial necrosis
68
Infectious parotitis:
mumps
69
Acute viral parotitis (mumps) may also be considered:
endemic parotitis
70
Acute viral parotitis (mumps) is a _____ disease seen in ____ and is vaccinated against with the ____ vaccination
communicable; childhood; MMR
71
Mumps is _____% ______ infection
30% subclinical
72
Mumps involves ____ constitutional symptoms
prodromal
73
Disease characterized by salivary gland swelling and discomfort:
mumps
74
What is occurring in this image and what is this characteristic of?
salivary gland swelling; mumps
75
What is an elevated laboratory finding in mumps? Why?
Elevated serum amylase- released from granules during lysis of acing cells
76
Describe the test for mumps:
specific serologic tests
77
Complications of mumps (rare in the young and more common in older individuals) include: (8)
1. orchitis
2. oophoritis
3. mastitis
4. meningitis
5. thyroiditis
6. pancreatitis
7. sterility
8. hearing loss
78
Bacterial pathogens can cause what types of infections?
1. transient bacterial infections
2. localized infections
3. systemic infections
79
Bacterial pathogens may be ___ or ___
intracellular or extracellular
80
Tuberculosis is caused by:
mycobacterium tuberculosis
81
What is the most common infection with mycobacterium tuberculosis?
pulmonary infection
82
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a ____ pathogen that causes ____ disease
intracellular; granulomatous
83
____ of the world population is infected with tuberculosis
1/3
84
Leading infectious cause of death after aids
tuberculosis
85
Tuberculosis targets disadvantaged populations such as:
1. homeless
2. malnourished
3. overcrowded
86
Active tuberculosis cases are increasing due to:
1. HIV infection
2. Immigration
87
Growth of the organism in a TB patient:
Destructive, symptomatic disease in a TB patient:
Infection; active disease
88
Transmission of tuberculosis is by: (3)
1. droplet nuclei (1-5 microns)
2. stay airborne for long periods of time
3. reach the pulmonary alveoli
89
Type of TB that occurs with a previously unexposed (unsensitized) person:
Primary pulmonary tuberculosis
90
Primary pulmonary tuberculosis is associated with ____ (parenchymal lung lesion and hilarious nodal lesion)
Gohn Complex
91
Parenchymal lung lesion and hailer nodal lesion associated with primary pulmonary tuberculosis:
gohn complex
92
What host response controls the infection in primary pulmonary tuberculosis?
Cell-mediated immunity
93
____ and ____ are both seen in primary pulmonary tuberculosis
fibrosis & calcification
94
Viable organisms may be dormant in lesions of latent disease in tuberculosis but may:
reactivate if immune defenses are lowered
95
What is seen in the images? what is this characteristic of?
Acid Fast Bacilli; tuberculosis
96
Mycobacterium tuberculosis intracellular pathogen contains ____ which blocks fusion of phagosome with lysosome
TB cord factor
97
TB cord factor is responsible for:
blocking fusion of phagosome with lysosome
98
Diagnosis of TB includes: (3)
1. chest radiograph
2. sputum culture
3. molecular biologic tools
99
Treatment of TB involves ____ regimens including the drugs: (6)
multi-drug regimens;
- isoniazid
- rifampin
- ethambutol
- streptomycin
- pyrazinimide
- rifabutin
100
Symptoms of active TB include: (5)
1. Chronic cough
2. Hemoptysis
3. Weight loss
4. Night sweats
5. Fever
101
What test is used to test for tuberculosis?
Mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD Test)
102
The Mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD test) is a ____ reaction to the protein from M. tuberculosis
type IV delayed hypersensitivity
103
_____ tuberculin injection is how the Mantoux tuberculin skin test is performed
Intracutaneous
104
In a PPD test, what occurs with a positive result?
T-cells sensitized by prior infection are recruited to the area and this produces an area of induration
105
What does it mean if someone has a positive tuberculin skin test? (3)
1. individual has been infection
2. cell-mediated hypersensitivity exists
3. does NOT indicate active disease
106
Describe the Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) Vaccination for TB: (4)
1. what type of vaccination is it
2. what does it cause
3. Is it effective
4. Territories of its use
1. Live, attenuated strain of mycobacterium bovis
2. Causes a positive PPD reaction
3. Effectiveness is uncertain
4. Not used in the U.S
107
The bacillus calmette-guerin (BCG) vaccine is used for:
TB
108
Tuberculous lymphadenitis of the neck:
scrofula
109
Scrofula is tuberculous lymphadenitis of the neck caused by:
mycobacterium bovis infection from infected milk
110
How do we prevent scrofula infections? (2)
1. pasteurization of milk
2. tuberculosis control for cattle
111
Syphillis is caused by what organism?
Treponema Pallidum
112
What are the 2 forms of syphilis and what are there transmissions?
1. Acquired Syphilis- sexual transmission
2. Congenital Syphilis- in utero transmission
113
Clinical stages of untreated acquired syphilis (and their time frames)
1. Primary (1 week to 3 months)
2. Secondary (1 to 12 months)
3. Tertiary (late) (1 to 30 years)
114
Latent syphilis infections can relapse into:
secondary syphilis infections
115
These images show ___ which is characteristic of ___
Primary Chancre of syphilis (Primary infection)
116
These images show ___ which is characteristic of ___
Primary Chancre of syphilis (Primary infection)
117
This image shows ___ which is characteristic of ___
Primary Chancre of syphilis (Primary infection)
118
Lesions of secondary syphilis include:
1. skin rash
2. mucous patch
3. condyloma lata
119
These images are characteristic of:
Secondary syphilis
120
What is shown in these images? What is it characteristic of?
Maculopapular rash- secondary syphilis
121
What is shown in these images? What is it characteristic of?
Mucous patch of secondary syphilis
122
Most destructive stage of syphilis:
tertiary syphilis
123
___ & ____ are signs of tertiary syphilis
Gumma & Syphilitic glossitis
124
Tertiary syphilis may have nervous system involvement called:
neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)
125
Tertiary syphilis may have cardiovascular system involvement resulting in:
aneurysm of ascending aorta
126
What systems may involved in tertiary syphilis?
nervous system & cardiovascular system
127
What are shown in these images? What is this characteristic of?
Gumma; tertiary syphilis
128
What lesions are associated with the following stages of syphilis?
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
Discuss there infectivity:
1. chancre- infectious
2. mucous patch- infectious
3. gumma- not infectious
129
Lesions of congenital syphilis include:
1. snuffles
2. saddle nose
3. rhagades
4. Hutchinson's incisors
5. mulberry molars
130
Congenital syphilis depressed nasal bridge=
saddle nose
131
Dental stigmata of congenital syphilis include:
Hutchinson's incisors & mulberry molars
132
Hutchinson's Triad of Congenital Syphilis includes:
1. Blind- interstitial keratitis
2. Deaf
3. Dental anomalies
133
Describe the laboratory tests for syphilis:
1. culture-
2. microscopy-
3. Serologic tests-
1. cannot culture
2. dark field or fluorescence microscopy
3. Non-treponemal tests- reagin- antibody to cardiolipin & Treponemal tests specific for T. Pallidum
134
Discuss the non-treponemal tests- reagin- antibody to cardiolipin for syphilis (2):
1. VDRL- Veneral disease research laboratory
2. RPR- Rapid plasma reagin
135
Discuss the Treponemal Tests - specific for T. Pallidum for syphilis (2):
1. FTA-ABS: fluorescent treponema antigen absorption
2. MHA- TP- microhemagglutinin- treponema pallidum
136
Actinomycosis is a ____ pathogen
fungal
137
The diseases caused by fungi may be: (4):
1. superficial
2. subcutaneous
3. systemic
4. opportunistic
138
Fungal disease of the skin, hair or nails:
superficial
139
What is an example of a fungal infection that causes superficial disease?
dermatophytes
140
Fungal disease of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue:
subcutaneous
141
What is an example of a fungal infection that causes subcutaneous disease?
Sporotricosis
142
Deep fungal infections of internal organs:
systemic
143
What is an example of a fungal infection that causes systemic disease?
Histoplasmosis
144
Fungal infection of an immunocompromised host:
opportunistic
145
What is an example of an opportunistic fungal infection?
Candidiasis
146
Histoplasmosis is endemic to:
Mississippi River Valley
147
Transmission of histoplasmosis is by:
inhalation of spores (bird droppings & dust particles)
148
______ infection is usual of histoplasmosis?
sub-clinical
149
Histoplasmosis presents similar to ____ syndrome
flu-like
150
Deep fungal infection of the lungs caused by the inhalation of spores:
Histoplasmosis
151
Discuss the components of histoplasmosis (4):
1. ____ of spores
2. ____
3. Specific ___
4. _____ of organism
5. ___ ____
1. inhalation of spores
2. phagocytosis
3. specific immunity
4. killing of organism
5. dystrophic calcification
152
What is the arrow pointing to?
Histoplasma capsulatum
153
Histoplasma capsulatum is a ___ fungus meaning:
dimorphic fungus- yeast @ body temp and mold in nature
154
What percent of the population is infected by histoplasma capsulatum?
80-90%
155
What is the most common systemic fungal infection in the USA?
histoplasma capsulatum (histoplasmosis I believe)
156
Histoplasmosis infection of the elderly, debilitated, immunosuppressed or AIDS patients:
Disseminated histoplasmosis
157
Disseminated histoplasmosis involves the spread to:
extra-pulmonary sites
158
____ lesions such as ____ and ____ lesions are involved with disseminated histoplasmosis
adrenal lesions; addisons disease
oral lesions
159
Valley fever =
coccidioidomycosis
160
- Deep fungal infection of the lungs
- 40% develop respiratory symptoms
- Disseminated disease may occur
- Common in southwestern areas
Coccidioidmycosis
161
Clinical forms of oral candidiasis include: (5)
1. Pseudomembranous (thrush)
2. Erythmatous (atrophic)
3. Hyperplastic
4. Angular Cheilitis (Perleche)
5. Central Papillary Atrophy
162
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
pseudomembraneous (thrush)
163
What form of candidiasis may also be called thrush?
pseudomembraneous
164
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
Erythematous (atrophic)
165
What form of candidiasis may be considered atrophic candidiasis?
erythematous
166
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
hyperplastic
167
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
angular cheilitis (perleche)
168
What for of candidiasis may be called perleche?
angular cheilitis
169
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
central papillary atrophy
170
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
acute pseudomembranous candidiasis (thrush)
171
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
pseudomembranous candidiasis
172
What is the treatment for pseudomembranous candidiasis?
Fluconazole (diflucan) 100mg
173
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
atrophic candidiasis
174
____ agar has a low pH and gentamicin to inhibit bacterial growth (and allow for candidiasis growth)
sabauraud agar
175
What feature is present on oral exfoliative cytology for diagnosis candidiasis fungal infections?
candida pseudohyphae
176
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
erythematous candidiasis
177
What is the treatment for erythematous candidiasis?
fluconazole (diflucan) 100 mg
178
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
erythematous candidiasis
179
What is one way someone can get a candidiasis infection due to medication?
steroid inhalers
180
Angular cheilitis may also be called:
Perlache
181
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
angular cheilitis
182
What are the treatment options for angular cheilitis?
- Clotrimazole (Mycelex) Cream 1%
- Nystatin/ Triamcinolone Ointment
- Vytone Cream
183
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
hyperplastic candidiasis
184
Central papillary atrophy may also be called:
median rhomboid glossitis
185
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured? (give both names)
Central papillary atrophy (mediam rhomboid glossitis)
186
chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is caused by:
T-cell defect
187
What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?
chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
188
candidiasis is common in what type of infection?
HIV
189
