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Pathology > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Interaction between two organisms in which both organisms benefit:

A

mutualism

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2
Q

Interaction between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is neither harmed or helped

A

Commensalisms

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3
Q

Example of commensalism:

A

C. Albicans

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4
Q
  • Bind to or enter host cells
  • Release endotoxins or exotoxins
  • Please enzymes that degrade tissue components
  • Damage blood vessels and cause ischemic injury
  • Induce host inflammatory and immune responses

These are all ways that:

A

pathogens can injure cells and cause tissue damage

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5
Q
  • Prions
  • Viruses
  • Bacteria
  • Chlamydia
  • Rickettsia
  • Mycoplasma
  • Fungi
  • Protozoa
  • Helminths
  • Ectoparasites

These are all:

A

pathogens

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6
Q

What are the steps to viral infection and replication? (5)

A
  1. attach
  2. penetrate
  3. reproduce
  4. assemble
  5. release
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7
Q

Give an example of a transient viral infection:

A

Hep A

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8
Q

Give an example of a chronic latent viral infection:

A

herpes simplex virus

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9
Q

Give an example of chronic productive viral infection

A

Hep B

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10
Q

Give examples of transforming viral infections:

A

Epstein Barr virus or HPV

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11
Q

Natural reservoir for human herpes virus (HHV):

A

humans

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12
Q

HHV-1:
HHV-2:
HHV-3:
HHV-4:
HHV-5:
HHV-8:

A

HHV-1: HSV1
HHV-2: HSV2
HHV-3: Varicella zoster virus
HHV-4: Epstein Barr virus
HHV-5: cytomegalovirus
HHV-8: Kaposi sarcoma associated virus

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13
Q

Flu-like illness with fever, malaise, arthaglia, headache, and cervical lymphadenopathy:

A

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

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14
Q

What ganglion is affected in HSV infection?

A

Trigeminal ganglion

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15
Q

Herpes infection behind the ear: (common in wrestlers)

A

herpes gladiatorum

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16
Q

around eye involvement with HSV:

A

HSV autoinoculation

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17
Q

Herpes of the cornea:

A

keratitis

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18
Q
  • focal mucosal destruction; a t-lymphocyte mediated cytotoxic reaction:
A

recurrent aphthous stomatitis

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19
Q

Describe the evolution of an aphthous ulcer:

A
  1. erythematous macule
  2. ulceration
  3. fibrinous membrane
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20
Q

The precipitating factors for current aphthous stomatitis include: (7)

A
  1. SLS
  2. Stress
  3. Trauma
  4. Allergies
  5. Acidic foods/juices
  6. Gluten
  7. Endocrine alterations
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21
Q

Clinical forms o recurrent aphthous stomatitis include:

A
  1. minor aphthae
  2. major aphthae
  3. herpetiform
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22
Q

What is a key difference in the recovery of minor vs. major aphthae?

A

Major involves scarring

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23
Q

How can we differentiate between herpetiform aphthae and recurrent intra-oral herpes simplex>

A

Herpetiform aphthae is located on non-keratinized mucosa and and does not begin as vesicles

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24
Q

Describe the vesicular stage presence, number of lesions, and location of lesions of recurrent herpes:

A
  1. Yes
  2. Multiple, confluent
  3. Masticatory mucosa
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25
Q

Describe the vesicular stage presence, number of lesions, and location of lesions of recurrent aphthae:

A
  1. No
  2. Frequently solitary
  3. Moveable tissue
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26
Q

Aphthous-like lesions may be associated with systemic diseases such as:

A
  1. beichet’s syndrome
  2. reiter syndrome
  3. inflammatory bowel syndrome (ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease)
  4. Maslabsoprtion syndromes (gluten sensitive enteropathy)
  5. cyclic neutropenia
  6. HIV/AIDS
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27
Q

Discuss the transmission of Varicella (chicken pox)

A

transmission by inspirations of infected droplets

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28
Q

What ganglion is involved in the latent phase of varicella zoster (shingles phase)

A

dorsal spinal ganglion

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29
Q

Varicella = _____

Herpes zoster= ____

A

chickenpox; shingles

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30
Q

Hepatitis A is ___ infection

A

transient

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31
Q

Name two viruses that involve chronic latent infections:

A
  1. cytomegalovirus
  2. HSV
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32
Q

Name a virus that is considered a chronic productive infection:

A

Hep B virus

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33
Q

Name two viruses that are considered transforming infections:

A
  1. epstein barr
  2. HPV
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34
Q

Atypical lymphocytes called downey cells are characteristic of:

A

infectious mononucleousis (HHV-4)

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35
Q

What cell is shown in this image? What are they characteristic of?

A

Atypical lymphocytes called downey cells; infectious mononucleosis (HHV-4)

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36
Q

What gingival disease is associated with infectious mononucleosis?

A

necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

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37
Q

What laboratory tests are used to test for infectious mononucleosis?

A
  1. monospot test
  2. EBV- specific testing
  3. heterophile antibody (although non-specific for EBV)
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38
Q

What is the heterophile antibody induced by EBV infection? (for mono)

A

IgM antibody

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39
Q

The antibody involved in infectious mononucleosis is a ____ antibody

A

heterophile

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40
Q

The heterophile (IgM) antibody induced by the EBV infection binds to ____ antigen of sheep and bovine RBCs

A

Paul-bunnell

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41
Q

Infectious mononucleosis tends to be ____ and recommended treatment is ___.

A

symptomatic; bed rest to prevent splenic rupture

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42
Q

Epithelial hyperplasia associated with EBV infection:

A

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia

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43
Q

What is a common location for oral hairy leukoplakia?

A

lateral border of tongue

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44
Q

Although oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with EBV infection, it may occur:

A

in any immunodeficiency state

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45
Q

What is shown in this picture?

A

Hairy Tongue- NOT oral hairy leukoplakia

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46
Q

What is shown in this image? What is this condition often associated with?

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia (epithelial hyperplasia); infectious mononucleosis) (EBV)

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47
Q

What is shown in this image? What is this condition often associated with?

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia (epithelial hyperplasia); infectious mononucleosis) (EBV)

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48
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) may also be called:

A

HHV-5

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49
Q

Most of the population is affected by CMV by age:

A

60

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50
Q

Most CMV infections are:

A

asymptomatic

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51
Q

What are the stages of cytomegalovirus? (3)

A
  1. initial infection
  2. latency
  3. reactivation
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52
Q

This histological slide is characteristic of:

A

Cytomegalovirus

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53
Q

Cytomegalovirus is similar to ____ but is _____ negative

A

infectious mononucleosis (EBV); heterophile antibody negative

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54
Q

Rarely, what comorbities may accompany cytomegalovirus?

A

acute sialadenitis with painful swelling & xerostomia

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55
Q

A result of cytomegalovirus in immunocompromised individuals include: (2)

A
  1. retinitis- blindness
  2. colitis
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56
Q

Self-limited disease that occurs in epidemics of flu-like symptoms in young children:

A

coxsackie virus group A

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57
Q

Coxsackie Virus Group A is transmitted by:

A

fecal-oral and airborne routes

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58
Q

Herpangia involves what type of symptoms?

A

constitutional

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59
Q

Begins as small vesicles that rupture and ulcerate:

A

herpangia

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60
Q

Common locations of herpangia include:

A

posterior oral cavity and oropharynx

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61
Q

Vesicular eruption of hands, feet and anterior mouth:

A

Hand Foot and Mouth Disease

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62
Q

Another name for measles:

A

rubeola

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63
Q

Measles (rubeola) is a ____ disease often seen in ____, characterized by ___

A

communicable; children; skin rash

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64
Q

Children are given the ____ vaccine to protect against measles (rubeola)

A

MMR

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65
Q

_____ are characteristic of Measles (rubeola)

A

Koplik spots

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66
Q

“grains of salt” on an erythematous base:

A

Koplik spots (characteristic of measles)

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67
Q

Koplik Spots in measles signify:

A

foci of epithelial necrosis

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68
Q

Infectious parotitis:

A

mumps

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69
Q

Acute viral parotitis (mumps) may also be considered:

A

endemic parotitis

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70
Q

Acute viral parotitis (mumps) is a _____ disease seen in ____ and is vaccinated against with the ____ vaccination

A

communicable; childhood; MMR

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71
Q

Mumps is _____% ______ infection

A

30% subclinical

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72
Q

Mumps involves ____ constitutional symptoms

A

prodromal

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73
Q

Disease characterized by salivary gland swelling and discomfort:

A

mumps

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74
Q

What is occurring in this image and what is this characteristic of?

A

salivary gland swelling; mumps

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75
Q

What is an elevated laboratory finding in mumps? Why?

A

Elevated serum amylase- released from granules during lysis of acing cells

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76
Q

Describe the test for mumps:

A

specific serologic tests

77
Q

Complications of mumps (rare in the young and more common in older individuals) include: (8)

A
  1. orchitis
  2. oophoritis
  3. mastitis
  4. meningitis
  5. thyroiditis
  6. pancreatitis
  7. sterility
  8. hearing loss
78
Q

Bacterial pathogens can cause what types of infections?

A
  1. transient bacterial infections
  2. localized infections
  3. systemic infections
79
Q

Bacterial pathogens may be ___ or ___

A

intracellular or extracellular

80
Q

Tuberculosis is caused by:

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

81
Q

What is the most common infection with mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

pulmonary infection

82
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a ____ pathogen that causes ____ disease

A

intracellular; granulomatous

83
Q

____ of the world population is infected with tuberculosis

84
Q

Leading infectious cause of death after aids

A

tuberculosis

85
Q

Tuberculosis targets disadvantaged populations such as:

A
  1. homeless
  2. malnourished
  3. overcrowded
86
Q

Active tuberculosis cases are increasing due to:

A
  1. HIV infection
  2. Immigration
87
Q

Growth of the organism in a TB patient:

Destructive, symptomatic disease in a TB patient:

A

Infection; active disease

88
Q

Transmission of tuberculosis is by: (3)

A
  1. droplet nuclei (1-5 microns)
  2. stay airborne for long periods of time
  3. reach the pulmonary alveoli
89
Q

Type of TB that occurs with a previously unexposed (unsensitized) person:

A

Primary pulmonary tuberculosis

90
Q

Primary pulmonary tuberculosis is associated with ____ (parenchymal lung lesion and hilarious nodal lesion)

A

Gohn Complex

91
Q

Parenchymal lung lesion and hailer nodal lesion associated with primary pulmonary tuberculosis:

A

gohn complex

92
Q

What host response controls the infection in primary pulmonary tuberculosis?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

93
Q

____ and ____ are both seen in primary pulmonary tuberculosis

A

fibrosis & calcification

94
Q

Viable organisms may be dormant in lesions of latent disease in tuberculosis but may:

A

reactivate if immune defenses are lowered

95
Q

What is seen in the images? what is this characteristic of?

A

Acid Fast Bacilli; tuberculosis

96
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis intracellular pathogen contains ____ which blocks fusion of phagosome with lysosome

A

TB cord factor

97
Q

TB cord factor is responsible for:

A

blocking fusion of phagosome with lysosome

98
Q

Diagnosis of TB includes: (3)

A
  1. chest radiograph
  2. sputum culture
  3. molecular biologic tools
99
Q

Treatment of TB involves ____ regimens including the drugs: (6)

A

multi-drug regimens;

  • isoniazid
  • rifampin
  • ethambutol
  • streptomycin
  • pyrazinimide
  • rifabutin
100
Q

Symptoms of active TB include: (5)

A
  1. Chronic cough
  2. Hemoptysis
  3. Weight loss
  4. Night sweats
  5. Fever
101
Q

What test is used to test for tuberculosis?

A

Mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD Test)

102
Q

The Mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD test) is a ____ reaction to the protein from M. tuberculosis

A

type IV delayed hypersensitivity

103
Q

_____ tuberculin injection is how the Mantoux tuberculin skin test is performed

A

Intracutaneous

104
Q

In a PPD test, what occurs with a positive result?

A

T-cells sensitized by prior infection are recruited to the area and this produces an area of induration

105
Q

What does it mean if someone has a positive tuberculin skin test? (3)

A
  1. individual has been infection
  2. cell-mediated hypersensitivity exists
  3. does NOT indicate active disease
106
Q

Describe the Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) Vaccination for TB: (4)

  1. what type of vaccination is it
  2. what does it cause
  3. Is it effective
  4. Territories of its use
A
  1. Live, attenuated strain of mycobacterium bovis
  2. Causes a positive PPD reaction
  3. Effectiveness is uncertain
  4. Not used in the U.S
107
Q

The bacillus calmette-guerin (BCG) vaccine is used for:

108
Q

Tuberculous lymphadenitis of the neck:

109
Q

Scrofula is tuberculous lymphadenitis of the neck caused by:

A

mycobacterium bovis infection from infected milk

110
Q

How do we prevent scrofula infections? (2)

A
  1. pasteurization of milk
  2. tuberculosis control for cattle
111
Q

Syphillis is caused by what organism?

A

Treponema Pallidum

112
Q

What are the 2 forms of syphilis and what are there transmissions?

A
  1. Acquired Syphilis- sexual transmission
  2. Congenital Syphilis- in utero transmission
113
Q

Clinical stages of untreated acquired syphilis (and their time frames)

A
  1. Primary (1 week to 3 months)
  2. Secondary (1 to 12 months)
  3. Tertiary (late) (1 to 30 years)
114
Q

Latent syphilis infections can relapse into:

A

secondary syphilis infections

115
Q

These images show ___ which is characteristic of ___

A

Primary Chancre of syphilis (Primary infection)

116
Q

These images show ___ which is characteristic of ___

A

Primary Chancre of syphilis (Primary infection)

117
Q

This image shows ___ which is characteristic of ___

A

Primary Chancre of syphilis (Primary infection)

118
Q

Lesions of secondary syphilis include:

A
  1. skin rash
  2. mucous patch
  3. condyloma lata
119
Q

These images are characteristic of:

A

Secondary syphilis

120
Q

What is shown in these images? What is it characteristic of?

A

Maculopapular rash- secondary syphilis

121
Q

What is shown in these images? What is it characteristic of?

A

Mucous patch of secondary syphilis

122
Q

Most destructive stage of syphilis:

A

tertiary syphilis

123
Q

___ & ____ are signs of tertiary syphilis

A

Gumma & Syphilitic glossitis

124
Q

Tertiary syphilis may have nervous system involvement called:

A

neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)

125
Q

Tertiary syphilis may have cardiovascular system involvement resulting in:

A

aneurysm of ascending aorta

126
Q

What systems may involved in tertiary syphilis?

A

nervous system & cardiovascular system

127
Q

What are shown in these images? What is this characteristic of?

A

Gumma; tertiary syphilis

128
Q

What lesions are associated with the following stages of syphilis?

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary

Discuss there infectivity:

A
  1. chancre- infectious
  2. mucous patch- infectious
  3. gumma- not infectious
129
Q

Lesions of congenital syphilis include:

A
  1. snuffles
  2. saddle nose
  3. rhagades
  4. Hutchinson’s incisors
  5. mulberry molars
130
Q

Congenital syphilis depressed nasal bridge=

A

saddle nose

131
Q

Dental stigmata of congenital syphilis include:

A

Hutchinson’s incisors & mulberry molars

132
Q

Hutchinson’s Triad of Congenital Syphilis includes:

A
  1. Blind- interstitial keratitis
  2. Deaf
  3. Dental anomalies
133
Q

Describe the laboratory tests for syphilis:

  1. culture-
  2. microscopy-
  3. Serologic tests-
A
  1. cannot culture
  2. dark field or fluorescence microscopy
  3. Non-treponemal tests- reagin- antibody to cardiolipin & Treponemal tests specific for T. Pallidum
134
Q

Discuss the non-treponemal tests- reagin- antibody to cardiolipin for syphilis (2):

A
  1. VDRL- Veneral disease research laboratory
  2. RPR- Rapid plasma reagin
135
Q

Discuss the Treponemal Tests - specific for T. Pallidum for syphilis (2):

A
  1. FTA-ABS: fluorescent treponema antigen absorption
  2. MHA- TP- microhemagglutinin- treponema pallidum
136
Q

Actinomycosis is a ____ pathogen

137
Q

The diseases caused by fungi may be: (4):

A
  1. superficial
  2. subcutaneous
  3. systemic
  4. opportunistic
138
Q

Fungal disease of the skin, hair or nails:

A

superficial

139
Q

What is an example of a fungal infection that causes superficial disease?

A

dermatophytes

140
Q

Fungal disease of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue:

A

subcutaneous

141
Q

What is an example of a fungal infection that causes subcutaneous disease?

A

Sporotricosis

142
Q

Deep fungal infections of internal organs:

143
Q

What is an example of a fungal infection that causes systemic disease?

A

Histoplasmosis

144
Q

Fungal infection of an immunocompromised host:

A

opportunistic

145
Q

What is an example of an opportunistic fungal infection?

A

Candidiasis

146
Q

Histoplasmosis is endemic to:

A

Mississippi River Valley

147
Q

Transmission of histoplasmosis is by:

A

inhalation of spores (bird droppings & dust particles)

148
Q

______ infection is usual of histoplasmosis?

A

sub-clinical

149
Q

Histoplasmosis presents similar to ____ syndrome

150
Q

Deep fungal infection of the lungs caused by the inhalation of spores:

A

Histoplasmosis

151
Q

Discuss the components of histoplasmosis (4):

  1. ____ of spores
  2. ____
  3. Specific ___
  4. _____ of organism
  5. ___ ____
A
  1. inhalation of spores
  2. phagocytosis
  3. specific immunity
  4. killing of organism
  5. dystrophic calcification
152
Q

What is the arrow pointing to?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

153
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum is a ___ fungus meaning:

A

dimorphic fungus- yeast @ body temp and mold in nature

154
Q

What percent of the population is infected by histoplasma capsulatum?

155
Q

What is the most common systemic fungal infection in the USA?

A

histoplasma capsulatum (histoplasmosis I believe)

156
Q

Histoplasmosis infection of the elderly, debilitated, immunosuppressed or AIDS patients:

A

Disseminated histoplasmosis

157
Q

Disseminated histoplasmosis involves the spread to:

A

extra-pulmonary sites

158
Q

____ lesions such as ____ and ____ lesions are involved with disseminated histoplasmosis

A

adrenal lesions; addisons disease

oral lesions

159
Q

Valley fever =

A

coccidioidomycosis

160
Q
  • Deep fungal infection of the lungs
  • 40% develop respiratory symptoms
  • Disseminated disease may occur
  • Common in southwestern areas
A

Coccidioidmycosis

161
Q

Clinical forms of oral candidiasis include: (5)

A
  1. Pseudomembranous (thrush)
  2. Erythmatous (atrophic)
  3. Hyperplastic
  4. Angular Cheilitis (Perleche)
  5. Central Papillary Atrophy
162
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

pseudomembraneous (thrush)

163
Q

What form of candidiasis may also be called thrush?

A

pseudomembraneous

164
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

Erythematous (atrophic)

165
Q

What form of candidiasis may be considered atrophic candidiasis?

A

erythematous

166
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

hyperplastic

167
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

angular cheilitis (perleche)

168
Q

What for of candidiasis may be called perleche?

A

angular cheilitis

169
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

central papillary atrophy

170
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

acute pseudomembranous candidiasis (thrush)

171
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

pseudomembranous candidiasis

172
Q

What is the treatment for pseudomembranous candidiasis?

A

Fluconazole (diflucan) 100mg

173
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

atrophic candidiasis

174
Q

____ agar has a low pH and gentamicin to inhibit bacterial growth (and allow for candidiasis growth)

A

sabauraud agar

175
Q

What feature is present on oral exfoliative cytology for diagnosis candidiasis fungal infections?

A

candida pseudohyphae

176
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

erythematous candidiasis

177
Q

What is the treatment for erythematous candidiasis?

A

fluconazole (diflucan) 100 mg

178
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

erythematous candidiasis

179
Q

What is one way someone can get a candidiasis infection due to medication?

A

steroid inhalers

180
Q

Angular cheilitis may also be called:

181
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

angular cheilitis

182
Q

What are the treatment options for angular cheilitis?

A
  • Clotrimazole (Mycelex) Cream 1%
  • Nystatin/ Triamcinolone Ointment
  • Vytone Cream
183
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

hyperplastic candidiasis

184
Q

Central papillary atrophy may also be called:

A

median rhomboid glossitis

185
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured? (give both names)

A

Central papillary atrophy (mediam rhomboid glossitis)

186
Q

chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is caused by:

A

T-cell defect

187
Q

What clinical form of candidiasis is pictured?

A

chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

188
Q

candidiasis is common in what type of infection?

Pathology (24 decks)

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