Musculoskeletal Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

there are two drugs that can treat osteoporosis agents that decrease ____ ______ & that promote _____ _____

A

bone resorption
bone formation

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2
Q

antiresorptive drugs (5)

A

estrogen
raloxifene
biphosphonates
calcitonin
denosumab

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3
Q

antiresorptive durgs reduce ____ activity and are beneficial in the ___ stages of osteoporosis

A

osteoclast
early

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4
Q

raloxifene is a ____ therapy drug

A

hormone

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5
Q

you should stop taking raloxifene 72 hours before ___ and should only resume when you are back to being _____

A

surgery
fully mobile

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6
Q

what are adverse effects of raloxifene (3)

A

venous thromboembolism
fetal harm
hot flashes

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7
Q

alendronate is a ______

A

bisphosphonate

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8
Q

what are side effects of alendronate (3)

A

anorexia
wt loss
gastritis

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9
Q

we want to take alendronate w/ a full glass of ____ and take ____ mins before food or other meds

A

water
30

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10
Q

we wan pts who take alendronate to stay upright for ___ mins after takin this med

A

30 mins

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11
Q

give calcitonin via ____ form @ ____ to minimize side effects

A

IM
night

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12
Q

we want to alternate ____ when using ____ form of calcitonin

A

nostrils
nasal

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13
Q

we must use a ___ supplement with calcitonin

A

Ca

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14
Q

denosumab is a

A

RANKL drug

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15
Q

denosumab is used in postmenpausal ___ & ____ who are @ risk for ____

A

women
men
fxs

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16
Q

denosumab is injected Subq every ___ months

A

6

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17
Q

teriparatide is a form of the ____ hormone

A

PTH

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18
Q

teriparatide is the only drug that ___ bone formation

A

increases

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19
Q

what are side effects of teriparatide

A

nausea
headache
back pain
leg cramps

20
Q

what is the black box warning associated w/ teriparatide

A

increased risk of osteosarcoma

21
Q

cephalosporins are low in ___ compared to other antibiotics

22
Q

cephalosporins are the most widely used group of ___

A

antibiotics

23
Q

cephalosporins mechanism of action is to disrupt ___ synthesis

24
Q

what is the classification of cephalosporins

A

1st-4th generation

25
example of first gen cephalosporin
cefazolin
26
example of 2nd gen cephalosporin
cefaclor
27
ex. of 3rd gen cephalosporin
cefoperazone
28
ex. of 4th gen cephalosporin
cefepime
29
what things can interact w/ cephalosporins
probenecid alcohol drugs that promote bleeding ca ceftriaxone
30
what are adverse effects to cephalosporins (3)
allergic reaction bleeding thrombophlebitits
31
first & second gen cephalosporins are rarely used for _____ infections
active
32
1st & 2nd gen cephalsporins are used for ___
prophylaxis
33
3rd & 4th gen are used for ___ infections
active
34
Vancomycin is used for ____ infections only
severe
35
vancomycin can be used against
methicillin-resistant staph aureus (MRSA) Staph epidermidis
36
vancomycin can be used orally for what infection
c-diff
37
vancomycin is highly ____
toxic
38
what are adverse effects that can be caused by vanco
ototoxicity red man syndrome thrombophlebitis thrombocytopenia
39
aminoglycosides are ___spectrum antibiotics
narrow
40
aminoglycosides are highly ___
toxic
41
what two names of aminoglycosides will we see
gentamicin tobramycin
42
aminoglycosides can cause injury to ____ ear & ____
inner kidney
43
not absorbed in the ____ tract
GI
44
what are adverse effects of aminoglycosides
nephrotoxicity ototoxicity hypersensitivity reactions neuromuscular blockade blood dyscrasias
45
what drug can aminoglycosides interact with
PCN
46
aminoglycosides should either be taken in a ____ large does each day or ___ to ___ smaller doses
single 2 to 3
47
peak levels for aminoglycosides must be high enough to ____ bacteria & low enogh to minimize _____
kill toxicity