Module 15: Musculoskeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

what is included in the musculoskeletal system?

A

bones, muscles, and joints

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2
Q

What are bones?

A

they provide the framework on which the body is constructed and protect and support internal organs

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3
Q

what are joints?

A

the places at which bones come together

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4
Q

what are muslces?

A

whether attached to bones or to internal organs and blood vessels, they are responsible for movement

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5
Q

what are tendons?

A

the connective tissue that bind muscles to bones

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6
Q

what are ligaments?

A

the connective tissue that bind bones to bones

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7
Q

orthopedists

A

physicians who treat (surgically or medically) bone, joint, muscle conditions

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8
Q

orth/o

A

straight

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9
Q

ped/o

A

child

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10
Q

orthopedics

A

a branch of medicine correcting deformities in children

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11
Q

rheumoatologists

A

physicians (nonsurgical) who specialize primarily in joint problems

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12
Q

rheumat/o

A

watery flow which refers to joint fluid

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13
Q

physiatrists

A

physicians whose focus is on rehabilitation after injury or illness to muscles, bones and nerves

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14
Q

who can specialize in orthopedics or rheumatology?

A

both a medical doctor (MD) and an osteopathic physician (DO)

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15
Q

chiropractor

A

is not a physician but has extensive and specialized training in using physical means to manipulate the spinal column, joints, and soft tissues

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16
Q

chir/o

A

hand

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17
Q

physical therapist

A

a health care professional (not a doctor) who develops a treatment plan based on a physician’s diagnosis

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18
Q

osseous tissue

A

bony connective tissue with a rich supply of blood vessels and nerves

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19
Q

osteocytes

A

bone cells

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20
Q

collagen

A

dense connective tissue strands

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21
Q

what does osseous tissue consist of?

A

osteocytes, collagen, and intercellular calcium salts

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22
Q

cartilaginous tissue

A

resembles osseous tissue but is more flexible and less dense because of a lack of calcium salts in its intercellular spaces, common in fetal development

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23
Q

ossification

A

bone formation

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24
Q

osteoblasts

A

are the immature osteocytes that produce the bony tissue that replaces cartilage during ossification

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25
Q

osteoclasts

A

are large cells that function to reabsorb or digest bony tissue

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26
Q

-clast

A

from the Greek word meaning to break

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27
Q

what is another word for osteoclasts?

A

bone phagocytes

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28
Q

what is the purpose of osteoclasts?

A

to digest bone tissue so that the bone does not become overly thick and heaby

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29
Q

osteoclasts vs. osteboblasts

A

the work together tearing down and rebuilding bony tissue

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30
Q

Which minerals help with the formation of bone?

A

calcium and phosphorus and vitamin D

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31
Q

Which substance gives bones its characteristic hard quality?

A

major calcium salt

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32
Q

what does the parathyroid gland do?

A

it maintains the necessary level of calcium in the blood, which secretes a hormone that signals the release of calcium from bone storage

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33
Q

How many bones are in the body?

A

206 various bone types

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34
Q

Where are long bones found?

A

are found in the thigh, lower leg, upper and lower arm

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35
Q

what are long bones?

A

these bones are very strong, are broad at the ends where they join with other bones, and have large surface areas for muscle attachment

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36
Q

where are short bones found?

A

in the wrist and ankle

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37
Q

What are short bones?

A

bones which are small with irregular shapes

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38
Q

where are flat bones found?

A

found covering soft body parts

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39
Q

types of flat bones

A

skull, shoulder blades, ribs, and pelvic bones

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40
Q

what are sesamoid bones?

A

they are small, rounded bones (resembling a sesame seed in shape)

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41
Q

where are sesamoid bones found?

A

they are found near joints and they increase the efficiency of muscles near a particular joint

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42
Q

what is an example of a sesamoid bone?

A

the kneecap (the largest of its type)

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43
Q

what is the diaphysis?

A

the shaft or middle region of a long bone

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44
Q

what is an epiphysis?

A

each end of a long bone

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45
Q

what does the epiphyseal line or plate represent?

A

an area of cartilage tissue that is constantly being replaced by new bone tissue as the bone grows

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46
Q

what is another term for the epiphyseal line/ plate?

A

the growth plate

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47
Q

what happens to the plate when it has achieved full growth?

A

the plate calcifies and disappears

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48
Q

what is metaphysis?

A

the flared portion of the bone, it lies between the epiphysis and the diaphysis and is adjacent to the epiphyseal plate

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49
Q

what is the periosteum?

A

a strong, fibrous, vascular membrane that covers the surface of long bones, except at the ends of the epiphyses

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50
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

a type of connective tissue that covers the end of each bone to form a joint

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51
Q

What happens to the articular cartilage after full growth is achieved?

A

Nothing, it is present throughout life

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52
Q

compact (cortical bone)

A

a layer of hard, dense bone that lies under the periosteum in all bones and is located chiefly around the diaphysis of long bones

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53
Q

haversian canals

A

small canals located within the compact bone containing blood vessels that bring oxygen and nutrients to the bone and remove waste products

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54
Q

medullary cavity

A

the tunneled-out area in the compact bone of the central shaft found within long bones that contains yellow bone marrow

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55
Q

what is yellow bone marrow composed of?

A

fat cells

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56
Q

cancellous bone aka spongy or trabecular bone

A

is much more porous and less dense than compact bone

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57
Q

traveculae

A

are interwoven fibers found largely in the epiphyses and metaphyses of long bones and in the middle portion of most bones

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58
Q

where is red bone marrow found?

A

cancellous bone

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59
Q

what does red bone marrow consist of?

A

immature and mature blood cells in various stages of cevelopment

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60
Q

hematopoiesis

A

is the formation of all types of blood cells in the bone marrow

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61
Q

what are bone processes?

A

are enlarged areas that extend out from bones to serve as attachments for muscles, tendons and ligaments

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62
Q

what are bone depressions?

A

are openings or hollow regions serving as connections between bones, or passageways for blood vessels and nerves

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63
Q

bone head (process)

A

rounded end of a bone

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64
Q

condyle (process)

A

rounded knuckle-like process

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65
Q

epicondyle (process)

A

small rounded process above the condyle

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66
Q

trochanters (process)

A

large and small processes for tendons attachments

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67
Q

tuberosity (tubercle) (process)

A

small round elevation where tendons are muscles attach

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68
Q

list the 5 types of processes

A
  1. bone head
  2. condyle
  3. epicondyle
  4. trochanters
  5. tuberosity (tubercule)
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69
Q

fissure (depression)

A

narrow groove or slit-like opening example: orbital fissure

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70
Q

foramen (depression)

A

opening for blood vessels and nerves, example: foramen magnum of the skull

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71
Q

fossa (depression)

A

shallow cavity in or on a bone, example: elbow

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72
Q

sinus (depression)

A

hollow cavity within bone, example, sinuses of the skull

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73
Q

ment/o

A

chin

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74
Q

frontal bone

A

forms the head and the roof of the bony sockets that contain the eyes

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75
Q

parietal bone

A

the two bones that form the roof and upper part of the sides of the cranium (one on each side of the skull)

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76
Q

temporal bone

A

the two bones that form the lower sides and base of the cranium

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77
Q

What does TMJ stand for?

A

Temporomandibular Joint

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78
Q

mast/o

A

breast

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79
Q

styl/o

A

pole or stake

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80
Q

occipital bone

A

forms the back and base of the skull and joins the parietal and temporal bones, forming a suture

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81
Q

foramen magnum

A

an opening through which the psinal cord passes

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82
Q

sphenoid bone

A

the bat-shaped bone that extends behind the eyes and forms part of the base of the skull

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83
Q

sphen/o

A

wedge

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84
Q

sella turcica

A

a depression in the sphenoid bone in which the pituitary gland is located

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85
Q

ethmoid bone

A

the thin, delicate bone that supports the nasal cavity and forms part of the sockets of the eyes

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86
Q

ethm/o

A

sieve

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87
Q

nasal bones

A

the two slender bones that support the bridge of the nose

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88
Q

nas/o

A

nose

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89
Q

lacrimal bones

A

the two small, thin bones located at the corner of each eye

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90
Q

lacrim/o

A

tear

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91
Q

maxillary bones

A

the two large bones that compose the massive upper jawbones (maxillae)

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92
Q

cleft palate

A

the result when the two maxillary bones do not come together normally before birth

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93
Q

zygomatic bones

A

the two bones on each side of the face that form the high portion of the cheek

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94
Q

vomer

A

the thin, single, flat bone that forms the lower portion of the nasal septum

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95
Q

sinuses or air cavities

A

are located in specific places within the cranial and facial bones to lighten the skull and warm and moisten air as it passes through

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96
Q

how many bone segments make up the vertebral (spinal) column?

A

26 bone segments called vertebrae

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97
Q

intervertebral disks

A

the cartilage pads that separate the bones

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98
Q

clavicle

A

collar bone; a slender bone, positioned ventrally one on each side connecting the breastbone to each shoulder blade

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99
Q

scapula

A

should blade; one of two flat triangular bones on each dorsal side of the thorax

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100
Q

acro/o

A

extremity

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101
Q

om/o

A

shoulder

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102
Q

acromion

A

the extension of the scapula that joins with the clavicle to form a joint above the shoulder

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103
Q

sternum

A

breastbone; a flat bone extending ventrally down the midline of the chest

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104
Q

xiph/o

A

sword

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105
Q

ribs

A

there are 12 pairs

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106
Q

true ribs

A

the first 7 rib bones

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107
Q

false ribs

A

ribs 8 to 10

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108
Q

floating ribs

A

ribs 11 to 12

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109
Q

humerus

A

upper arm bone; the large head of the humerus is rounded and joins with the glenoid fossa of the scapula to form the shoulder or glenoid humeral joint

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110
Q

ulna

A

medial lower arm (forearm) bone; the proximal bony process of the ulna at the elbow is called the olecranon (elbow bone)

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111
Q

radius

A

lateral lower arm (forearm) bone in line with the thumb

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112
Q

carpals

A

wrist bones; there are two rows of four bones

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113
Q

metacarpals

A

the five bones of the palm of the hand

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114
Q

phalanges

A

finger bones; each finger (except the thumb) has three [vocab word]: a proximal, a middle, and a distal phalanx whereas the thumb has only two: a proximal and distal phalanx

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115
Q

pelvic girdle

A

pelvis; this collection of bones supports the trunk of the body and articulates with the femur to form the hip joint

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116
Q

how many bones is the adult pelvis composed of?

A

3; the ilium, ischium, and pubis

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117
Q

ilium

A

uppermost and largest portion of the pelvis

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118
Q

iliac crest

A

the superior part of the ilium

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119
Q

ischium

A

inferior or lower part of the pelvis: it is where you sit

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120
Q

pubis

A

anterior part of the pelvis

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121
Q

pubic symphysis

A

the area where two pubic bones join by way of a cartilaginous disk

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122
Q

pelvic cavity

A

region within the ring of bone formed by the pelvic girdle

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123
Q

femur

A

thigh bone; this is the longest bone in the body

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124
Q

acetabulum

A

the socket where the femur fits in the pelvis

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125
Q

hip joint

A

the femur and acetabulum form a ball-and-socket joint

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126
Q

patella

A

kneecap; this is a small, flat bone that lies in front of the articulation between the femur and one of the lower leg bones called the tibia

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127
Q

tibia

A

larger of the two bones of the lower leg; runs under the skin in the front part of the leg

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128
Q

what is the common name for the tibia?

A

the shin bone

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129
Q

fibula

A

smaller of the two lower leg bones; this thin bone, well hidden under the leg muscles, runs parallel to the tibia

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130
Q

what forms the ankle joint?

A

the tibia, fibula and talus (the first of the tarsal bones)

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131
Q

tarsals

A

bones of the hind part of the foot (hindfoot); these seven short bones resemble the carpal bones of the wrist but are larger

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132
Q

calcaneus

A

the largest of the tarsal bones and also is call the heel bone

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133
Q

metatarsals

A

bones of the midfoot; there are five metatarsal bones which are similar to the metacarpals of the hand

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134
Q

phalanges of the toes

A

bones of the forefoot; as in the digits of the hand, there are two phalanges in the big toe and three in each of the other toes

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135
Q

acromion

A

outward extension of the shoulder blade forming the point of the shoulder. It overlies the shoulder joint and articulates with the clavicle

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136
Q

bone

A

dense, hard connective tissue composing the skeleton

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137
Q

bone depression

A

opening or hollow region serving as a connection for bones, or passageways for blood vessels and nerves

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138
Q

bone process

A

enlarged area that extends from bones as an attachment for muscles, tendons, and ligaments

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139
Q

cancellous bone

A

spongy, porous, bone tissue in the inner part of a bone

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140
Q

cartilage

A

flexible, rubbery connective tissue

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141
Q

disk (disc)

A

flat, round plate-like structure

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142
Q

fontanelle

A

soft spot (incomplete bone formation) between the skull bones of an infant

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143
Q

foramen megnum

A

opening of the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes

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144
Q

malleolus

A

round process on both sides of the ankle joint.

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145
Q

manubrium

A

upper portion of the sternum and moves with the medial aspect of the clavicle

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146
Q

mastoid process

A

round projection on the temporal bone behind the ear

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147
Q

medullary cavity

A

central, hollowed-out area in the shaft of a long bone

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148
Q

olecranon

A

large process on the proximal end of the ulna; the point of the flexed elbow

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149
Q

orthopedist

A

medical doctor who specializes in bone, joint, and muscle conditions

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150
Q

osseous tissue

A

bone tissue

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151
Q

styloid process

A

pole-like process extending downward from the temporal lobe on each side of the skull

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152
Q

temporomandibular joint

A

connection on either side of the head between the temporal bone of the skull and mandibular bone of the jaw

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153
Q

trabeculae

A

supporting bundles of bony fibers in cancellous bone

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154
Q

vertebra

A

individual segment of the spine composed of the vertebral body, vertebral arch, spinous process, transverse process, and lamina, enclosing the neural canal

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155
Q

xiphoid process

A

lower narrow portion of the sternum

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156
Q

calc/o or calci/o

A

calcium

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157
Q

hypercalcemia

A

high levels of calcium in the blood

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158
Q

decalcification

A

lack of calcium production

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159
Q

kyph/o

A

humpback, hunchback

160
Q

kyphosis

A

abnormal condition of outward curvature of the spine

161
Q

lamin/o

162
Q

laminectomy

A

surgical removal of the posterior portion of the vertebra

163
Q

lord/o

A

curve, swayback

164
Q

lordosis

A

the normal curvature of the lumbar spine becomes exaggerated

165
Q

lumb/o

A

loins, lower back

166
Q

lumbar

A

pertaining to the lower back

167
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

168
Q

myelopoiesis

A

formation of bone marrow

169
Q

orth/o

170
Q

orthopedics

A

surgical specially devoted to bones and disease/ deformities

171
Q

oste/o

172
Q

osteitis

A

inflammation of bone

173
Q

osteogenesis

A

development of bones

174
Q

osteodystrophy

A

abnormal development of bone

175
Q

scoli/o

A

crooked, bent

176
Q

scoliosis

A

abnormal condition of sideways curvature of the spine

177
Q

spondyl/o

178
Q

spondylosi

A

abnormal condition of the spine

179
Q

vertebr/o

180
Q

vertebroplasty

A

surgical repair of the vertebra

181
Q

-blast

A

embryonic or immature cell

182
Q

-clast

183
Q

-listhesis

184
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

the forward slipping of a vertebra over a lower vertebra

185
Q

-malacia

186
Q

osteomalacia

A

softening of bone

187
Q

-physis

188
Q

-porosis

A

pore, passage

189
Q

-tome

A

instrument to cut

190
Q

osteotome

A

surgical chisel designed to cut bone

191
Q

acetabul/o

A

acetabulum (hip socket)

192
Q

calcane/o

A

calcaneus (heel)

193
Q

carp/o

A

carpals (wrist bones)

194
Q

clavicul/o

A

clavicle (collar bone)

195
Q

supreclavicular

A

pertaining to above the clavicle

196
Q

cost/o

A

ribs (true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs)

197
Q

crani/o

A

cranium (skull)

198
Q

femor/o

A

femur (thigh bone)

199
Q

fibul/o

A

fibula (smaller lower leg bone)

200
Q

humer/o

A

humerus (upper arm bone)

201
Q

ili/o

A

ilium (upper part of pelvic bone)

202
Q

ischi/o

A

ischium (posterior on part of pelvic bone)

203
Q

malleol/o

A

malleolus (process on each side of the ankle)

204
Q

madibul/o

A

mandible (lower jawbone)

205
Q

maxill/o

A

maxilla (upper jawbone)

206
Q

metacarp/o

A

metacarpals (hand bones)

207
Q

metatars/o

A

metatarsals (foot bones)

208
Q

olecran/o

A

olecranon (elbows)pat

209
Q

ell/o

A

patella (kneecap)

210
Q

pelv/i

A

pelvis (hipbone)

211
Q

perone/o

212
Q

phalang/o

A

phalanges (finger and/or toe bones)

213
Q

pub/o

A

pubis (anterior part of the pelvic bone)

214
Q

radi/o

A

radius (forearm bone - thumb side)

215
Q

scapul/o

A

scapula (shoulder blade)

216
Q

stern/o

A

sternum (breastbone)

217
Q

tars/o

A

tarsals (bones of the hindfoot)

218
Q

tibi/o

A

tibia (shin bone)

219
Q

uln/o

A

ulna (forearm bone - little finger side)

220
Q

Ewing sarcoma

A

rare malignant tumor arising in bone; most often occurring in children

221
Q

exostosis

A

bony growth (benign) arising from the surface of bone

222
Q

osteochondromas

A

tumors composed of cartilage and bone

223
Q

bunion

A

swelling of the metatarsophalangeal joint near the base of the big toe and is accompanied by the buildup of soft tissue and underlying bone at the distal/ medial aspect of the first metatarsal

224
Q

fracture

A

traumatic breaking of a bone

225
Q

simple (closed) fracture

A

the bone is broken but there is not open wound in the skin

226
Q

compound (open) fracture

A

the bone is broken and a fragment of bone protrudes through an open wound in the skin

227
Q

crepitus

A

is the crackling sound produced when ends of bones rub each other or rub against roughened cartilage

228
Q

reduction

A

the restoration of the bone to its normal position

229
Q

closed reduction

A

is manipulative reduction without a surgical incision

230
Q

open reduction

A

an incision is made for access to the fracture site

231
Q

cast

A

solid mold of the body part is applied to fractures to immobilize the injured bone after a closed reduction

232
Q

what does ORIF stand for?

A

Open Reduction/Internal Fixation

233
Q

colles

A

a type of fracture near the wrist at distal end of the radius

234
Q

comminuted

A

a type of fracture where the bone is splintered and crushed into several pieces

235
Q

compression

A

a type of fracture where the bone collapses or is compressed; occurs in vertebrae

236
Q

greenstick

A

a type of fracture where the bone is partially broken; breaks on one surface and bends on the other; often occurring in the forearm

237
Q

impacted

A

a type of fracture where one fragment is driven firmly into the other; at the head of the femur or head of the humerus

238
Q

osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma)

A

common malignant tumor arising from osteoblasts, found primarily in children and adolescents

239
Q

osteomalacia

A

softening of bone with inadequate amounts of mineral (calcium) in the bone

240
Q

what is the common name for osteomalacia?

A

rickets (when it occurs in children)

241
Q

osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of the bone and bone marrow secondary to infection

242
Q

osteoporosis

A

decrease in bone density (mass); thinning and weakening of bone

243
Q

osteopenia

A

a condition in which bone mineral density is lower than normal

244
Q

kyphosis

A

loss of bone mass due to osteoporosis produces posterior curvature of the spine in the thoracic cavity

245
Q

talipes

A

congenital abnormality of the hindfoot (involving the talus)

246
Q

what is the most common form of talipes?

A

talipes equinovarus or clubfoot

247
Q

equin/o

248
Q

articulation

A

any type of joint

249
Q

bursa (plural bursae)

A

sac of fluid near a joint; promotes smooth sliding of one tissue against another

250
Q

ligament

A

connective tissue binding bones to other bones; supports, strengthens, and stabilizes the joint

251
Q

meniscus

A

crescent-shaped fibrocartilaginous structure found in the knee

252
Q

suture joint

A

immovable joint, such as between the bones of the skull

253
Q

synovial cavity

A

space between bones at a synovial joint; contains synovial fluid produced by the synovial membrane

254
Q

synovial fluid

A

viscous (sticky) fluid within the synovial cavity; similar to the viscosity of egg whites

255
Q

syn/o

256
Q

ov/o

257
Q

synovial joint

A

a freely movable joint

258
Q

synovial membrane

A

tissue lining the synovial cavity; it produces synovial fluid

259
Q

tendon

A

connective tissue that binds muscles to bones

260
Q

what does ACL stand for?

A

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

261
Q

ankyl/o

262
Q

arthr/o

263
Q

articul/o

264
Q

burs/o

265
Q

chondr/o

266
Q

ligament/o

267
Q

rheumat/o

A

watery flow

268
Q

synov/o

A

synovial membrane

269
Q

ten/o

270
Q

tenorrhaphy

A

suture of a tendon

271
Q

tendin/o

272
Q

rheymatologist

A

a specialist in the diagnosis and treatment of joint diseases

273
Q

-desis

A

to bind, tie together

274
Q

-stenosis

275
Q

arthritis

A

inflammation of any joint

276
Q

ankylosing spondylitis

A

chronic, progressive arthritis with stiffening joints, primarily of the spine

277
Q

gouty arthritis (gout)

A

inflammation and painful swelling of joints caused by excessive uric acid in the body

278
Q

podagra

A

excessive pain of the foot

279
Q

-agra

A

excessive pain

280
Q

osteoarthritis (OA)

A

progressive, degenerative joint disease with loss of articular cartilage and hypertrophy of bone (formation of osteophytes, or bone spurs) at articular surfaces

281
Q

degenerative joint disease

A

can occur in any joint but occurs mainly in the spine, hips, and knees of older people

282
Q

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

A

chronic joint condition with inflammation and pain; caused by an autoimmune reaction against joint tissue, particularly the synovial membrane

283
Q

bunion

A

enlargement of bone or tissue around the joint at the base of the big toe (metatarsophalangeal joint)

284
Q

what is another name for a bunion?

A

hallux valgus (abnormal angulation of the great toe)

285
Q

bunionectomy

A

removal of a bunion

286
Q

carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)

A

compression of the median nerve as it passes between the ligaments and the bones and tendons of the wrist

287
Q

dislocation

A

displacement of a bone from its joint

288
Q

subluxation

A

a partial or incomplete dislocation

289
Q

ganglion cyst

A

fluid-filled sac arising from joint capsules or tendons, typically in the band

290
Q

herniation of an intervertebral disc

A

abnormal protrusion of an intervertebral disc into the spinal canal or spinal nerves

291
Q

what is the common term for herniation of an intervertebral disc?

A

a slipped disc

292
Q

sciatica

A

pain radiating down the leg

293
Q

microdiskectomy

A

removal of a portion of the protruding disk

294
Q

what does HNP stand for?

A

Herniated Nucleus Pulposus

295
Q

Lyme disease (Lyme arthritis)

A

disorder marked by arthritis, myalgia, and malaise; cause is a bacterium carried by a tick

296
Q

sprain

A

trauma to ligaments without rupture

297
Q

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease involving joints, skin, kidneys, central nervous system, heart, and lungs

298
Q

lupus

A

meaning wolf, because people with lupus looked like their skin had been affected by wolf bites

299
Q

abduction

A

movement away from the midline of the body

300
Q

adduction

A

movement toward the midline of the body

301
Q

dosiflexiun

A

backward (upward) bend of the foot)

302
Q

extension

A

straightening of a flexed limb

303
Q

fascia

A

fibrous membrane separating and enveloping muscles

304
Q

flexion

A

bending a limb; descending the angle between bones

305
Q

insertion of a muscle

A

connection of the muscles to a bone that moves

306
Q

origin of a muscle

A

connection of the muscle to a stationary bone

307
Q

plantar flexion

A

bending the sole of the foot downward toward the ground

308
Q

pronation

A

turning the palm downward

309
Q

rotation

A

circular movement around a central point

310
Q

internal rotation

A

turning toward the center of the body

311
Q

external rotation

A

turning away from the center of the body

312
Q

striated muscle

A

muscle connected to bones; voluntary or skeletal muscle

313
Q

supination

A

turning the palm upward

314
Q

visceral muscle

A

muscle connected to internal organs; involuntary or smooth muscles

315
Q

fasci/o

A

fascia (forms sheaths enveloping muscles)f

316
Q

ibr/o

A

fibrous connective tissue

317
Q

fibromyalgia

A

chronic pain and stiffness in muscles, joints, and fibrous tissue especially of the back, shoulders, neck, hips and knees

318
Q

leiomy/o

A

smooth (visceral) muscle that lines the walls of internal organs

319
Q

my/o

320
Q

myalgia

A

muscle pain

321
Q

myocardi/o

A

heart muscle

322
Q

myocardial

A

pertaining to the heart muscle

323
Q

plant/o

A

sole of the foot

324
Q

plantar flexion

A

downward bend

325
Q

rhabdomy/o

A

skeletal (striated) muscle connected to bones

326
Q

rhabdomyoma

A

benign tumor

327
Q

sarc/o

A

muscle and flesh

328
Q

-asthenia

A

lack of strength

329
Q

-trophy

A

development, nourishment

330
Q

atrophy

A

decrease in size of an organ or tissue

331
Q

ab-

332
Q

ad-

333
Q

dorsi-

334
Q

poly-

A

many, much

335
Q

muscular dystrophy

A

group of inherited diseases characterized by progressive weakness and degeneration of muscle fibres without involvement of the nervous system

336
Q

what is the most common form of muscular hystrophy?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

337
Q

pseudohypertrophy

A

muscles appear enlarged as fat replaces function muscle cells that have degenerated and atrophied

338
Q

polymyositis

A

chronic inflammatory myopathy

339
Q

antinuclear antibody test (ANA)

A

detects an antibody present in serum of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and other autoimmune diseases

340
Q

what does SLE stand for?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

341
Q

What does ANA stand for?

A

Antinuclear Antibody Test

342
Q

what does ESR stand for?

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

343
Q

erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

A

measures time it takes for erythrocytes to settle to the bottom of a test tube

344
Q

rheumatoid factor test (RF)

A

serum is tested for the presence of an antibody found in patients with rheumatoid arthritis

345
Q

serum calcium (Ca)

A

measurement of calcium level in serum

346
Q

serum creatine kinase (CK)

A

measurement of the enzyme creatine kinase in serum

347
Q

uric acid test

A

measurement of uric acid in serum

348
Q

arthrocentesis

A

surgical puncture to remove fluid from the joint space

349
Q

arthrography

A

taking x-ray images after injection of contrast material into a joint

350
Q

arthroplasty

A

surgical repair or replacement of a joint

351
Q

what does THR stand for?

A

Total Hip Replacement

352
Q

total hip replacement (THR)

A

is the replacement of the femoral head and acetabulum with prostheses that are fastened into the bone

353
Q

total knee replacement (TKR)

A

a metal prosthesis covers the end of the femur, and a tibial component made of metal and plastic covers the tip end of the tibia

354
Q

what does TKR stand for?

A

Total Knee Replacement

355
Q

resection arthroplasty

A

small portion of a bone is removed to repair the joint; acromioclavicular joint is a common location

356
Q

interposition arthroplasty

A

new tissue taken from another place is placed between damaged surface of elbow joint

357
Q

revision arthroplasty

A

an operation to replace a failing prosthetic joint

358
Q

arthroscopy

A

visual examination of a joint with an arthroscope and television camera

359
Q

bone density test (bone densitometry)

A

low-energy x-ray abdorption in bones of the spinal column, pelvis, and wrist is used to measure bone mass

360
Q

what does DEXA or DXA stand for?

A

Dual-Energy X-Ray Absorptiometry

361
Q

bone scan

A

uptake of a radioactive substance is measured in bone

362
Q

computed tomography (CT)

A

x-ray beam and computer provide cross-sectional and other images

363
Q

diskography

A

x-ray examination of cervical or lumbar intervertebral disk after injection of contrast into nucleus pulposus (interior of the disk)

364
Q

electromyography (EMG)

A

recording the strength of muscle contraction as a result of electrical stimulation

365
Q

what does EMG stand for?

A

ElectroMyoGraphy

366
Q

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

magnetic field creates images of soft tissuem

367
Q

muscle biopsy

A

removal of muscle tissue for microscopic examination

368
Q

what does AC stand for?

A

Acromioclavicular (joint)

369
Q

What does BKA stand for?

A

Below-Knee Amputation

370
Q

C1 to C7

A

cervical vertebrae

371
Q

what does CK stand for?

A

Creatine Kinase - enzyme elevated in muscle disease

372
Q

what does CMC stand for?

A

Carpometacarpal (joint)

373
Q

what does CTS stand for?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

374
Q

what does DMARD stand for?

A

Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug

375
Q

what does DO stand for?

A

Doctor of Osteopathy

376
Q

what does DTRs stand for?

A

Deep Tendon Reflexes

377
Q

what does ESR (sed rate) stand for?

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate - indicates inflammation

378
Q

what does HNP stand for?

A

Herniated Nucleus Pulposus

379
Q

what does IM stand for?

A

Intramuscular

380
Q

L1 to L5

A

lumbar vertebrae

381
Q

what does NSAID stand for?

A

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug - often prescribed to treat musculoskeletal disorders

382
Q

what does OA stand for?

A

Osteoarthritis

383
Q

what does ORIF stand for?

A

Open Reduction (of fracture)/ Internal Fixation

384
Q

what does OT stand for?

A

Occupational Therapy

385
Q

what does PT stand for?

A

Physical Therapy

386
Q

what does RA stand for?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

387
Q

what does RF stand for?

A

Rheumatoid Factor

388
Q

what does ROM stand for?

A

Range of Motion

389
Q

T1 to T12

A

thoracic vertebrae

390
Q

what does TMJ stand for?

A

Temporomandibular Joint

391
Q

what is the function of bone processes?

A

to serve as attachments for muscles and tendons

392
Q

what is flexion?

A

bending of a limb

393
Q

Paget disease (osteitis deformans)

A

a condition characterized by recurrent episodes of elevated bone resorption, followed by attempts at repair, resulting in deformed and weakened bones of excessive mass

394
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

a chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease involving the joints, skin, kidneys, nervous system, heart, and lungs

395
Q

arthrodesis

A

surgical fixation of a joint