Module 12: Respiratory System Flashcards

1
Q

What is respiration?

A

the mechanical process of breathing, the exchange of air between the lungs and the external environment

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2
Q

external respiration

A

the exchange of air at the lungs, oxygen is inhaled into the air spaces of the lungs and immediately passes into capillaries surrounding the air spaces, simultaneously, CO2 is exhaled

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3
Q

internal (cellular) respiration

A

involves an exchange of gases at the level of the cells within all organs of the body

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4
Q

nose

A

air enters through two openings called nostrils or nares

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5
Q

nasal cavity

A

lined with a mucous membrane and fine hairs (cilia) to help filter out foreign bodies, as well as to warm and moisten the air

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6
Q

paranasal sinuses

A

hollow, air-conditioning spaces within the skull that communicate with the nasal cavity

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7
Q

pharynx (throat)

A

air reaches this part of the body after the nasal cavity and has 3 divisions

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8
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the nasal cavity?

A
  1. nasopharynx, 2. oropharynx, and 3. laryngopharynx
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9
Q

nasopharynx

A

contains the pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) which are collections of lymphatic tissue. More common in children and if enlarged can block air passageways

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10
Q

oropharynx

A

close to the mouth with palatine tonsils

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11
Q

palatine tonsils

A

two rounded masses of lymphatic tissue

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12
Q

larayngopharynx

A

serves as a common passageway for food from the mouth and air from the nose. It divides into the larynx (voice box) and the esophagus

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13
Q

esophagus

A

leads into the stomach and carries food to be digested

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14
Q

larynx

A

contains the vocal cords and is surrounded by pieces of cartilage for support

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15
Q

thyroid cartilage

A

the largest and in men is commonly referred to as the Adam’s apple

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16
Q

epiglottis

A

a flap of cartilage attached to the root of the tongue prevents choking or aspiration of food (it acts as a lid over the opening of the larynx)

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17
Q

trachea (windpipe)

A

a vertical tube about 4.5 inches long and 1 inch in diameter and kept open by about 16-20 C-shaped rings of cartilage separated by fibrous connective tissue

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18
Q

bronchial tubes or bronchi (singular: bronchus)

A

branches into right and left and composed of delicate epithelium surrounded by cartilage rings and a muscular wall each side leads to a lung

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19
Q

bronchiols

A

small bronchial branches

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20
Q

terminal bronchiole

A

narrows into alveolar ducts, which end in collections of air sacs called alveoli (singular: aveolus)

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21
Q

alveoli (singular: aveolus)

A

There are about 300 million present in both lungs, each one is lined with a one-cell-thick layer of epithelium and allows the exchange of gases

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22
Q

What type of artery surrounds alveoli?

A

capillaries

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23
Q

erythrocytes

A

exist in the blood and carry oxygen away from the lungs to all parts of the body and carbon dioxide back to the lungs for exhalation

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24
Q

pleura

A

a double-layered membrane that covers each lung

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25
Q

parietal pleura

A

the outer layer of the pleura that is nearer to the ribs

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26
Q

visceral pleura

A

the inner layer of the pleura that is closer to the lung

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27
Q

serous

A

thing, watery fluid

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28
Q

What does serous do in the respiratory system?

A

the secretion moistens the pleura and facilitates movements of the lungs within the chest (thorax)

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29
Q

Are both lungs the same size?

A

No, the right lung is slightly larger

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30
Q

How many lobes is the right and left lung divided into?

A

the right has 3 lobes and the left has 2 lobes

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31
Q

apex of the lung

A

the uppermost part of the lung

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32
Q

base of the lung

A

the lower area of the lung

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33
Q

hilum

A

is the midline region in which blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic tissue, and bronchial tubes enter and exit

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34
Q

Where are the lungs located?

A

They extend from the collarbone to the diaphragm

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35
Q

diaphragm

A

located in the thoracic cavity, is a muscular partition separating the thoracic from the abdominal cavity and aiding in the process of breathing

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36
Q

during inhalation (inspiration)

A

the diaphragm contracts and descends

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37
Q

during exhalation (expiration)

A

the diaphragm relaxes and ascends

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38
Q

List the flow of air from start to finish

A
  1. nose (nares)
  2. nasal cavities and paranasal sinuses
  3. pharynx (adenoids and tonsils)
  4. larynx (epiglottis)
  5. trachea
  6. bronchi
  7. bronchioles
  8. alveoli
  9. lung capillaries (bloodstream)
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39
Q

cilia

A

thin hairs attached to the mucous membrane epithelium lining the respiratory tract. They clear bacteria and foreign substances from the lung

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40
Q

glottis

A

slit-like opening to the larynx (epi = above)

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41
Q

hilar

A

pertaining to the hilum

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42
Q

lobe

A

division of a lung

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43
Q

mediastinum

A

region between the lungs in the chest cavity. It contains the trachea, heart, lymph nodes, aorta, esophagus, and bronchial tubes

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44
Q

pulmonary parenchyma

A

essential parts of the lung, responsible for respiration; bronchioles and alveoli

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45
Q

adenoid/o

A

adenoids

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46
Q

alveol/o

A

alveolus, air sac

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47
Q

bronch/o, bronchi/o

A

bronchial tube, bronchus

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48
Q

bronchiol/o

A

bronchiole, small bronchus

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49
Q

capn/o

A

carbon dioxide

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50
Q

coni/o

A

dust

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51
Q

cyan/o

A

blue

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52
Q

epiglott/o

A

epiglottis

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53
Q

laryng/o

A

larynx, voice box

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54
Q

lob/o

A

lobe of the lung

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55
Q

List the different types of pulmonary resections

A

A. wedge resection
B. segmental resection
C. lobectomy
D. Pneumonectomy

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56
Q

mediatin/o

A

mediastinum

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57
Q

nas/o

A

nose

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58
Q

orth/o

A

straight, upright

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59
Q

ox/o

A

oxygen

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60
Q

pectr/o

A

chest

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61
Q

pharyng/o

A

pharynx, throat

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62
Q

phon/o

A

voice

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63
Q

phren/o

A

diaphragm

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64
Q

pleur/o

A

pleura

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65
Q

pleural effusion

A

is the escape of fluid from blood vessels or lymphatics into a cavity or into tissue spaces

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66
Q

pleurodynia

A

pleura pain

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67
Q

phrenic nerve

A

the motor nerve to the diaphragm

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68
Q

dysphonia

A

condition of abnormal voice sounds

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69
Q

pharyngeal

A

pertaining to the pharynx, throat

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70
Q

expectoration

A

clearing of secretions from the airway by coughing or spitting. This sputum can contain mucus, blood, cellular debris, pus, and microorganisms

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71
Q

hypoxia

A

tissues have decreased amount of oxygen, and cyanosis can result

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72
Q

orthopnea

A

abnormal condition breathing is more comfortable in an upright position

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73
Q

nasogastric intubation

A

placement of a tube through the nose into the stomach

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74
Q

paranasal sinuses

A

sinuses near the nose

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75
Q

mediastinoscopy

A

visual examination of the mediastinum

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76
Q

lobectomy

A

removal of excision of a lobe of the lung

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77
Q

laryngitis

A

inflammation of the larynx

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78
Q

laryngospasm

A

spasm of laryngeal muscles that closes the larynx

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79
Q

epiglottitis

A

inflammation of the epiglottis

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80
Q

cyanosis

A

abnormal condition of bluish coloration of the skin

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81
Q

adenoidectomy

A

removal of the adenoids

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82
Q

adenoid hypertrophy

A

increased development of the adenoids

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83
Q

alveolar

A

pertaining to an aveolus

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84
Q

bronchospasm

A

involuntary muscular contraction in bronchial tubes

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85
Q

bronchiectasis

A

abnormal widening of bronchial tubes

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86
Q

bronchodilator

A

agent that dilates blood vessels and relieves bronchospasm

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87
Q

bronchopleural

A

pertaining to the bronchial tube and pleura

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88
Q

bronchiolitis

A

inflammation of the bronchiole

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89
Q

hypercapnia

A

increased levels of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream

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90
Q

pneumoconiosis

A

abnormal condition of dust in the lungs

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91
Q

pneum/o, pneumon/o

A

air, lung

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92
Q

pneumothorax

A

because of a hole in the lung, air accumulates in the pleural cavity, between the layers of the pleura

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93
Q

pneumonectomy

A

removal of the lung

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94
Q

pulmon/o

A

lung

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95
Q

pulmonary

A

pertaining to the lung

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96
Q

rhin/o

A

nose

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97
Q

rhinoplasty

A

surgical repair of the nose

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98
Q

rhinorrhea

A

discharge from the nose (aka a runny nose)

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99
Q

sinus/o

A

sinus, cavity

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100
Q

sinusitis

A

inflammation of the sinuses

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101
Q

spir/o

A

breathing

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102
Q

spirometer

A

an instrument to measure breathing

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103
Q

expiration

A

breathing out

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104
Q

respiration

A

internal and external respiration

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105
Q

What are the two forms of atelectasis?

A

A. an obstruction prevents air from reaching distal airways and alveoli collapse
B. accumulation of fluid, blood, or air within the pleural cavity collapse the lung

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106
Q

tel/o

A

complete

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107
Q

atelectasis

A

incomplete expansion of a lung

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108
Q

thorac/o

A

chest

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109
Q

thoracotomy

A

incision of the chest

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110
Q

thoracic

A

pertaining to the chest

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111
Q

tonsill/o

A

tonsils

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112
Q

tonsillectomy

A

removal of the tonsils

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113
Q

trache/o

A

trachea, windpipe

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114
Q

tracheotomy

A

incision to the trachea

115
Q

tracheal stenosis

A

narrowing of the trachea

116
Q

-ema

117
Q

empyema

A

collection of pus in the pleural cavity

118
Q

-osmia

119
Q

anosmia

A

loss of sense of smell

120
Q

-pnea

121
Q

apnea

A

lack of breathing

122
Q

What does OSA stand for?

A

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

123
Q

What does CPAP stand for?

A

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

124
Q

sleep apnea

A

the sudden cessation of breathing during sleep as a result of hypoxia

125
Q

-ptysis

126
Q

hemoptysis

A

spitting blood

127
Q

-sphyxia

128
Q

asphyxia

A

lack of pulse

129
Q

-thorax

A

pleural cavity, chest

130
Q

hemothorax

A

blood in the pleural cavity, chest

131
Q

pyothroax

A

pus in the chest cavity

132
Q

auscultation

A

listing to sounds within the body

133
Q

percussion

A

tapping on a surface to determine the difference in the density of the underlying structure

134
Q

pleural rub (aka friction rub)

A

scratchy sound produced by pleural surfaces rubbing against each other

135
Q

rales (crackles)

A

fine crackling sounds heard on auscultation (during inhalation) when there is fluid in the alveoli

136
Q

rhonchi (singular: rhonchus)

A

loud rumbling sounds heard on auscultation of bronchi obstructed by sputum

137
Q

sputum

A

material expelled from the bronchi, lungs, or upper respiratory tract by spitting

138
Q

purulent

A

containing pus

139
Q

what is blood-tinged sputum suggestive of?

A

tuberculosis or malignancy

140
Q

sputum culture

A

the specimen is maintained in a nutrient medium to promote growth of a pathogen

141
Q

culture and sensitivity (C&S)

A

studies identify the sputum pathogen an determine which antibiotic will be effective in destroying or reducing its growth

142
Q

stridor

A

strained, high-pitched sound heard on inspiration caused by obstruction in the pharynx or larynx

143
Q

wheezes

A

continuous high-pitched whistling sounds produced during breathing

144
Q

croup

A

acute viral infection of infants and children with obstruction of the larynx, accompanied by barking cough and stridor

145
Q

what does RSV stand for?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

146
Q

diphtheria

A

acute infection of the throat and upper respiratory tract caused by the diphtheria bacterium (corynebacterium)

147
Q

epistaxis

148
Q

pertussis

A

whooping cough; highly contagious bacterial infection of the pharynx, larynx, and trachea caused by Bordetella pertussis

149
Q

paroxysmal

A

violent, sudden

150
Q

asthma

A

chronic bronchial inflammatory disorder with airway obstruction due to bronchial edema and constriction and increased mucus production

151
Q

bronchodilator

A

asthma inhaler device

152
Q

bronchiectasis

A

chronic dilation of a bronchus secondary to infection

153
Q

palliative

A

noncurative

154
Q

chronic bronchitis

A

inflammation of bronchi persisting over a long time; type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

155
Q

What does COPD stand for?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

156
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

inherited disorder of exocrine glands resulting in thick mucinous secretions in the respiratory tract that do not drain normally

157
Q

atelectasis

A

collapsed lung; incomplete expansion of alveoli

158
Q

emphysema

A

hyperinflation of air sacs with destruction of alveolar walls

159
Q

cor pulmonale

A

failure of the right side of the heart to pump a sufficient amount of blood to the lungs because of underlying lung disease

160
Q

lung cancer

A

malignant tumor arising from the lungs and bronchi

161
Q

What does NSCLC stand for?

A

Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

162
Q

What does SCLC stand for?

A

Small Cell Lung Cancer

163
Q

pneumoconiosis

A

abnormal condition caused by dust in the lungs, with chronic inflammation, infection, and bronchitis

164
Q

anthracosis (aka black lung disease)

A

inhaling coal dust

165
Q

anthrac/o

166
Q

asbestosis

A

inhaling asbestos particles, typical in shipbuilding and construction trades

167
Q

asbest/o

168
Q

silicosis

A

inhaling silica or glass particles

169
Q

silic/o

170
Q

pneumonia

A

acute inflammation and infection of alveoli, which fill with pus or products of the inflammatory reaction

171
Q

lobar pneumonia

A

involves the entire lobe of a lung

172
Q

bronchopneumonia

A

a limited form of infection that produces patchy consolidation (abscesses) in the lung parenchyma

173
Q

community-acquired pneumonia

A

results from a contagious respiratory infection caused by a variety of viruses and bacteria

174
Q

hospital-acquired pneumonia or nosocomial pneumonia

A

acquired during hospitalization via mechanical ventilation or as a hospital-acquired infection

175
Q

aspiration pneumonia

A

caused by material, such as food or vomitus, lodging in bronchi or lungs

176
Q

pulmonary abscess

A

large collection of pus (bacterial infection) in the lungs

177
Q

pulmonary edema

A

fluid in the air sacs and bronchioles

178
Q

pulmonary embolism (PE)

A

clot or other material lodges in vessels of the lung

179
Q

pulmonary infarction

A

occlusion can produce an area of dead (necrotic) tissue

180
Q

pulmonary fibrosis

A

formation of scar tissue in the connective tissue of the lungs

181
Q

sarcoidosis

A

chronic inflammatory disease in which small nodules (granulomas) develop in lungs, lymph nodes, and other organs

182
Q

tuberculosis (TB)

A

infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis; lungs usually are involved, but any organ in the body may be affected

183
Q

bacilli (singular: bacillus)

A

rod-shaped bacteria invade the lungs producing small tubercles of infection in TB

184
Q

mesothelioma

A

rare malignant tumor arising in the pleura

185
Q

pleural effusion

A

abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space (cavity)

186
Q

exudates

A

fluid from tumors and infections

187
Q

transudates

A

fluid from congestive heart failure, pulmonary embolism, or cirrhosis)

188
Q

Whare are the two types of pleural effusions?

A
  1. exudates
  2. transudates
189
Q

pneumothorax

A

collection of air in the pleural space

190
Q

pleurodesis

A

the artificial production of adhesions between the parietal and visceral pleura for treatment of persistent pneumothorax and severe pleural effusion

191
Q

-desis

192
Q

hydrothorax

A

collection of fluid in the pleural cavity

193
Q

palliative

A

relieving symptoms but not curing the disease

194
Q

chest x-ray (CXR)

A

radiographic image of the thoracic cavity (chest film)

195
Q

computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest

A

computer-generated series of x-ray images show thoracic structures in cross section and other planes

196
Q

What does CTPA stand for?

A

CT Pulmonary Angiography

197
Q

CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)

A

is the combination of CT scanning and angiography. It is useful to examine the pulmonary circulation in the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism

198
Q

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the chest

A

magnetic waves create detailed images of the chest in frontal, lateral (sagittal), and cross-sectional (axial) planes

199
Q

positron emission tomography (PET) scan of the lung

A

Radioactive glucose is injected and images reveal metabolic activity in the lungs

200
Q

ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan

A

detection device records radioactivity in the lung after injection of a radioisotope or inhalation of small amount of radioactive gas (xenon)

201
Q

bronchoscopy

A

fiberoptic endoscope examination of the bronchial tubes

202
Q

bronchoalveolar lavage (bronchial washing)

A

fluid is injected and withdrawn

203
Q

bronchial brushing

A

a brush is inserted through the bronchoscope and is used to scrape off tissue

204
Q

endobronchial ultrasound (EBUS)

A

is performed during bronchoscopy to diagnose and stage lung cancer. An EBUS-guided forceps biospy allows for sampling of small peripheral lesions endoscopically

205
Q

endotracheal intubation

A

placement of a tube through the mouth into the pharynx, larynx, and trachea to establish an airway

206
Q

ventilator

A

an apparatus that moves air into and out of the lungs

207
Q

laryngoscopy

A

visual examination of the voice box

208
Q

lung bopsy

A

removal of lung tissue followed by microscopic examination

209
Q

mediastinoscopy

A

endoscopic visual examination of the mediastinum

210
Q

pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

A

tests that measure the ventilation mechanics of the lungs: airway function, lung volume, and the capacity of the lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide efficiently

211
Q

spirometer

A

measures the volume and rate of air passing into and out of the lung

212
Q

What are 4 reasons why PFTs are used?

A
  1. to evaluate patients with shortness of breath (SOB)
  2. to monitor lung function in patients with known respiratory disease
  3. to evaluate disability
  4. to assess lung function before surgery
213
Q

What does SOB stand for?

A

Shortness Of Breath

214
Q

obstructive lung disease

A

airways are narrowed which results in resistance to air flow during breathing. A hallmark of this disease is decreased expiratory flow rate or FEV

215
Q

What does FEV stand for?

A

Forced Expiratory Volume

216
Q

restrictive lung disease

A

expansion of the lung is limited by disease that affects the chest wall, pleura, or lung tissue itself. A hallmark of this lung disease is decreased total lung capacity (TLC)

217
Q

What does TLC stand for?

A

Total Lung Capacity

218
Q

thoracentesis

A

surgical puncture to remove fluid from the pleural space

219
Q

thoracotomy

A

large surgical incision of the chest

220
Q

thoracoscopy (thorascopy)

A

visual examination of the chest via small incisions and use of an endoscope

221
Q

Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS)

A

allows the surgeon to view the chest from a video monitor

222
Q

What does VATS stand for?

A

Video-Assisted Thoracic Surgery

223
Q

tracheostomy

A

surgical creation of an opening into the trachea through the neck

224
Q

trachotomy

A

is the incision necessary to create a tracheostomy

225
Q

tuberculin test

A

determines past or present tuberculous infection based on a positive skin reaction

226
Q

Heaf test and tine test

A

using purified protein derivative (PPD) applied with multiple punctures of the skin

227
Q

What does PPD stand for?

A

Purified Protein Derivative

228
Q

mantoux test

A

using PPD given by intradermal injection

229
Q

tube thoracostomy

A

a flexible, plastic chest tube is passed into the pleural space through an opening in the chest

230
Q

What does ABGs stand for?

A

Arterial Blood Gases

231
Q

What does AFB stand for?

A

Acid-Fast Bacillus (the type of organism that causes tuberculosis)

232
Q

What does ARDS stand for?

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (severe, sudden lung injury caused by acute illness)

233
Q

What does BAL stand for?

A

Bronchoalveolar Lavage

234
Q

What does Bronch stand for?

A

Bronchoscopy

235
Q

What does CF stand for?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

236
Q

What does CPAP stand for?

A

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure

237
Q

What does CPR stand for?

A

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

238
Q

What are the 3 basic steps of CPR?

A

CAB =
Circulation restored by external cardiac compression
Airway opened by tilting the head
Breathing restored by mouth-to-mouth breathing

239
Q

What does C&S stand for?

A

Culture and Sensitivity testing (of sputum)

240
Q

What does DLco stand for?

A

Diffusion Capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide

241
Q

What does DOE stand for?

A

Dyspnea on Exertion

242
Q

What does DPT stand for?

A

Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus (toxoids for vaccination of infants, to provide immunity to these diseases)

243
Q

What does FVC stand for?

A

Forced Vital Capacity (amount of gas that can be forcibly and rapidly exhaled after a full inspiration)

244
Q

What does ICU stand for?

A

Intensive Care Unit

245
Q

What does LLL stand for?

A

Left Lower Lobe (of the lung)

246
Q

What does LUL stand for?

A

Left Upper Lobe (of the lung)

247
Q

What does MDI stand for?

A

Metered-Dose Inhaler (used to deliver aerosolized medications to patients)

248
Q

What does OSA stand for?

A

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

249
Q

What does PaCO2 stand for?

A

Carbon Dioxide Partial Pressure (measure of the amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood)

250
Q

What does PaO2 stand for?

A

Oxygen Partial Pressure (a measure of the amount of oxygen in arterial blood)

251
Q

What does PCP stand for?

A

Pneumocystis Pneumonia (a type of pneumonia seen in patients with AIDS or other immunosuppresion)

252
Q

What does PE stand for?

A

Pulmonary Embolism

253
Q

What does PEP stand for?

A

Positive Expiratory Pressure (mechanical ventilator strategy in which the patient takes a deep breath and then exhales through a device that resists air flow - helps refill underventilated areas of the lung)

254
Q

What does PEEP stand for?

A

Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (common mechanical ventilator setting in which airway pressure is maintained above atmospheric pressure)

255
Q

What does PFTs stand for?

A

Pulmonary Function Tests

256
Q

What does PND stand for?

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea

257
Q

What does PPD stand for?

A

Purified Protein Derivative (substance used in a tuberculosis test)

258
Q

What does RDS stand for?

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome (in the newborn infant, a condition marked by dyspnea and cyanosis and related to the absence of surfactant, a substance that permits normal expansion of lungs; also called hyaline membrane disease)

259
Q

What does RLL stand for?

A

Right Lower Lobe (of the lung)

260
Q

What does RSV stand for?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (a common cause of bronchiolitis, bronchopneumonia, and the common cold, especially in children)

261
Q

What does RUL stand for?

A

Right Upper Lobe (of the lung)

262
Q

What does RV stand for?

A

Residual Volume (amount of air remaining in lungs at the end of maximal expiration)

263
Q

What does SABA stand for?

A

Short-Acting Beta Agonist (for relief of asthma symptoms)

264
Q

What does SCLC stand for?

A

Small Cell Lung Cancer

265
Q

What does TB stand for?

A

Tuberculosis

266
Q

What does TLC stand for?

A

Total Lung Capacity (amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal ventilation)

267
Q

What does VC stand for?

A

Vital Capacity (equals inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume)

268
Q

What does V/Q scan stand for?

A

Ventilation-Perfusion scan (radioactive test of lung ventilation and blood perfusion throughout the lung capillaries - lung scan)

269
Q

V/Q scan

A

a radioactive test of lung ventilation and blood perfusion throughout the lung capillaries (lung scan)

270
Q

What test measures the ability of gases to cross the alveolar-capillary membrane?

A

DLco - Diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide

271
Q

What is a type of organism that causes tuberculosis?

A

AFB - Acid-fast bacillus

272
Q

Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)

A

the amount of gas that can be forcibly and rapidly exhaled after a full inspiration

273
Q

What is an MDI used for?

A

A metered-dose inhaler is used to deliver aerosolized medications to patients for asthma disease

274
Q

What does PaCO2 measure?

A

Carbon dioxide partial pressure measures the amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood

275
Q

What does PaO2 measure?

A

Oxygen partial pressure measures the amount of oxygen in arterial blood

276
Q

What is a type of pneumonia seen in patients with AIDS or other immunosuppression?

A

PCP - Pneumocystis pneumonia

277
Q

What is a common mechanical ventilator setting in which airway pressure is maintained above atmospheric pressure?

A

PEEP - Positive end-expiratory pressure

278
Q

What is a purified protein derivative?

A

a substance used in a tuberculosis test

279
Q

What is residual volume?

A

the amount of air remaining in lungs at the end of maximal expiration

280
Q

What is short-acting beta agonist?

A

used for relief of asthma symptoms

281
Q

What is total lung capacity?

A

the volume of gas in the lungs at the end of maximal inspiration; equals VC plus RV (vital capacity + residual volume = TLC)

282
Q

What is Vt?

A

Tidal volume is the amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal ventilation

283
Q

vital capacity

A

equals inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume