Module 13: Blood System Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary function of blood?

A

to maintain a constant environment for the other living tissues of the body

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2
Q

What is blood composed of?

A

cells or formed elements suspended in a clear, straw-coloured liquid

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3
Q

plasma

A

a clear straw-coloured liquid solution of water, proteins, sugar, salts, hormones, lipids, and vitamins

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4
Q

What makes up blood volume?

A

45% erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets or thrombocytes. The other 55% is plasma

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5
Q

Where do all blood cells originate from?

A

in the marrow cavity of bones

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6
Q

hematopoietic stem cells

A

cell in the bone marrow that gives rise to all types of blood cells

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7
Q

differentiated

A

a process where the cells change in size and shape to become specialized

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8
Q

large cells are considered what?

A

immature cells

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9
Q

small cells are considered what?

A

mature cells

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10
Q

What does a red blood cell mature from?

A

an erythroblast to an erythrocyte

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11
Q

What does a mature red blood cell look like?

A

it loses its nuclease and assumes the shape of a biconcave disk - a depressed or hollow surface on each side of the cell resembling a cough drop with a thing central portion

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12
Q

what unique protein do red blood cells contain?

A

hemoglobin

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13
Q

What is hemoglobin composed of?

A

hemo (iron-containing pigment) and globin (protein) and this protein allows RBCs to carry oxygen

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14
Q

What is the combination of oxygen and hemoglobin?

A

oxyhemoglobin, which produces the bright red colour of blood

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15
Q

hematopoiesis

A

blood cell development

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16
Q

where are progenitor cells from?

A

derived from hematopoietic stem cells

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17
Q

what do myeloid progenitor cells turn into?

A

give rise to erythrocytes, megakaryoblasts, and myeloblasts

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18
Q

what do lymphoid progenitor cells turn into?

A

give rise to monoblasts and lymphoblasts

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19
Q

-blast

A

immature form of a cell

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20
Q

what are band cells?

A

identical to segmented granulocytes except that the nucleus is U-shaped and its lobes are connected by a band rather than by a thin thread as in segmented forms

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21
Q

which organ secretes erythropoietin?

A

a hormone secreted by the kidneys

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22
Q

-poiesis

A

formation

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23
Q

How long do erythrocytes live in the bloodstream?

A

120 days transporting gases in the bloodstream

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24
Q

What happens to erythrocytes once their lifespan ends?

A

macrophages destroy them in a process called hemolysis

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25
Q

What is the process called that destroys worn-out red blood cells?

A

hemolysis

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26
Q

what is heme?

A

a protein that releases iron and decomposed into a yellow-orange pigment called bilirubin

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27
Q

bilirubin

A

a yellow-orange pigment excreted into bile by the liver then enters the small intestine via the common bile duct. Finally excreted in the stool where its colour changes to brown

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28
Q

How many different types of mature leukocytes are there?

A

5

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29
Q

list the 5 different types of mature leukocytes

A
  1. neutrophil
  2. eosinophil
  3. basophil
  4. lymphocyte
  5. monocyte
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30
Q

granulocytes or polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)

A

the most numerous (about 60%) type of leukocyte

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31
Q

basophils

A

contain granules that stain dark blue with a basic (alkaline) dye

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32
Q

heparin

A

an anticlotting substance

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33
Q

histamine

A

a chemical released in allergic responses

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34
Q

eosinophils

A

contain granules that stain with eosin, a red acidic dye

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35
Q

when do eosinophils increase in the bloodstream?

A

when there is an allergic response to engulf the substances that triggered the allergies

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36
Q

neutrophils

A

contain granules that are neutral - they do not stain intensely and show only a pale colour

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37
Q

what do neutrophils (aka phagocytes) do?

A

they accumulate at sites of infection where they ingest and destroy bacteria

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38
Q

phag/o

A

to eat or swallow

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39
Q

what does CSFs stand for?

A

Colony-Stimulating Factors

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40
Q

colony-stimulating factors

A

promote growth of granulocytes in bone marrow

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41
Q

what does G-CSF stand for?

A

Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factors

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42
Q

what does GM-CSF stand for?

A

Granulocyte-Macrophage Colony-Stimulating Factors

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43
Q

What are G-CSF and GM-CSF given?

A

to restore granulocyte production in cancer patients

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44
Q

erythropoietin

A

like CSFs, can be produced by recombinant DNA techniques and stimulates red blood cell production

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45
Q

polymorphonuclear

A

have multilobed nuclei and polymorphonuclear granulocytes often describe the neutrophil which is the most numerous of the granulocytes

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46
Q

mononuclear

A

containing one large nucleus, leukocytes do not have large numbers of granules in their cytoplasm but they may have a few granules

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47
Q

lymphocytes

A

play an important role in the immune response that protects the body against infection. They can directly attack foreign matter and make antibodies

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48
Q

antibodies

A

cells that neutralize and can lead to the destruction of foreign antigens

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49
Q

antigens

A

bacteria and viruses

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50
Q

monocytes

A

are phagocytic cells that also fight disease

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51
Q

macrophages

A

move from the bloodstream into tissues and dispose of dead and dying cells and other tissue debris by phagocytosis

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52
Q

where are platelets formed?

A

they are actually blood cell fragments and are formed in bone marrow from giant cells with multilobed nuclei called megakaryocytes

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53
Q

what is the main function of platelets?

A

to help blood to clot

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54
Q

what are the 4 major proteins of plasma?

A
  1. albumin
  2. globulins
  3. fibrinogen
  4. prothrombin
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55
Q

albumin

A

maintains the proper proportion (and concentration) of water in the blood

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56
Q

edema

A

swelling that results when too much fluid from blood leaks out into tissues

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57
Q

what is a mild and severe form of edema?

A

mild form is when a person ingests too much salt and water is retained in the blood vs. a severe form is when a person is burned in a fire

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58
Q

What are the 3 types of globulins?

A
  1. alpha
  2. beta
  3. gamma
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59
Q

gamma globulins are immunoglobulins which are what?

A

which are antibodies that bind to and sometimes destroy antigens

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60
Q

What are examples of immunoglobulins?

A

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE

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61
Q

Where is IgG found?

A

found in high concentrations of plasma

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62
Q

where is IgA found?

A

found in breast milk, saliva, tears, and respiratory mucus

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63
Q

electrophoresis

A

method of seaparting serum proteins by electrical charge

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64
Q

plasmapheresis

A

the process of separating plasma from cells and then removing the plasma from the patient

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65
Q

-apheresis

A

to remove

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66
Q

What does a centrifuge do?

A

spins entire samples of blood and the plasma, being lighter in weight than the cells, moves to the top of the sample to be able to review the composition of the blood sample

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67
Q

What is a transfusion?

A

whole blood (cells and plasma) are used to replace blood lost after injury, during surgery, or in severe shock

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68
Q

what type of transfusion foes a patient who is severely anemic require?

A

they need only red blood cells and will receive a transfusion of packed red cells (whole blood with most of the plasma removed)

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69
Q

What are the 4 main blood types?

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. AB
  4. O
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70
Q

Can you transfuse blood to people with different blood types?

A

NO, there are harmful effects that occur when two different blood types are transfused

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71
Q

What does DIC stand for?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

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72
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

a life-threatening condition that involves excessive clotting in blood vessels

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73
Q

Rh factor

A

named because it was first found in the blood of a rhesus monkey

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74
Q

What does Rh positive (Rh+) refer to?

A

a person who is born with the Rh antigen on his or her blood cells

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75
Q

What does Rh negative (Rh-) refer to?

A

a person who does not have the Rh antigen

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76
Q

What does it mean when a woman has an A+ (A positive) blood type?

A

it means that she was born with both A antigen and Eh antigen on her red blood cells

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77
Q

What does it mean when a man has B- (B negative) blood type?

A

this means he was born with the B antigen on his red blood cells but not Rh antigen

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78
Q

coagulation

A

blood clotting, is a complicated process involving many different substances and chemical reactions

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79
Q

fibrin clot

A

is the result of coagulation after about 15 minutes from the plasma protein fibrinogen

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80
Q

-gen

A

giving rise to

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81
Q

serum

A

a clear fluid that is left behind when the fibrin clot retracts into a tight ball

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82
Q

what do anticoagulant substances do?

A

in the blood they inhibit blood clotting, so clots do not form

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83
Q

heparin

A

is a substance produced by tissue cells (especially in the liver), is an example of an anticoagulant

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84
Q

What is Warfarin (Coumadin)?

A

a drug given to patients with thromboembolic diseases to prevent the formation of clots

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85
Q

fibrin

A

a protein that forms the basis of a blood clot

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86
Q

fibrinogen

A

a plasma protein that is converted to fibrin in the clotting process

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87
Q

reticulocyte

A

immature erythrocyte. A network of strands (reticulin) is seen after staining the cell with special dyes

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88
Q

stem cell

A

an unspecialized cell that gives rise to mature, specialized forms. A hematopoietic stem cell is the progenitor for all different types of blood cells

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89
Q

bas/o

A

base (alkaline, the opposite of acid)

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90
Q

chrom/o

A

colour

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91
Q

coagul/o

A

clotting

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92
Q

cyt/o

A

cell

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93
Q

eosin/o

A

red, dawn, rosy

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94
Q

erythr/o

A

red

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95
Q

granul/o

A

granules

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96
Q

hem/o

97
Q

hemat/o

98
Q

hemoglobin/o

A

hemoglobin

99
Q

is/o

A

same, equal

100
Q

kary/o

101
Q

leuk/o

102
Q

mon/o

A

one, single

103
Q

morph/o

A

shape, form

104
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

105
Q

neutr/o

A

neutral (neither base nor acid)

106
Q

nucle/o

107
Q

phag/o

A

eat, or swallow

108
Q

poikil/o

A

varied, irregular

109
Q

sider/o

110
Q

spher/o

A

globe, round

111
Q

thromb/o

112
Q

-apheresis

A

removal, a carrying away

113
Q

-blast

A

immature cell, embryonic

114
Q

-cytosis

A

abnormal condition of cells (increase in cells)

115
Q

-emia

A

blood condition

116
Q

-gen

A

giving rise to; producing

117
Q

-globin

118
Q

-globulin

119
Q

-lytic

A

pertaining to destruction

120
Q

-oid

A

derived or originating from

121
Q

-osis

A

abnormal condition

122
Q

-penia

A

deficiency

123
Q

-phage

A

eat, swallow

124
Q

-philia

A

attraction for (an increase in cell numbers)

125
Q

-phoresis

A

carrying, transmission

126
Q

-poiesis

127
Q

-stasis

A

stop, control

128
Q

anisocytosis

A

cells are unequal in size

129
Q

hypochromia

A

cells have reduced colour (less hemoglobin)

130
Q

macrocytosis

A

cells are large

131
Q

microcytosis

A

cells are small

132
Q

poikilocytosis

A

cells are irregularly shaped

133
Q

sphereocytosis

A

cells are rounded

134
Q

dyscrasia

A

any abnormal or pathologic condition of the blood (disease)

135
Q

anemia

A

deficiency in erythrocytes or hemoglobin

136
Q

what is the most common type of anemia?

A

iron deficiency anemia

137
Q

what are 5 types of anemia?

A
  1. aplastic
  2. hemolytic
  3. pernicious
  4. sickle cell
  5. thalassemia
138
Q

aplastic anemia

A

failure of blood cell production in the bone marrow

139
Q

idiopathic

A

unknown cause of disease

140
Q

pancytopenia

A

occurs when stem cells fail to produce leukocytes, platelets, and erythrocytes

141
Q

hemolytic anemia

A

reduction in red cells due to excessive destruction

142
Q

What is one example of hemolytic anemia?

A

congenital spherocytic anemia (hereditary spherocytosis)

143
Q

pernicious anemia

A

lack of mature erythrocytes caused by inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the bloodstream

144
Q

intrinsic factor

A

a special substance that aids blood absorption that can normally be found in gastric juices

145
Q

sickle cell anemia

A

hereditary disorder of abnormal hemoglobin producing sickle-shaped erythrocytes and hemolysis

146
Q

thalassemia

A

inherited defect in ability to produce hemoglobin, leading to hypochromia

147
Q

hemochromatosis

A

excess iron deposits throughout the body

148
Q

polycythemia vera

A

general increase in red blood cells (erythremia)

149
Q

hemophilia

A

excessive bleeding caused by hereditary lack of blood clotting factors (factor VIII or IX) necessary of blood clotting

150
Q

purpura

A

multiple pinpoint hemorrhages and accumulation of blood under the skin

151
Q

petechiae

A

tiny purple or red spots appearing on the skin as a result of hemorrages

152
Q

ecchymoses

A

larger blue or purplish patches on the skin (bruises)

153
Q

What might cause pupura?

A

caused by having too few platelets (thrombocytopenia)

154
Q

autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

A

a condition in which a patient makes an antibody that destroys platelets

155
Q

leukemia

A

increase in cancerous white blood cells (leukocytes)

156
Q

List the 4 different types of leukemia

A
  1. acute myelogenous (myelocytic) leukemia (AML)
  2. acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
  3. chronic myelogenous (myelocytic) leukemia (CML)
  4. chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
157
Q

acute myelogenous (myelocytic) leukemia (AML)

A

immature granulocytes (myeloblasts) predominate and platelets and erythrocytes are diminished because of infiltration and replacement of the bone marrow by large numbers of myeloblasts

158
Q

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

A

immature lymphocytes (lymphoblasts) predominate, this form is seen most often in children and adolescents (onset is sudden)

159
Q

chronic myelogenous (myelocytic) leukemia (CML)

A

both mature and immature granulocytes are present in large numbers in the marrow and blood

160
Q

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

A

abnormal numbers of relatively mature lymphocytes predominate in the marrow, lymph nodes, and spleen

161
Q

what is the most common form of leukemia that occurs in the elderly?

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

162
Q

granulocytosis

A

abnormal increase in granulocytes in the blood

163
Q

eosinophilia

A

an increase in eosinophilic granulocytes - seen in certain allergic conditions

164
Q

basophilia

A

an increase in basophilic granulocytes seen in certain types of leukemia

165
Q

mononculeosis

A

infectious disease marked by increased numbers of mononuclear leukocytes and enlarged cervical lymph nodes

166
Q

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

A

a virus that is used to transmit the mononucleosis disease

167
Q

multiple myeloma

A

malignant neoplasm of bone marrow

168
Q

Bence Jones protein

A

an immunoglobulin fragment found in urine

169
Q

palliative

A

relieving symptoms

170
Q

example of palliative drugs

A

thalidomide and velcade

171
Q

autologous bone marrow transplantation (ABMT)

A

in which the patient serves as their own donor for stem cells, may lead to prolonged remission

172
Q

What is there an increase of in acute myeloid leukemia?

A

malignant immature leukocytes

173
Q

antiglobulin test (Coombs test)

A

test for the presence of antibodies that coat and damage erythrocytes

174
Q

bleeding time

A

time required for blood to stop flowing from a tiny puncture wound

175
Q

What is the normal bleeding time for a tiny puncture wound?

A

8 minutes or less

176
Q

coagulation time

A

time required for venous blood to clot in a test tube

177
Q

What is the normal coagulation time?

A

less than 15 minutes

178
Q

complete blood count (CBC)

A

determination of numbers of blood cells, hemoglobin concentration, hematocrit, and red cell values - MCH, MCV, MCHC

179
Q

erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

A

speed at which erythrocytes settle out of plasma

180
Q

hematocrit (Hct)

A

percentage of erythrocytes in a volume of blood

181
Q

hemoglobin test (H, Hg, HGB)

A

total amount of hemoglobin in a sample of peripheral blood

182
Q

platelet count

A

number of platelets per cubic millimeter (mm3) or microliter (μL) of blood

183
Q

prothrombin time (PT)

A

test of the ability of blood to clot

184
Q

what is the average platelet count?

A

150,000 and 350,000 per mm3

185
Q

partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

A

a blood clotting test that measures other clotting factors which is often done at the same time of a PT test

186
Q

red blood cell count (RBC)

A

number of erythrocytes per cubic millimeter (mm3) or microliter (μL) of blood

187
Q

what is a normal number of a red blood count?

A

4-6 per mm3 (or μL)

188
Q

red blood cell morphology

A

microscopic examination of a stained blood smear to determine the shape of individual red cells

189
Q

white blood cell count (WBC)

A

number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter (mm3) or microliter (μL) of blood

190
Q

what is a normal amount of leukocytes?

A

5000 - 10,000 per mm3 (or μL)whit

191
Q

e blood cell differential [count]

A

percentages of different types of leukocytes in the blood

192
Q

what does the term “shift to the left” mean?

A

it describes an increase in immature neutrophiles in the blood

193
Q

apheresis

A

separation of blood into counterpart and removal of a select portion from the blood

194
Q

plasma exchange

A

plasma is removed from the patient and fresh plasma is given

195
Q

blood transfusion

A

whole blood or cells are taken from a donor and infused into a patient

196
Q

autologous transfusion

A

the collection and later reinfusion of a patient’s own blood or blood components

197
Q

packed cells

A

a presentation of red blood cells separated from liquid plasma and administered in severe anemia to restore levels of hemoglobin and red blood cells without over diluting the blood with excess fluids

198
Q

bone marrow biopsy

A

microscopic examination of a core of bone marrow removed with a needle

199
Q

bone marrow aspiration

A

the procedure where bone marrow is removed by brief suction produced by a syringe

200
Q

hematopoietic stem cells transplantation

A

peripheral stem cells from a compatible donor are administered to a recipient

201
Q

autologous stem cell transplantation

A

the patient’s own stem cells are collected, stored, and reinfused after potent chemotherapy

202
Q

leukapheresis

A

separation of blood cells that removes large numbers of white blood cells and returns red cells. platelets, and plasma to the patient

203
Q

bone marrow transplantation

A

bone marrow cells are used instead of peripheral stem cells in a similar procedure to autologous stem cell transplantation

204
Q

graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)

A

the immunocompetent cells in the donor’s tissue recognize the recipient’s tissues as foreign and attack them

205
Q

immunosuppressive drugs

A

preventative drugs standard for patient’s undergoing allogenic transplants

206
Q

examples of immunosuppressive drugs

A

cyclosporine and methotrexate

207
Q

bands

A

immature white blood cells (granulocytes)

208
Q

What does BMT stand for?

A

Bone Marrow Transplantation

209
Q

What does CBC stand for?

A

Complete Blood Count

210
Q

What does DIC stand for?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

211
Q

disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

a bleeding disorder marked by reduction in blood clotting factors due to their use and depletion for intravascular clotting

212
Q

diff

A

differential count (white blood cells)

213
Q

What does EBV stand for?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

214
Q

What does ESR stand for?

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

215
Q

What does G-CSF stand for?

A

Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor

216
Q

What does GM-CSF stand for?

A

Granulocyte- Macrophage Colony

217
Q

what is g/dL?

A

gram per deciliter (1 deciliter = one tenth of a liter; 1 liter = 1.057 quarts)

218
Q

What does GVHD stand for?

A

Graft-Versus-Host Disease

219
Q

What does HCL stand for?

A

Hairy Cell Leukemia

220
Q

hairy cell leukemia

A

abnormal lymphocytes accumulate in bone marrow, leading to anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, and infection

221
Q

What does Hct stand for?

A

Hematocrit

222
Q

What does Hgb (or HGB) stand for?

A

Hemoglobin

223
Q

What does H and H stand for?

A

Hemoglobin and Hematocrit

224
Q

What does HLA stand for?

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen

225
Q

What does IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM stand for?

A

Immunoglobulins

226
Q

lymphs

A

lymphocytes

227
Q

What does MCH stand for?

A

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin

228
Q

What does MCHC stand for?

A

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration

229
Q

What does MCV stand for?

A

Mean Coruscular Volume

230
Q

What does MDS stand for?

A

Myelodysplastic Syndrome

231
Q

What does polys, PMNs, and PMNLs stand for?

A

Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes; neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

232
Q

What does PT and pro time stand for?

A

Prothrombin Time

233
Q

What does PTT stand for?

A

Partial Thromboplastin Time

234
Q

What does sed rate stand for?

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

235
Q

What does segs stand for?

A

Segmented, Mature White Blood Cells (neutrophils)

236
Q

What does SMAC stand for?

A

Sequential Multiple Analyzer Computer

237
Q

sequential multiple analyzer computer

A

an automated chemistry system that determines substances in serum

238
Q

What does WNL stand for?

A

Within Normal Limits