Module 10 Musculoskeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of bones:

A

support, protection, movement, blood formation, mineral storage and balance, detoxification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

cartilage

A

non-vascular, firm connective tissue found mostly in joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ligament

A

band of fibrous tissue connecting two structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

orthopedic

A

pertaining to the correction and cure of deformities and diseases of the musculoskeletal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

osteopath

A

practitioner of osteopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

osteopathy

A

medicine practice based on maintaining the structural integrity of the musculoskeletal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tendon

A

fibrous band that connects muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

factors that affect bone growth:

A
  1. genes
  2. nutrition
  3. exercise
  4. mineral deposition
  5. mineral resorption
  6. vitamins
  7. hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

diaphysis

A

shaft of long bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

epiphysis

A

expanded area end of long bones that provides increased surface area for the attachment of ligaments and tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

metaphysis

A

between diaphysis and epiphysis where bone growth occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cortex

A

outer portion of an organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

endosteum

A

a membrane of tissue lining the inner cavity of a long bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

epiphyseal plate

A

layer of cartilage between epiphysis and metaphysis where bone growth occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Haversian canals

A

vascular canals in bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

lacuna

A

small space or cavity within the matrix of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

marrow

A

fatty, blood forming tissue in the cavities of long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

matrix

A

substance that surrounds cells, is manufactured by cells, and holds them together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

medulla

A

central portion of a structure surrounded by cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

oseoporosis

A

condition in which bones become brittle, fragile, and more likely to fracture; due to more osteoclasts than osteoblasts; more common in women than men;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

periosteum

A

strong membrane surrounding a bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

osteopenia

A

low bone density which can lead to osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of an area of bone due to bacterial infection (typically staphylococcus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

osteomalacia

A

aka rickets in children; caused by VitD deficiency; when bones lack calcium, the become soft and flexible leading to bones becoming bowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

achondroplasia

A

occurs when the long bones stop growing in childhood, but the bones of the axial skeleton are not affected; leads to dwarfism of about 4ft tall; caused by spontaneous gene mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

osteogenic sarcoma

A

most common malignant bone tumor; peak incidence is 10-15yo; often occurs around the knee joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta

A

rare genetic disorder producing very brittle bones that are easily fracture, often in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bone Fracture: Closed VS Open

A

Closed- bone is broken, but skin is not broken

Open- Fragment of the fractured bone breaks the skin, or a wound extend to the site of the fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bone Fracture: Displaced

A

fractured bone parts are out of alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bone Fracture: Complete VS Incomplete VS Comminuted

A

complete- broken into at least 2 fragments
incomplete- fracture does not extend completely across the bone
comminuted- bone breaks into several pieces, usually two major pieces and several, smaller fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bone Fracture: Transverse

A

fracture is at a right angle to the long axis of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Bone Fracture: Impacted

A

one gone fragment is driven into the other, resulting in a shortening of a limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bone Fracture: Spiral VS Oblique VS Linear

A

Spiral- fracture spirals around the long axis of the bone
Oblique- diagonal fracture runs along the long axis
Linear- fracture runs parallel to the long axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Bone Fracture: Greenstick (closed)

A

partial fracture where one side breaks and the other side bends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bone Fracture: Pathologic

A

aka stress fracture; fracture occurs in an area of the bone weakened by disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bone Fracture: Compression

A

fracture occurs in a vertebra from trauma or pathology, leading to the vertebra being crushed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Healing of Fractures

A

Step 1: blood vessels bleed into the fracture site forming a hematoma
Step 2: A few days after the fracture (Fx), osteoblasts move into the hematoma and start to produce new bone; called a callus
Step 3: Osteoblasts produce immature, lacy cancellous (spongy_ bone that replaces the callus
Step 4: Osteoblasts continue producing bone cells ; producing compact bone and fuse the bone segments together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fx

A

fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cancellous

A

bone that has a spongy or lattice-like structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

hematoma

A

collection of blood that has escaped from the blood vessels into tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3 classes of joints:

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fibrous

A

two bones bound together by bands of fibrous tissue with no joint space. 3 varieties: sutures (skull), syndesmosis (joining of two bones with fibrous ligaments), gomphoses (pegs that fit into sockets; teeth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cartilaginous

A

joins two bones with cartilage; two types: Synchondroses- joined with hyaline cartilage (ribs and costal cartilages), symphyses- joined with fibrocartilage (symphysis pubis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Synovial

A

joint contains synovial fluid as a lubricant and allows considerable movement; ex. knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

articulation

A

a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

articulate

A

verb; joint movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

bursa

A

closed sac containing synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

fibrocartilage

A

cartilage containing collagen fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

arthorography

A

x-ray of a joint taken after the injection of a contrast medium into the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

diagnostic arthroscopy

A

exploratory procedure performed using an arthroscope to examine the internal compartments of a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Testing for Osteoporosis

A

check bone mineral density (BMD) using a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Arthroplasty

A

surgery to restore as far as possible he function of a joint; THR (total hip replacement) is the most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

arthrocentesis

A

aspiration of fluid from a joint to diagnose by lab exam of fluid; also to drain off infected fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

surgical arthroscopy

A

performed through an arthroscope, can be a debridement or removal of torn tissue such as meniscus of a ligament; can also be to repair a torn ligament by suturing, tendon autograft, or repair of a torn meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

fasciectomy

A

surgical removal of the hypertrophied connective tissue in the had to release a contracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

arthrodesis

A

surgical fixation of a joint to prevent motion; bone graft, wire, screws, or a plate can be used to stabilize the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

prosthesis

A

manufactured substitute for a missing part of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

bisphosphonate

A

drug that delays the rate of bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

calcitonin

A

hormone that moved calcium from blood to bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

abduction

A

movement away from the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

adduction

A

movement toward the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Prone VS Supine

A

prone- face down

supine- face up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Inversion VS Eversion

A

Inversion- ex. rotating foot toward the other foot

Eversion- ex. rotating foot away from the other foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

osteoarthritis

A

AKA degenerative joint disease (DJD); breakdown and eventual destruction of cartilage in a joint due to wear and tear;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

(RA); chronic, inflammatory disease that can affect many joints; in the hands deformities of RA are: swelling of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints and ulnar deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

bursitis

A

inflammation of the bursa; can result form overuse of a joint, repeated trauma, or diseases such as RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

5 regions of the vertebral column

A
  1. cervical (C1-C7)
  2. Thoracic (T1-T12)
  3. Lumbar (L1-L5)
  4. Sacral
  5. Coccyx (tailbone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

lordosis

A

exaggerated lumbar curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

foramen

A

an opening through a structure; in vertebral column allows the spinal nerves to leave spinal cord to travel to other parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

herniation

A

protrusion of an anatomical structure from its normal position

71
Q

sacrum

A

segment of the vertebral column that forms part of the pelvis

72
Q

spine

A

vertebral column OR a short projection from a bone

73
Q

Bones of the cranium

A
  1. Frontal
  2. Parietal (2)
  3. Occipital
  4. Temporal (2)
  5. Sphenoid
  6. Ethmoid
74
Q

Facial Bones

A
  1. Maxillary (2)
  2. Palatine (2)
  3. Zygomatic (2)
  4. Lacrimal (2)
  5. Nasal (2)
  6. Vomer
  7. Conchae (2)
  8. Mandible
75
Q

3 types of muscle

A

skeletal, cardiac, and smooth

76
Q

skeletal muscle

A

contracts on demand (voluntary); attached to one or more bones; muscle cells called fibers; each muscle consists of fibers, blood vessels, nerves, with connective tissue sheets that hold the fibers together

77
Q

skeletal muscle functions:

A
  1. Movement
  2. Posture
  3. Body Heat
  4. Respiration
  5. Communication
78
Q

Skeletal Muscle structure (small to large)

A

muscle fiber, muscle fascicle, skeletal muscle

79
Q

atrophy

A

wasting away or diminished volume of tissue, an organ, or a body part

80
Q

fascia

A

sheet of fibrous connective tissue

81
Q

fascicle

A

bundle of muscle fibers

82
Q

hypertrophy

A

increase in size, but not in number

83
Q

insertion of a muscle

A

the attachment of a muscle to a more moveable part of the skeleton, as distinct from the origin

84
Q

origin of a muscle

A

fixed source of a muscle at its attachment to a bone

85
Q

orthotic

A

orthopedic appliance to correct an abnormality

86
Q

peristalsis

A

waves of alternate contraction and relaxation of the alimentary canal wall to move food along the digestive tract

87
Q

striated muscle

A

AKA skeletal muscle

88
Q

tone

A

tension present in resting muscle

89
Q

fibromyalgia

A

affects muscles and tendons all over the body, causing chronic pain associated with fatigue and depression; no specific treatment

90
Q

polymyalgia theumatica

A

inflammatory disease of muscles that causes pain and stiffness on both sides of the body particularly shoulders, neck, upper arms, buttocks, and thighs; most often in 65+

91
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

chronic autoimmune disease characterized by varying degrees of weakness in the skeletal muscle; weakness increases with activity; facial muscles involved, causing issues with eye and eyelid movements, chewing, and talking

92
Q

muscular dystrophy

A

general term for a group of heridtary, progressive disorders affecting skeletal muscles; generalized weakness and atrophy progress, and few live beyond 20

93
Q

rhabdomyolysis

A

breakdown of muscle fibers; relseases protein pigment called myoglobin which can lead to kidney failure; caused by muscle trauma, severe exertian, alcoholism, and use of drugs

94
Q

tenosynovitis

A

inflammation of the sheath that surrounds a tendon; usually related to repetitive use (ex. in wrist/hand in computer users); treament is rest, immobilization, NSAIDs, local corticosteroid injections, and, occasionally, surgery

95
Q

Achilles tendinitis

A

results from a small stretch injury that causes the tendon to become swollen and painful; larger partial or complete tear leads to a loss of function with difficulty in walking

96
Q

strain

A

overstretch or tear in a muscle or tendon

97
Q

tendon

A

fibrous band that connects muscle to bone

98
Q

ambulatory

A

surgery or any other care provided without an overnight stay in a medical facility; outpatient

99
Q

infraspinatus

A

pertaining to beneath the spine (of the scapula)

100
Q

rotator cuff

A

part of the capsule of the shoulder joint

101
Q

teres major

A

one of the muscles that make up the rotator cuff

102
Q

ganglion cysts

A

fluid-filled cysts on the back of the wrist that result from irritation or inflammation of hte synovial tendon sheaths; usually disappear on their own

103
Q

stenosing tenosynovitis

A

painful inflammation of the synovial sheaths on the back of the wrist

104
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

(CTS) develops on the front of the wrist and results from inflammation and swelling of overused tendon sheaths; feeling of pins and needles or pain and loss of muscle power in the thumb side of the hand are common

105
Q

brachialis

A

muscle that lies under the biceps and is the strongest flexor of the forearm

106
Q

deltoid

A

large, fan-shaped muscle connecting the scapula and clavicle to the humerus

107
Q

latissimus dorsi

A

widest muscle in the back (over ribs)

108
Q

thenar eminence

A

fleshy mass at the base of the thumb

109
Q

hypothenar eminence

A

fleshy mass at the base of the little finger

110
Q

EMG

A

electromyography; an electrode needle is inserted into the muscle to be tested to measure and record the electrical activity in that muscle as it is relaxed and contracted

111
Q

nerve conduction studies

A

used to measure the speed at which motor or sensory nerves conduct impulses and also can show problems at the neuromuscular junction

112
Q

ultrasonography

A

can identify tears and inflammation of tendons and involves no exposure to radiation

113
Q

myositis specific antibodies

A

MSA; can confirm a diagnosis of dermatomyositis or polymyositis; dozens of these antibodies have been identified and research is ongoing to define their significance

114
Q

NSAIDS

A
inhibit the two COX enzymes that are involved in producing the inflammatory process; 
acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin), ibuprofen, naproxen
115
Q

indomethacin

A

an NSAID that inhibits both COX enzymes; potent with many serious side effects

116
Q

paracetamol

A

AKA acetaminophen; an active metabolite of phenacetin; widely used OTC analgesic and antipyretic

117
Q

skeletal muscle relaxants

A

used for spasticity or for muscular conditions like multiple sclerosis

118
Q

anabolic steroids

A

related to testosterone, but have been altered so that their main effect is muscular hypertrophy; illegal in sports

119
Q

ergonomics

A

study of the human factors that affect the design and operation of tools and the work environment

120
Q

myofascial release

A

specialized soft-tissue manipulation used to ease the pain of conditions like fibromyalgia, myofascial pain syndrome, movement restrictions, TMJ disorders and carpal tunnel syndrome

121
Q

OT

A

occupational therapy; consists of activities to promote recovery and rehabilitation to assist patients in performing the activities of daily living

122
Q

ADL

A

activities of daily living; includes grooming, eating, and dressing

123
Q

PT

A

physical therapy; treatment to prevent disability or restore function through the use of exercise, heat, massage, etc

124
Q

therapeutic ultrasound

A

uses high-frequency sound waves to treat muscle injuries by generating heat deep within muscle tissue

125
Q

transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation

A

TENS; uses a device that delivers electrical impulses through the skin which can cause changes in muscles

126
Q

RICE

A

rest, ice, compression, elevation; common first aid treatment of muscular injuries

127
Q

fasciotomy

A

surgical incision through the fascia to relive tension or pressure

128
Q

tenodesis

A

surgical suturing of the end of a tendon to a bone

129
Q

tenolysis

A

release of a tendon from adhesions

130
Q

tenorrhaphy

A

surgical suturing together of the divided ends of a tendon

131
Q

myotomy

A

surgical incision into a muscle

132
Q

antispasmodic

A

AKA anticholinergic; used to suppress smooth muscle contractions of the stomach, intestine, or bladder

133
Q

skeletal muscle relaxant

A

administered to relax certain muscles and to relieve the stiffness, pain, and discomfort caused by strains, sprains, or other muscle injuries; acts on the CNS

134
Q

neuromuscular blocker

A

AKA neuromuscular blocking agent; causes temporary paralysis by blocking the transmission of nerve stimuli to the muscles; used with anesthesia during surgery to cause skeletal muscles to relax

135
Q

Bone marrow transplants

A

BMT; use to treat certain cancers such as leukemia and lymphomas which affect bone marrow

136
Q

orthotic medical devices

A

mechanical appliance to control, correct or compensate for impaired limb function; ex. leg brace or splint

137
Q

prosthesis

A

substitute for a diseased or missing body part

138
Q

athrodesis

A

AKA surgical ankylosis; surgical fusion of two bones to stiffen a joint such as ankle, elbow, or shoulder

139
Q

arthrolysis

A

surgical loosening of an ankylosed joint

140
Q

synovectomy

A

surgical removal of a synovial membrane from a joint; ex. to repair joint damage caused by RA

141
Q

arthroplasty

A

surgical placement of an artificial joint; ex. total knee replacement (TKR), partial knee replacement (PKR), and total hip replacement (THR)

142
Q

percutaneous discectomy

A

treats a herniated disk; thin tube is inserted through the skin of the back to suction out the ruptured disk or to vaporize it with a laser

143
Q

percutaneous vertebroplasty

A

treats osteoporosis-related compression fractures; bone cement if injected to stabilize compression fractures within the spinal column

144
Q

laminectomy

A

surgical removal of a lamina or posterior portion of a vertebra

145
Q

spinal fusion

A

technique to immobilize part of the spine by fusing together two or more vertebrae

146
Q

osteoclasis

A

surgical fracture of a bone to correct a deformity

147
Q

osteorrhaphy

A

surgical suturing or wiring together of bones

148
Q

periostomy

A

incision through the periosteum to the bone

149
Q

lord/o

A

curve, swayback

150
Q

orth/o

A

straight

151
Q

thorac/o

A

chest

152
Q

lumb/o

A

loins (lower back)

153
Q

-asthenia

A

weakness, debility

154
Q

-clasia

A

to break; surgical fracture

155
Q

-desis

A

binding, fixation (of a bone or joint)

156
Q

-malacia

A

softening

157
Q

-physis

A

growth

158
Q

-porosis

A

porous

159
Q

-sarcoma

A

malignant tumor of connective tissue

160
Q

-scopy

A

visual examination

161
Q

dys-

A

bad; painful; difficult

162
Q

sub-

A

under, below

163
Q

supra-

A

above, excessive, superior

164
Q

syn-

A

union, together, joined

165
Q

division

A

cutting into a body part without drawing fluids and/or gases from the body part to SEPARATE a body part; ex. osteotomy

166
Q

release

A

FREEING a body part form abnormal physical constraint by cutting or by the use of force; releases tissue restraining but none of the body part is removed (that’d be extraction); ex. carpal tunnel release procedure

167
Q

detachment

A

cutting off all or part of the upper or lower extremities without replacement; ex. above-knee amputation, fifth toe ray amputation, and above-elbow amputation

168
Q

fusion

A

joining articular body parts together to make the body part immobile (only joints); ex, spinal fusions and fusions of the hands/feet

169
Q

reattachment

A

putting back in/on all or a portion of a separated body part to its normal location or other suitable location; ex. avulsed ear or amputated finger (must have been fully separated prior to reattachment)

170
Q

anti-inflammatory

A

(corticosteroid); Names: Celestone, prednisone, Medrol

171
Q

Calcium supplements

A

Names: calcium carbonate, Tums, Citrical

172
Q

Gold Salts

A

Gold capsules or solutions to prevent further disease progression in RA; Names: Auranofin (Ridaura), aurothioglucose (Solganal)

173
Q

Muscle Relaxants

A

Names: Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril), Methocarbamol and aspirin (Robaxin)

174
Q

Salicylates

A

to releave pain; Names: Aspirin (Bayer, Acuprin)