Mock test Two Flashcards

1
Q

What is usually included as part of ‘incident management’?

a) Scripts for collecting initial information about incidents
b) Detailed procedures for the diagnosis of incidents
c) Authority to implement changes to a system
d) Observation of all services and service components to identify any change in state

A

a) Scripts for collecting initial information about incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

You are in a quarterly service level management review with your supervisor. The manager asks your supervisor if the service desk has been meeting their SLA target metrics. Your supervisor proudly proclaims that everything is ‘green’ (meaning, we are meeting all of the targets). Just then, another executive asks, “If everything is showing as ‘green’, why am I hearing other users complain that the service is always unavailable for use?” What might be the reason for this?

Your supervisor’s data is ___.

a) based on operational metrics
b) based on business metrics
c) based on availability metrics
d) not based on business outcomes

A

d) not based on business outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The purpose of the ___ practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services and the configuration items that support them are available when and where needed.

A

service configuration management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The purpose of the ___ practice is to support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner.

A

service request management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___ is the practice of ensuring that risks are properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing a change schedule in order to maximize the number of successful IT changes.

A

change enablement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is usually included as part of ‘incident management’?

a) Detailed procedures for the diagnosis of incidents
b) Formalized processes for logging incidents
c) Observation of all services and service components to identify any change in state
d) Authority to implement changes to a system

A

b) Formalized processes for logging incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is NOT a problem identification activity?

a) Detecting duplicate and recurring issues
b) Logging an incident
c) Performing trend analysis of incident records
d) Analysis of multiple incidents that may be linked together

A

b) Logging an incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If your company is using a single service desk located in one office building to support users from around the world, what type of service desk might this be?

a) Virtual
b) Centralized
c) Follow-the-sun
d) Local

A

b) Centralized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Your laptop only has a 256GB of SSD storage installed. You have been traveling for work for the last 2 weeks and have downloaded a lot of video files to your internal storage device. Your computer is having issues because there is not enough free space. You called your service desk, but since you are out of the country, they cannot remotely back up all the files on your laptop. They recommend that you move the large files from your internal storage device (256GB SSD) to an external hard drive to free up some available space. Unfortunately, you don’t have an external hard drive with you, so you will purchase one at the store later today. How would you classify this situation and the solution recommended?

a) Incident
b) Workaround
c) Problem
d) Known error

A

d) Known error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

You have just been promoted to the role of the Service Desk manager. The manager before you loved metrics, and the Service Desk is currently spending numerous hours per week creating reports based on over 150 different metrics they call ‘measures of effectiveness’. You believe there are simply too many metrics being collected and begin an analysis of each one to determine if is it providing valuable information. For the ones you find without value, you eliminate the requirement to track and report on those metrics. Which guiding principle are you following in this scenario?

A

Keep it simple and practical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

You are working as part of an improvement initiative and your team would like to release a new module into the existing Customer Relationship Management system. Which type of change should you initiate?

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which step of the continual improvement model states that “each improvement initiative should support the organization’s goals and objectives”?

A

b) What is the vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When working within the ‘what is the vision’ step of the continual improvement model, what must you ensure to occur?

a) The high-level direction of the initiative has been understood
b) The detailed steps of how to achieve your objectives
c) What metrics you will use to measure success
d) The current processes being used

A

a) The high-level direction of the initiative has been understood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management has set a goal to reduce the number of physical servers in the datacenter by 10% this year. Your team is responsible for creating a plan to migrate 50% of the physical servers into virtualized systems. Which step of the continual improvement model are you currently working on?

A

How do we get there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During which step of the continual improvement model do you create your objective baseline measurement?

a) What is the vision
b) Where do we want to be
c) How do we get there
d) Where are we now

A

d) Where are we now

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During which step of the continual improvement model is change management and release management usually performed?

a) Take action
b) Where do we want to be
c) What is the vision
d) Where are we now

A

a) Take action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of these are influencing factors for partner and supplier strategy, choose two?

Corporate hospitality
Resource scarcity
Demand patterns
Personal relationship with supplier

A

Resource scarcity
Demand patterns

18
Q

Which management practice is used when restoring operations back to normal as quickly as possible?

a) Problem management
b) Monitoring and event management
c) Availability management
d) Incident management

A

d) Incident management

19
Q

The change control practice seeks to ___ the number of successful IT changes.

a) optimize
b) maximize
c) balance
d) control

A

b) maximize

20
Q

Which practice seeks to return to normal service operation as quickly as possible?

a) availability management
b) service desk
c) incident management
d) problem management

A

c) incident management

21
Q

Variations are a key driver for the need to ___.

a) rationalize tool chains
b) implement infrastructure-as-code
c) meet about things like changes and releases
d) implement continuous delivery

A

c) meet about things like changes and releases

22
Q

We value the first four ways over ___.

a) enlightening and empowering people
b) engineering and enforcing end-to-end process activities
c) enacting and enabling outcomes
d) lowering barriers and increasing enablers

A

b) engineering and enforcing end-to-end process activities

23
Q

When improving moments of truth, our primary focus is on improving what two things?

a) end-to-end processes and the functions that take part in them
b) the activities of each moment of truth, and their sequence
c) the interactions themselves and the settings in which they take place
d) the inputs and outputs of each moment of truth

A

c) the interactions themselves and the settings in which they take place

24
Q

Practices, properly construed, are ___.

a) what people do to drive toward the outputs of their functions
b) what people do to drive toward outcomes
c) what people do to comply with processes
d) what people do to comply with governance directives only

A

b) what people do to drive toward outcomes

25
Q

In which kind of practices do we have activities, patterns and practices that we apply or modify to accommodate the situation as it changes, to produce the best outcome in response to a changing situation?

a) adaptive
b) deterministic
c) emergent
d) processes

A

a) adaptive

26
Q

How was, the lightweight approach introduced at the inception of service management, called?

a) improving “moments of truth”
b) process reengineering
c) Lean service management
d) Agile service management

A

a) improving “moments of truth”

27
Q

Can you apply the concept of service relationships using the seventh way, individual, team and organization-level reflection and action?

a) No, as service relationships exist only at the organizational level.
b) No, as the approach is not applicable here.
c) No, as service relationships exist only at the organizational and team levels.
d) Yes, as service relationships exist at all three levels.

A

d) Yes, as service relationships exist at all three levels.

28
Q

When determining priority of addressing issues rated green, yellow, red, and grey, all other things being equal, what should the order be?

a) Address grays first.
b) Address reds first.
c) Address reds and yellows first.
d) Address red (critical) items first, along with greys (make these unknowns known). Then address yellows.

A

d) Address red (critical) items first, along with greys (make these unknowns known). Then address yellows.

29
Q

Which concept includes the management of the customer’s resources for service?

a) Service provision
b) Service relationship management
c) Service relationship
d) Service consumption

A

d) Service consumption

30
Q

What is an example of how you’d start applying “enacting and enabling outcomes”?

a) Start by identifying the outcomes for each service and practice, and rating each as unknown, good, degraded, or broken.
b) Start by identifying the activities of each process and their sequence.
c) Start by identifying the activities within each function and their owner.
d) Start with a SWOT assessment.

A
31
Q

Which practice is responsible for moving new or changed components to live or other environments?

a) Deployment management
b) Change enablement
c) Release management
d) Supplier management

A

a) Deployment management

32
Q

Which practice has a strong influence on the user experience and perception of the service provider?

a) Service desk
b) Supplier management
c) Service level management
d) Change enablement

A

a) Service desk

33
Q

Which is one of the MAIN concerns of the ‘design and transition’ value chain activity?

a) Understanding stakeholder needs
b) Ensuring service components are available
c) Understanding the organization’s vision
d) Meeting stakeholder expectations.

A

d) Meeting stakeholder expectations.

34
Q

ITIL management practices are ___.

a) key activities in the service value chain
b) processes and functions
c) sets of organizational resources designed for performing work or accomplishing an objective
d) key elements of the service lifecycle–each practice is associated with a phase of the lifecycle where it ‘first becomes important’

A

c) sets of organizational resources designed for performing work or accomplishing an objective

35
Q

Which practice aligns an organization’s practices/services with changing business needs through ongoing identification and improvement of all elements of effective management of products/services?

a) engage
b) plan
c) continual improvement
d) strategy management

A

c) continual improvement

36
Q

What are the tree types of events?

a) incidents, problems and requests
b) anticipated, unanticipated, and exceptional
c) informational, warning, and exception
d) planned, unplanned, and exception

A

c) informational, warning, and exception

37
Q

Which practice seeks to set clear business-based targets for service performance so service delivery can be properly assessed, monitored, and managed against the targets?

a) incident management
b) service-level management
c) the service desk
d) capacity and performance management

A

b) service-level management

38
Q

Deployment management is concerned with moving new or changed components to what?

a) the live, testing, and staging environments
b) the testing environment only, as release management handles release to the live environment
c) the staging environment only, as release management handles release to the live environment
d) the live environment only

A

a) the live, testing, and staging environments

39
Q

Which practice has a purpose that includes managing risks to confidentiality, integrity, and availability?

a) Problem management
b) Information security management
c) Service configuration management
d) Change enablement

A

b) Information security management

40
Q

Betsy has been hired by your company to lead the process improvement efforts. You have shared with her the overall vision for the process improvement and she begins to analyze your current resources, processes, and metrics. What step of the continual improvement model is Betsy performing?

a) What is the vision
b) Where do we want to be
c) How do we get there
d) Where are we now

A

d) Where are we now