Microbiology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Whats the space between the cell wall and outer membrane of gram negative bacteria called?

A

Periplasm space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Whats a down side to bactericidal antibiotics?

A

Can release a multitude of toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When someone is exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis they may not develop a disease - what are the factors the influence whether someone will become infected?

A

Infectious dose

Exposure

  • duration of exposure
  • frequency
  • proximity of infection

Environment
- poor ventilation

**this is why prisons and homeless shelters are such a risk factor. `

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is essential process for controlling TB spread?

A

Formation of granulomas with correctly activated macrophages, which is orchestrated by Adaptive immune cells - T cells
**this takes weeks to do

  • note that some TB cells remain alive within the granulomas
  • this is latent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Outline the natural history of TB, with important cytokines.

A

Alveolar macrophages is infected

More macrophages are signaled to the area and become infected.

IL-12 stimulated TH1 cells to release IFN-gamma which sufficiently activates the macrophages to kills and create granulomas.

These granulomas are maintained by IFN-gamma and TNF-alpha.

Moves to latent TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name some extrapulmonary tuberculosis locations:

A

Potts disease - spinal disease

Tuberculous lymphadenopathy

Meningitis - especially in infants - at the base of the brain causes obstruction of flow of CFS

Miliary TB - dismentated within the lung and body

Adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What investigations should be done in the suspicion of TB, and how is it diagnosed?

A

Chest x-ray
- consolidation/ cavities

Sputums
- Ziehl Nielsen testing for acid fast bacteria

PPD skin test

  • false negative in immunocompromised
  • false positive in BCG vaccinated people

HIV test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When diagnosing Gonorrhea, what are the symptoms, and what tests are done?

A

Purulent disease of mucous membranes
- discoloured discharge

Dysuria

Epididymitis

Male:
- urine sample
+ throat swab

Females:
- swabs of urethral tract
+ Throat swab

NAAT testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the symptoms and treatment for chlamydia?

A
White watery discharge, with ulceration around the genital regions 
Untreated leads to:
- Pelvic inflammatory disease 
- Salpingitis 
- scarring of the tubes - infertility 

Azithromycin

or

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis has 3 major subsets of its disease, one of which is associated with the standard STI. there is another type though, more associated with men who have sex with men, causing severe rectal symptoms.

what is this subtype, and what are the symptoms?

A

Lymphogranuloma Venereum
- this is a type of chlamydia trachomatis which specifically affects the lymph nodes around the inguinal area.

symptoms:
Prostatitis
ulceration within the rectal cavity

**often mistaken for cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Whats the time line of syphilis?

A

Primary syphilis - chancre
- 3 weeks

Rash
- 8-16 weeks

Latent syphilis

Tertiary syphilis - neurological, cardiovascular, Gumma
- 10-40 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Whats the vaccination against HPV?

A

Gardasil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What’s the most commonly transferred viral STIs?

A

HPV

HSV

Molluscum contagiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HIV has three structural genes, what are they?

what one is clinically very important?

A

Gag - p24
Pol - reverse transcriptase
Env - Gp120

p24 - is used for diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What kind of rash does HIV usually present with?

A

Maculopapular rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the most common causes of endocarditis?

and what causes very large vegetations?

A

Native valves = Strep Viridans

Prosthetic valves = Staph Epidermis

IDU = Staph Aureus

Large vegetations are associated with HACEK organisms

17
Q

Is E.Coli associated with HACEK?

A

no.

18
Q

In necrotising fascitis, what is the immediate management?

A

Antibiotics

Drawing lines around wound area
- monitor progress

LMWH

Sepsis 6

Surgery

ITU involvement

19
Q

What is the organism indicated in Type III Necrofisitis?

A

Vibro Vulnificus

Associated with sea water