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Phase 3 > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the mosquito that transmits malaria?

A

Anopheles Mosquito

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2
Q

What is the most common type of malaria to affect people in the UK and is also the most serious?

A

Plasmodium Falciparum

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3
Q

What is the most common type of malaria worldwide?

A

Plasmodium Vivax

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4
Q

What is the life cycle of Malaria?

A
  1. Sporozoites Injection from mosquito
  2. infection of hepatocytes
    - Merozoites
  3. infection of RBCs
  4. Asexual reproduction in RBCs
    - Ring form
    - Trophoziote
    - Schizonts
  5. RBCs haemolysis, release of Merozoites
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5
Q

Treatment of malaria?

A

Artmenther compounds
- riamet

Quinine + Doxycycline

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6
Q

Prevention of Malaria?

A

Mefloquine

Doxycycline

Malarone

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7
Q

What causes enteric Fever?

A

Salmonella Typhi
or
Salmonella Paratyphi

**paratyphi is more common in travelers

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8
Q

What is the incubation period for Enteric fever?

A

5-21 days

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9
Q

What are the symptoms of enteric fever?

A
  • sustained fever - 2 weeks
  • flu like symptoms
  • abdominal tenderness
  • Rose spots
  • splenomegaly
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10
Q

What are complication of enteric fever?

A
  • septic shock
  • bowel perforation
    due to peyer patches involvement
  • enteric encephalopahty
  • meningitis
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11
Q

Treatment of Enteric fever?

A

Quinolones

Cephalosporins

Azithromycin

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12
Q

What causes dengue fever?

A

Flavivirus

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13
Q

What are the symptoms of dengue fever?

A

Abrupt onset of fever

Incredibly sore back

headache

retro-orbital pain

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14
Q

What is the diagnostic test are done for malaria?

A

Rapid Diagnostic Testing
- malarial antigens

Thin blood film

Thick blood film

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15
Q

What are the most common bacteria associated with UTIs?

A

E. Coli

proteus mirabilis

Staph Suprophyticus

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16
Q

Morphologically how would treponema Pallidum be described?

A

Spiral shaped

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17
Q

What type of virus is HPV?

A

DNA

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18
Q

What are the types of HIV?

A

Two Types

HIV -1

HIV -2

**HIV1 is the most common

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19
Q

What are the contents of HIV?

A

2 copies of RNA
reverse transcriptase
Protease
Integrase

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20
Q

What does HIV bind too on the Cd4 cell?

A

CCR5

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21
Q

What protein on the HIV virus is used to bind to CCR5?

A

GP120

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22
Q

What tests are done to identify HIV?

A

CD4 count

PCR - HIV-1 plasma RNA. Identifies:

  • how much virus is in the blood
  • HIV subtypes
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23
Q

What is the CD4 count when AIDS is confirmed?

A

<200

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24
Q

List some AIDS defining infections

A

Pneumocytisi Jiroveci

Candidiasis infections systemically

TB

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25
Q

List some types of medications used in HIV treatment:

A

Reverse transciptase inhibitors:

  • nucleotide
  • non nucleotide

Protease inhibitors

Integrase inhibitors

Co-receptor blockers

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26
Q

What is the treatment for HIV?

A

Highly aggressive antiretroviral therapy
- HAART
3 medication combination

**usually 2 nuceloside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + another drug from another class

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27
Q

What causes the common cold?

A

Rhino virus
- single stranded RNA

over 100 serotypes

Largest species of virus known

28
Q

What virus causes pharngitis and how can you differentiate between a bacterial infection and the virus?

A

Adenovirus
**DNA virus

if nasal symptoms it is likely viral

29
Q

What virus causes croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

30
Q

What virus causes bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory Synctial virus

31
Q

When thinking about antigenic shift, what sialic acid residues does humans have? how does this vary from pigs and birds?

A

humans:
alpha 2-6 sialic acid

Pigs:
alpha 2-6/2-3
**mixture

Birds:
alpha 2-3

32
Q

What virus is usually responsible for SARS? name a new type

A

Coronovirus

Middle eastern virus

33
Q

How is N. Gonorrhea treated?

A

Ceftriaxone
+
Azithromycin

(+ Doxycycline for other cover of infections)

34
Q

How is Chlamydia Trochmatis treated?

A

Doxycycline for 1 week

or

Azithromycin 1 dose

35
Q

In Bacterial meningitis you give ceftriaxone, and if over 60 years or immunocompromised you give amoxicillin. if there is a penicillin allergy what drugs do you give instead?

A

Chloramphenicol

+

Co - Trimoxazole

36
Q

If a 40 year came in with bacterial meningitis, what would your first line of treatment be?
then what if he had a penicillin allergy?

A

Ceftriaxone

if penicillin allergy switch to chloramphenicol

37
Q

What kind of sialic acid do human cells have, and what’s it called when the virus is able to bind to different types of sialic acid?

A

alpha 2-6 sialic acid

Antigenic shift

38
Q

What are the most common strains of influenza?

A

Type A: H3N2

Type A: H1N1

39
Q

What is the swine flu strain?

A

H1N1

H3N2

the most common seasonal flus now

40
Q

What tests are available for diagnosing influenza out with clinical?

A

Rapid influenza Diagnostic Test

PCR

41
Q

What treatments can be given for influenza?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitors

M2 proton
- prevents uncoating of the virus

42
Q

Name some bacteria that are typically transferred during an animal bite. How is this managed?

A

S. Aureus
S. Strep

Anaerobics

Pasteurella

Capnocytophagia

1st line: co-amoxiclav

2nd line: doxycycline + metronidazole

debridement

Tetanus shoot

43
Q

Name the bacteria that is associated with large boil formations and is extremely contagious:

A

PVL Staph Aureus

44
Q

What mosquito is likely to bite you during the day? and what disease does it transmit?

A

Aedes Mosquito

- Dengue fever

45
Q

What mosquito is likely to bite you during the night? and what disease does it spread?

A

Anopheles Mosquito

- Malaria

46
Q

What are some physical barriers to avoid mosquito bites?

A
  • indoors
  • AC conditioning
    • Impregnanted netting
  • tugged in - even during the day
  • **clothing
  • covered.
47
Q

How long is DEET effective for against mosquitoes?

A

DEET - 40% every 3-4 hours

48
Q

If some arrived in a malaria infected area and 48 hours later got a fever, is it malaria?

A

No this is too soon. the life cycle takes much longer.

49
Q

What the class malaria symptoms:

A

Headache
Fever
Myalgia

Diarrhea
Jaundice

50
Q

What would the classification of parasitaemia for malaria?

A

> 2% of RBCs effected

51
Q

Why does prophylaxis of malaria need to be maintained even after returning from the country?

A

Because some of the spirocytes may escape into the liver and can be stubborn to remove

52
Q

How can you catch Typhoid? (enteric fever)

A

Contaminated water

53
Q

How is typhoid diagnosed?

A

History
- Blood cultures

Serology (not done in UK)

54
Q

What are the haemorrhagic fevers?

A

Lassa Virus

Ebola

Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever - CCHF

RIft Valley Fever

SAVHF

Yellow Fever

55
Q

How do Haemorrhagic fevers cause bleeding and how do people die?

A

Bleeding from mucosal areas

Septic shock

56
Q

How would you test for legionella Pneumophila?

A

Urine

57
Q

If a patient presents pyrexial, tachycardic with a history of illness, what should the next steps be?

A

Sepsis Screen - Q-Sofa

Bloods

Cultures

Imaging

58
Q

What bacteria are usually associated with epiglottitis? and what would the symptoms be of this?

A

Bacteria:
H. Influenza

S. Pneumonia

S. Aures

Beta haemolytic Strep

Viral:

  • EBV
  • HSV type -1
  • Influenza viruses

Difficulty breathing, septitc.

59
Q

What is a major complication of Metastatic group A strep infection?

A

Cerebral Abscesses

60
Q

If you have a Group A strep systemic infection which drugs should be used and which should always be added to the regime? and why?

A

Beta lactams
+
Clindamycin

Group A step have very high virulence factors - thus adding clindamycin to reduce the toxin production is essential

61
Q

What are the two main ways infection enters the G.I?

A

Direct entrance of bacteria

Toxin consumption

62
Q

If someone is on chemotherapy, what is a disorder that can occur which results in decrease in anate immune barrier, leading one to be more prone to G.I infections?

A

Mucositis

63
Q

What two E.Coli infections don’t cause fever?

A

Hemorrhagic E.Coli/ 0157

Enterogenic E. Coli

64
Q

How long do you have immunity to norovirus?

A

6-14 weeks

65
Q

Whats the biggest cause of norovirus spread?

A

Poor hand hygiene

66
Q

What virus causes D&V under <2 years?

A

Rotovirus

Phase 3 (50 decks)

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