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BIO 442 > Microbial Genetics > Flashcards

Microbial Genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

Function of RNA primer in replication

A

creates a starting place for DNA polymerase to attach to

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2
Q

Describe frameshift mutation

A

Addition or deletion of a base causing the reading frame to shift and many amino acids are changed. Most lethal

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3
Q

Function of rRNA?

A

makes up part of the ribosomes

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4
Q

Which is the most lethal type of mutation?

A

frame shift

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5
Q

What processing happens to mRNA in eukaryotic cells?

A

initial mRNA is called pre-mRNA because it contains both introns and exons. Gets capped on the 5’ end and adenylated at the 3’ side (poly A tail) and the introns are spliced out by ribosomes to form final mRNA.

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6
Q

Which types of radiation are ionizing?

A

gamma or x ray. Results in free radicals that breaks into the chromosomes

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7
Q

How does UV light cause mutations?

A

cause pyramidine dimers between T bases next to each other. Cannot be transcribed or replicated when they exist

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8
Q

Define genotype and phenotype

A

genotype: sequence of genes, alleles
phenotype: traits expressed, proteins that are made, enzymes made in bacteria

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9
Q

How many chromosomes in a bacterial cell?

A

1

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10
Q

Function of tRNA

A

bring anticodons and amino acids to bind with mRNA

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11
Q

What are transposons?

A

jumping genes, discovered by barbara mcclintock and corn. a section of DNA moves to a new location on the chromosome without homology needed. Can insert within a gene and inactivate it (knockout mutation)Can cause frameshift-like mutations.

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12
Q

Define chromosomes

A

a long DNA molecule with part or all of the genetic material of an organism

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13
Q

Function and description of ribosomal subunits (APE binding sites)

A

A site holds the new tRNA with it’s amino acid that will add to the previous amino acid
P site- holds the growing polypeptide
E site- the exit site where the used tRNA gets released

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14
Q

Function of a terminator in transcription

A

A special sequence that signals the transcription to end and release the mRNA. Can also be stopped by an enzyme

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15
Q

Function of replication fork in replication

A

opens up the DNA and keeps it separated so that the new strands can be synthesized

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16
Q

Describe conjugation

A

A F+ bacteria creates a pilus and connects with a F- bacteria and replicates and sends it’s plasmid to the F- bacteria. Common in antibiotic resistance

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17
Q

What is the origin of replication?

A

the primer

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18
Q

Define mutagen

A

agents that induce mutations at a rate of 1-1000-100000

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19
Q

Describe the steps of DNA replication

A
  1. DNA is unwound+unzipped by helicase that breaks the weak hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides at the origin
  2. Stabilizing proteins attach to the unwound portion of the DNA to prevent it from zipping back up. This creates the replication fork
  3. Primase is used to synthesize a short piece of RNA (primer) that is used to prime the process
  4. DNA is read by DNA polymerase in the 3′ to 5′ direction, meaning the new strand is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction. The leading strand new nucleotides are added by DNA polymerase in a continuous fashion towards the replication fork.
  5. Lagging strand is produced in pieces (okasaki fragments) away from the replication fork.

In bacteria it happens bidirectionally so that the two replicating forks are created at the same time

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20
Q

Compare and contrast the leading and lagging strands

A

leading synthesized continuously towards the replication fork
synthesized in pieces away from the replication fork

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21
Q

Describe how DNA is repaired

A

DNA polymerase proofreading
light repair- light activated photolyse breaks the pyramidine dimers
nucleotide excision repair- a piece of DNA containing a dimer is excised out and filled back in with DNA polymerase and joined back tofther with ligase. no light required.

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22
Q

Function of nonsense codons (stop codons)

A

end translation

23
Q

Function of ribozymes in translation

A

forms the peptide/covalent bond between amino acids

24
Q

Describe missense mutation

A

base substitution results in a different amino acid being created. Reason fo sickle cell disease

25
Q

Describe the central dogma

A

DNA->RNA->protein

26
Q

What are the recipient cells of the genetic transfer called?

A

recipients

27
Q

Function of anticodons

A

complement to the codons in the mRNA

28
Q

Define genetic code

A

groups of three bases that create codons which code for amino acids

29
Q

What does semiconservative replication mean?

A

process results in daughter molecules that each have one strand from the parent and one new strand

30
Q

Define nucleotides

A

building block for DNA or RNA. Consists of a nitrogen-containing base, a pentose sugar, and a phosphate. ATCGU

31
Q

Compare and contrast DNA and RNA

A

DNA: deoxyribonucleic acid, ATCG, deoxyribose sugar, double helix

RNA: ribonucleic acid, AUCG, ribose sugar, single strand or cloverleaf or 3D

32
Q

Define mutation and list common causes

A

a mistake or change in the sequence of nucleotides
caused by random changes and external factors

33
Q

Define genetic recombination

A

when two strands of double stranded DNA are close in space and have similar (homologous) sequences the similar sequences can trade places.

34
Q

Function of mRNA?

A

a temporary copy of the DNA used in translation

35
Q

Function of DNA polymerase in replication

A

synthesizes the new strands by adding nucleotides that complement the template

36
Q

Function of RNA polymerase in transcription

A

attaches to the promoter region and catalyzes the addition of RNA nucleotides to form the mRNA strand

37
Q

What is a spontaneous mutation?

A

just a random mutation

38
Q

Describe transformation

A

when bacteria absorb naked DNA fragments from their environment. Discovered by Griffith and the rats. Not all cells do this, but cells can be forced to do this by shocking them with electricity or with calcium chloride to make the competent.

39
Q

Describe nonsense mutation

A

a base change results in a stop codon being created and protein is shorter than needed

40
Q

Describe base substitution

A

a base is change but not deleted or added

41
Q

What are the nucleoside analogs?

A

chemically similar to normal bases and can become incorporated into DNA and cause base pairing errors. This is how antiviral/antitumor drugs function

42
Q

Describe repression

A

when a protein binds to the promotor region of the DNA preventing RNA polymerase from binding and turns off transcription

43
Q

Describe transduction

A

When a bacteriophages transfers bacterial DNA from one cell to another instead of it’s own.

44
Q

Function of codons (sense codons)

A

3 base code that codes for a particular amino acid

45
Q

Function of a promoter in transcription

A

a special sequence in the DNA that signals for transcription to begin there

46
Q

Function of DNA ligase in replication

A

fills in gaps in the sugar-phosphate back bone of DNA

47
Q

Compare and contrast the lactose and the tryptophan operon

A

Lactose: Enzymes for lactose break down are not created until lactose is present which binds to the repressor and allows the transciption to take place.

Tryptophan: Tryptophan is created normally, but when an abundance of tryptophan is present it binds to the repressor and stops transcription.

48
Q

Describe induction

A

can be turned on when an inducer is present because the inducer binds to the repressor

49
Q

Define genes

A

a section of DNA located on a particular chromosome

50
Q

Function of tRNA?

A

has anticodon and amino acid attached and binds with the mRNA

51
Q

Function of amino acids in translation

A

connect together to produce proteins

52
Q

Describe constitutive genes

A

not regulated, constant transcription, house keeping genes such as genes for glycolysis enzymes

53
Q

Distinguish vertical gene transfer from horizontal gene transfer

A

vertical: when genomes are transferred from a parent cell to a new daughter cell
horizontal: microbes int eh same generation acquire genetic material from similar species or a different strain of the same species

BIO 442 (26 decks)

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