Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs Flashcards

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1
Q

Suffix common for the aminoglycosides class?

A

-mycin

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2
Q

Define ESBL

A

Extended-spectrum beta-lactamases

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3
Q

Define how inactivation of the drug works

A

microbe produces enzymes that break down drug i.e. beta-lactamase

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4
Q

What are the key side effects of quinolones and fluoroquinolones?

A

photosensitivity, hallucinations, and suppresses cartilage development in children

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5
Q

Give examples of beta-lactam drugs and beta-lactamase inhibitors.

A

beta-lactam drugs- penicillins, monobactams, cephalosporins, and carbapenems
inhibitors- sulbactam and clauvulanate

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6
Q

Define MRSA

A

Methicillin-resistant staph aureus, must use vancomycin to treat

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7
Q

inhibition of protein synthesis drugs

A

aminoglycosides and macrolides: end in -cin
tetracyclines: end in -line
streptogramins: synercid
other: chloramphenicol

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8
Q

Which 2 types of microorganisms produce most antibiotics?

A

bacteria (streptomyces and cephalosporin) and fungi (penicillium and cephlosporins)

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9
Q

How is E test different from Kirby-Bauer?

A

E test, a strip with varying levels of drug concentrations is placed on a lawn. Where the ellipse connects with the test strip concentration is the MIC.

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10
Q

Which class of antimicrobial is doxycycline?

A

tertacyclines

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11
Q

Why are sulfonamides not antibiotics?

A

they are synthetic

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12
Q

Describe how increase in elimination of the drug works

A

mutations cause increase in efflux pumps which pump drug out i.e. quinolone resistance

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13
Q

Describe 2 ways that you could obtain an MIC. What does MIC stand for?

A

E test and broth dilution
minimum inhibitory concentration

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14
Q

What was the first antibiotic discovered? By whom? How?

A

Penicillin, Fleming, staph did not grow around penicillin in plate

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15
Q

What are the key side effects of tetracyclines?

A

discolors teeth of children and fetus, affects long bone development, not indicated for pregnancy

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16
Q

Describe how decrease in uptake of the drug works

A

Porins on gram-negative bacteria close

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17
Q

injury to the plasma membrane drugs

A

polypeptide: bacitracin and polymixin B

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18
Q

What type of enzyme destroys specifically the beta-lactam ring of cephalosporins?

A

cephalosporinase

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19
Q

Define broad spectrum antibiotics

A

work against a large variety of bacteria

20
Q

Define how alteration of the target works

A

the cellular target of the drug is changed in some way. i.e. Penicillin binding proteins changing

21
Q

Define CRE

A

carbapenem resistant enterobacteriaceae

22
Q

inhibition of folic acid synthesis drugs

A

sulfonamides: begin with sulfa
trimethoprim

23
Q

What are three representative macrolides?

A

erythromycin
clarithromycin
azithromycin

24
Q

Define bactericidal

A

kills bacteria

25
Q

Suffix common for the macrolides class?

A

-mycin

26
Q

Why are clavulanate and sulbactam used in combination with some drugs? what do they inhibit?

A

They are beta-lactamase inhibitors

27
Q

inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis drugs

A

rifamycin: rifampin
quinolones: end in acid or floxacin

28
Q

Define MIC and MBC.

A

MIC- minimum inhibitory concentration
MBC- minimum bacteriocidal concentration

29
Q

Define VRE

A

vancomyocin resesitant enterococci

30
Q

Define MDR-TB

A

multidrug resistant TB

31
Q

What are the key side effects of rifampin?

A

reddish brown secretions

32
Q

Suffix common for the carbapenems class?

A

-penem

33
Q

Describe how the disk-diffusion method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing (Kirby-Bauer) is performed. What does the zone of inhibition indicate?

A

Smal disks of multiple drugs of a known amount are placed on the plate to test for susceptibility. Zone indicates how effective the drug is.

34
Q

Which class of antimicrobial is gentamicin?

A

aminoglycosides

35
Q

What are some advantages of the broth dilution method?

A

Both MIC and MBC can be directly observed in one set of dilutions. Can be miniaturized to test many drugs.

36
Q

Describe the modes of action of anti-viral drugs and be familiar with the examples given.

A

attachement antogonists: -arildones (pleconaril) and -neuraminidase inhibitors (tamiflu)
inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis:
acyclovir for herpes
ribavirin for Hep C
base analogs in AZT
reverse transcriptase inhibitor

37
Q

Which four main classes of antimicrobics contain a Beta-lactam ring(“garage”)? Which type of enzyme, in general, destroys this ring?

A

penicillins, monobactams, cephalosporins, and carbapenems.
beta-lactamase

38
Q

Define bacteriostatic

A

inhibits the growth of bacteria

39
Q

Suffix common for the penicillin class?

A

-cillin

40
Q

Which class of antimicrobial is vancomycin?

A

glycopeptide, inhibition of cell wall synthesis

41
Q

Suffix common for the quinolones and fluroquinolones class?

A

acid or -floxacin

42
Q

Define synergism and give an example.

A

two drugs that work together at a greater level. bactrim (sulfonamide and trimethoprim)

43
Q

Describe the modes of action of anti-fungal drugs and know examples given.

A

bind to ergosterol in cell membrane: polyenes, nyastatin and amphotericin B
Inhibit synthesis of ergosterol: -azoles (clotrimazole and miconazaole) and allyamines (terbafine)
interfere with mitosis (griseofulum)
interfere with DNA synthesis (5-flucytosine)

44
Q

Why is it more difficult to develop antimicrobial agents that work against fungi, protozoa, and helminths (eukaryotic microbes)? and viruses? (obligate intracellular parasites).

A

More difficult because they are either similar to our own cells or rely on our cells

45
Q

inhibition of cell wall synthesis drugs

A

penicillins: end in -cilin
cephalosporins: start with ce-
monobactams: end in -nam
carbapenems: end in -em
polypeptides: bacitracin
glycopeptide: vancomycin

46
Q

What are the key side effects of chloramphenicol?

A

suppresses RBC production, aplastic anemia

47
Q

Define VISA

A

vancomycin intermediate staph aureus