LFUS 5 Flashcards

0
Q

After what point is a rejected landing not permitted?

A

Selection of reverse thrust

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1
Q

In an RTO Emer evac, does the Delta P check apply?

A

No. TO not permitted with manual pressure therefore check is irrelevant

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3
Q

What are the immediate and secondary actions in the stall recovery?

A
  1. Reduce AoA “Nose-Down Pitch Apply”
  2. Bank Wings level
    Once out of the stall:
    Increase energy:
    • steadily increase thrust
    • retract SB
    • Flight path recover
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3
Q

What is the preferred power source for the emergency generator?

A

EDP

Provides twice as much power as RAT

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4
Q

In Emer Elec CONFIG, who must be PF?

A

CM1 as only PFD 1 availible

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5
Q

Where is the list of remaining systems on Emer elec config?

A

In QRH.

As a complex proc, a summary is in the QRH which is read once ECAM actions complete.

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6
Q

With Emer Elec Config, why is the gear always manually lowered?

A

If G HYD is used, could disrupt power to Emer Gen

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7
Q

In Emer Elec Config, what must be set to ON prior to the app?

A

LAND RECOVERY

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8
Q

In the SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE PAPER PROCEDURE what is signified by boxed items?

A

May be completed at any time once immediate actions complete

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9
Q

What will be displayed on ECAM if during the smoke checklist, Emer Elec Config is selected?

A

Generate the standard ECAM drill. As the crew deliberately made the selection, do not attempt to follow and restore generators

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10
Q

On the ECAM WHEEL SD page, how many green triangles are required to confirm the gear is down and locked?

A

At least 1 per wheel

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11
Q

If a flap/slat retraction problem occurs at takeoff, what is the most important crew action?

A

Pulling sel speed to avoid overstress

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12
Q

What will Dual NAV ADR or NAV IRS failures cause?

A
  • Loss of AP and A/THR

- Flight controls revert to ALTN LAW

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13
Q

Why does erroneous airspeed data does not affect the STALL warning

A

As it is based on AoA

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14
Q

If the PF calls for “LOSS OF BRAKING” what is the PNF action?

A

Select A/SKID & N/W STRG sw OFF

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15
Q

How can the crew activate the BUSS (back-up speed scale)?

A

Turn all three ADRs off

16
Q

What data is the BUSS speed based on?

A

AoA - also depends on flap/slat config

17
Q

When the BUSS is active, what is the alt indication based on?

A

GPS Alt

18
Q

When using the BUSS, what control surface is not availible?

A

Speed brakes

19
Q

With a dual RA failure, when does FLARE law become active?

A

When the gear is selected down with both APs disengaged. Will have to use man pitch trim

20
Q

What button must be used to establish on the ILS with a dual RA failure?

A

LOC

21
Q

What problem occurs with using AP in the latter stages of an ILS with a dual RA failure?

A

AP gains are no longer updated with the radio altitude signal

22
Q

In a dual eng flameout with fuel, when should the APU be started?

A

Below FL250

23
Q

For an overweight landing, what should the speed be at the FAF

A

VAPP (to reduce energy of a/c)

24
Q

For an overweight landing, what is the speed for the final stages of the app?

A

VLS

25
Q

For takeoff in high turb what is the flap retraction speed?

A

Target speed + 20
(ie F+20 for selection of flap 1)
Limited to VFE-5

26
Q

If severe turb is encountered in the cruise, what should be done with AP and A/THR?

A

AP on

Thrust levers set to turb N1 (QRH) and A/THR off

27
Q

What is the problem with using the bird for dynamic manoeuvres?

A

It suffers from a delay

28
Q

On the radar, how far should crew avoid all yellow, red, or magenta areas or green areas over 28,000ft?

A

20nm

29
Q

What type of law is flare law?

A

Direct law - designed so pilot has to add a progressive pull to increase pitch gently in flare