Lecture notes week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is are the essential components of a comprehensive safety program?

A

procedures, precautions, training (use of equipment, location of safety equipment and supplies- eye wash, fire extinguisher, spill clean up kit, biohazard disposal containers - sharps, protective gloves), must be in writing and accessible, safety signs- no eating/drinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does OSHA do or require?

A

mandates specific laboratory practices
must be incorporated into the laboratory safety policy
Some states have regulations superseding federal OSHA guidelines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the OSHA guidelines?

A

comply with all relevant OSHA standards
correct any safety or health hazards
Employee education and training - chemical, health, &safety hazards
Provide PPE
Maintain accurate records of injuries and illness
Post OSHA posters, citations, injuries, and illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does OSHA poster focus on?

A

Job safety and health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What topics fall under hazard control?

A

engineering controls - change work environment to eliminate/minimize hazards (waste scavenging systems)
Administrative controls
procedure controls
PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does a business control exposure to hazardous chemical in the work place?

A

implement chemical hygiene policies which includes - detail hazards in workplace, training, documentation, use of PPE, monitor exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the hazard communication standard?

A

employees must know exposure hazards, proper labeling on containers, material safety data sheets (MSDS) - must be accessible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What information is provided by the manufacturers that is needed on a MSDS?

A
  • Manufacturers name and contact info
  • hazardous ingredients
  • identifying information
  • physical/chemical characteristics (how it affects us in how we use it)
  • fire and explosion hazard data
  • reactivity data
  • health hazard data
  • precautions for safe handling and use
  • control measures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the rule about container labeling?

A

When chemicals are removed from primary containers into another container, a secondary label must be applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What protocols should be in place for blood-borne pathogens?

A

human - rare in vet. practice

zoonotic - protocols to prevent exposure (PPE, proper disinfection, proper disposal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What PPE is needed in vet. practice?

A

eye protection
protective clothing
shield/barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the biosafety levels?

A

Level 1, level II, Level III, Level IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is biosafety level 1?

A

normally does not cause disease in humans

no specific requirements for handling or disposal - vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is biosafety level 2?

A

potential to cause human disease if handled incorrectly

precautions vary with agent (ingestion or puncture) - salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is biosafety level 3?

A

potential to cause serious and potentially lethal disease
aerosol respiratory transmission
very specific requirements
Ex: Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is biosafety level 4?

A

unlikely for most employees to have exposure
high risk of life-threatening disease
maximum containment facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What protocol is needed for shipping hazardous materials?

A

regulations by U.S. Dept. of transportation
Category A - high risk - known or likely to cause disease in humans - permanent or life threatening diseases
Category B - low risk - most samples in this category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the way to ship specimens?

A

specific labeling, leak-proof containers, surrounded by watertight material, absorbent material between layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What should a laboratory design be like?

A

separate from other hospital operations
Large enough to accommodate equipment and personnel - separate counters for centrifuges and analyzers because of shaking centrifuges
Room temp. and draft control
Sink, storage, electrical supply, internet access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you know if you can trust a website?

A
  • funding and sponsor ship
  • timeline
  • information about the source
  • authors and contributors
  • references and sources
  • expert review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is need for an in-house lab?

A

a variety of equipment
factors that affect equipment needs
minimum equipment - microscope, refractometer, microhematocrit centrifuge, clinical centrifuge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the refractometer measure?

A

AKA total solids meter - measures the refractive index of a solution - the function of the concentration of solids in the medium
Calibrated to zero - using distilled water
Measures specific gravity
Protein concentration of plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the most common pipettes?

A

transfer, graduated
others - TD pipettes - delivers large amounts,TC pipettes - holds samples securely in microliter amounts
use an appropriate size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What temperature should incubators be set at?

A

for microbiology 37 degrees Celcius -best for pathogenic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Incubators need?
thermometer, humidity control | In larger or specialized facilities need controls for Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen
26
What are water baths and heat blocks needed for?
some assays, coagulation tests, and blood banking procedures require heat incubators may not be appropriate
27
What are the types of water baths and heat blocks?
simple water bath, circulating water bath, and waterless bead bath, heat block - one tube size
28
What is a aliquot mixer?
mixes the blood so it doesn't clot
29
What are some types of microscopes?
``` compound light microscope electron microscope fluorescent microscope phase-contract microscope dark field microscope ```
30
What does a compound light microscope do?
generates an image by using a combination of lenses
31
What does a compound light microscope have?
optical tube length - distance between objective and the eyepiece mechanical stage coarse and fine focus
32
What are the lens systems?
ocular, objective
33
Describe the ocular lens?
located in the eyepiece, usually 10x, binocular and monocular
34
Describe the objective lens?
3-4 lenses with different magnification, 4x - scanning, 10x - low power, 40x high dry (highest magnification without oil 100x - oil immersion - no slide cover
35
How do you determine magnification?
total magnification can be calculated - multiply ocular magnification and objective magnification
36
define biohazard.
biological substances that contain infectious agents that pose a threat to human health
37
Define bloodborne pathogens.
infectious agents that are present in the bloodstream
38
Define chemical hygiene plan.
a document that contains details about the specific chemical hazards present in the workplace
39
Defnine Engineering controls.
safety procedures focused on changing the work environment to eliminate or minimize exposure to a hazard
40
Define Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
informational material that contains detailed data safety information about hazardous materials found in a particular place of a business (an OSHA mandate)
41
Define OSHA.
Occupational safety and health administration - a U.S. government agency that mandates specific laboratory practices that must be incorporated into a laboratory's safety policy
42
Define PPE.
Personal protective equipment - items such as eye equipment and other protective clothing, shields, and barriers that are designed to minimize exposure to hazards in the workplace
43
define zoonoses.
diseases that can be transmitted between animals and humans
44
Define centrifuge.
used to separate substances of different densities that are in a solution. - spins at high speeds, which pushes the heaviest components in the sample to the bottom of the tube according to their densities
45
Liquid portion present in a sample that has been centifuged is called? The solid portion is called?
supernatant (plasma or serum from a blood sample) | sediment
46
Two types of centrifuges usually used in vet. practices are called?
microhematocrit and clinical centrifuge
47
Clinical centrifuges are one of two types, depending on the style of the centrifuge head, what are they?
a horizontal centrifuge head - AKA swinging-arm type and an angle centrifuge head - have specimen cups that hang vertically when the centrifuge is a rest but during centrifugation, the cups swing out to a horizontal position.
48
What are 2 disadvantages of a horizontal centrifuge head?
at excessive speeds (greater than 300 - revolutions/min) air friction causes heat buildup, which can damage delicate specimens - Some remixing of the sediment with the supernatant may occur when th specimen cups fall back to the vertical position
49
What is the angle centrifuge head?
specimen tubes are inserted through drilled holes that hold the tubes at a fixed angle, usually of approx. 52 degrees
50
What is a horizontal head centrifuge?
- have specimen cups that hang vertically when the centrifuge is a rest but during centrifugation, the cups swing out to a horizontal position.
51
What type of centrifuge holds capillary tubes?
a microhematocrit centrifuge
52
What advantages does the angle centrifuge head have over the horizontal head centrifuge?
the angle centrifuge can rotate at higher speeds without excessive heat buildup
53
Define refractometer?
AKA - total solids meter - used to measure the refractive index of a solution
54
Define refraction?
the bending of light rays as they pass from on medium (ie air) into another medium (ie. urine) with a different optical density
55
Define degree of refraction?
a function of the concentration of solid material in the nedium
56
What is the most common use of a refractometer?
for determination of the specific gravity of urine or other fluids
57
What type of microscope is needed in a vet. practice?
binocular compound light microscope
58
The compound microscope consists of what two types of lenses?
ocular and objective lenses
59
What objective lens is considered low dry?
10x
60
What objective lens is considered high dry?
40x
61
How do you determine the total magnification of the object you are viewing on a microscope?
multiply the magnification of the ocular lens and objective lens
62
What is the most important components of the microscope?
the objective lenses
63
Objective lenses are characterized as one of three types, what are they?
achromatic, semi-apochromatic, and apochromatic (the latter two are primarily used in research settings)
64
What is a type of achromatic objective lense?
planachromatic lens - aka - flat field lens - provides a more uniform field of focus from the center to the periphery of the microscopic image
65
Define fluorescent microscope?
a type of microscope that is capable of viewing fluorescent particles, such as an antibody labeled with specific fluorescent dye
66
Define compound microscope?
a microscope that generates an image by using a combination of lenses
67
Define Dark field microscope?
a type of microscope that is used primarily in reference laboratories, especially for the viewing of unstained specimens
68
Define phase-contrast microscope?
a type of light microscope that involves a special condenser and objective lens with a phase-shifting ring; it is used to visualize small differences in refractive index as differences in intensity or contrast.
69
Define numerical aperature.
the measure of the efficiency of a microscope objective lenses; it is proportional to the square root of the amount of light that enters the instrument
70
When viewing through a compound light microscope, an object appears?
upside down and reversed (the actual right side of an image is seen as its left side. movement of the slide by the mechanical stage is also reversed - when the stage is moved to the left, the object appears to move to the right)
71
Define resolution (in regards to a microscope).
the degree of detail visible in the images and the clarity of the image - measured in pixels, the greater the degree of detail and clarity and the more the image can be enlarged without loss of clarity
72
What are the 3 basic units for weight in the metric system?
volume, weight (mass), and length
73
What are the units assigned to the basic measurements of length weight (mass), and volume?
length - meter weight (mass) - gram volume - liter
74
Define ratio.
the amount of one thing relative to another or the number of parts relative to a whole.
75
Concentrations of dilutions are usually expressed as ____ of the original volume to the new volume.
ratios
76
What is the only ratio that is usually expressed as a decimal in vet. technology?
specific gravity
77
Define specific gravity.
a ratio expressed in decimal form that represents the weight of a substance relative to the weight of the same volume of water
78
Results from any tests involving this 1:10 dilution must then be multiplied by __ to yield the correct result for the undiluted sample.
10
79
Define dilution
the process of making a solution weaker or less concentrated
80
SI units (internationsal system of units) are designated for what 7 different types of measurements?
length, mass, time, electric current, temperature, luminosity and quantity. In a vet clinical lab those of importance are mass, temperature, and quantity
81
What are serial dilutions needed for?
when performing immunologic tests or when preparing manual calibration curves for some equipment.
82
If a standard solution of bilirubin contains 20 mg/dL and is duluted 1 : 5, 1 : 10, 1 : 20, then the concentration of each dilution would be?
4 mg/dL, 2 mg/dL, 1 mg/dL
83
Define scientific notation?
a method of handling very large or very small numbers
84
Scientific notation involves the use of exponents to represent powers of ___ for a given number.
10
85
The most used temperature measurement system in the vet. clinical laboratory is the ____ scale?
Celsius
86
Converting to kelvins is done by adding ___ to the temperature in Celcius.
273
87
Kelvins dow not involve the use of ____ rather, only the letter ___ is used.
degrees, K
88
Define quality assurance.
procedures established to ensure that clinical testing is performed in compliance with accepted standards and that the process and results are properly documented
89
What terms are frequently used to describe the quality control, and standards for any quality control program?
accuracy, precision, and reliability
90
Define accuracy.
refers to how closely results agree with the true quantitative value of the constituent (component)
91
Define precision.
the magnitude of random errors and the reproducibility of measurements
92
Define reliability.
the ability of a method to be accurate and precise
93
What are some factors that affect accuracy and precision?
test selection, sample quality, technician skill, electrical surges, and equipment maintenance
94
Define lipemia.
the presence of fatty material in plasma or serum
95
Define icteric.
abnormal yellowish discoloration of plasma or serum
96
Define hemolyzed.
red appearance of a fluid sample (i.e., serum, urine) as a result of the destruction of erythrocytes
97
Define standards.
non-biological materials used for calibrating equipment
98
To ensure reliability, control samples must be tested when?
when a new assay is set up, when a new technician runs the test, when a new lot number of reagents is used,or when an instrument is known to perform erratically
99
Other factors other than disease influence the results of laboratory tests, they are?
preanalytic, analytic, or postanalytic
100
Postanalytic factors are?
related to data entry and record keeping
101
Analytic variables affect the ______ by which the analyte is measured by the instrument.
procedure
102
Preanalytic variables are?
biologic or nonbiologic
103
Biologic variables are?
factors that are inherent to the patient, such as breed, age, and gender (non-controlled factors) or factors that can be controlled such as drawing the blood sample (ensuring the animal is properly fasted)
104
Nonbiologic variables are?
those related to clerical errors (incorrect labeling, delays in transporting samples, incorrect calculations, transcription errors, and sampling wrong patient) and sample collection and handling
105
Hazards associated with specific chemicals are described in the?
Material safety data sheets
106
The bacterial agent that causes toxoplasmosis is classified as having which biohazard level?
II
107
Regulations related to the safe shipment of potentially hazardous or infectious materials in the U.S. are mandated by the?
U.S. Dept of transportation
108
T or F Chemicals transferred into secondary containers always require special hazard labeling.
false
109
T or F The use of PPE (e.g., lead-lined x-ray gloves) is optional.
false
110
The scope and extent of worker training and the documentation of that training are contained in the?
chemical hygiene plan
111
T or F Most diagnostic samples from veterinary patients sent to outside laboratories for analysis fall into Category B.
True
112
Infectious canine hepatitis is classified as which biohazard level?
I
113
The government agency that is responsible for enforcing safety regulations in the workplace is?
OSHA
114
The use of a fume hood when handing chemicals is an example of ____ (what type of controls) that minimize workplace hazards.
Engineering controls
115
Instrument maintenance log needs to have what information?
instrument name, serial number, model number, purchase date