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Clinical Chem - Vic > Lecture notes week 1 > Flashcards

Lecture notes week 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is are the essential components of a comprehensive safety program?

A

procedures, precautions, training (use of equipment, location of safety equipment and supplies- eye wash, fire extinguisher, spill clean up kit, biohazard disposal containers - sharps, protective gloves), must be in writing and accessible, safety signs- no eating/drinking

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2
Q

What does OSHA do or require?

A

mandates specific laboratory practices
must be incorporated into the laboratory safety policy
Some states have regulations superseding federal OSHA guidelines

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3
Q

What are the OSHA guidelines?

A

comply with all relevant OSHA standards
correct any safety or health hazards
Employee education and training - chemical, health, &safety hazards
Provide PPE
Maintain accurate records of injuries and illness
Post OSHA posters, citations, injuries, and illness

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4
Q

What does OSHA poster focus on?

A

Job safety and health

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5
Q

What topics fall under hazard control?

A

engineering controls - change work environment to eliminate/minimize hazards (waste scavenging systems)
Administrative controls
procedure controls
PPE

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6
Q

How does a business control exposure to hazardous chemical in the work place?

A

implement chemical hygiene policies which includes - detail hazards in workplace, training, documentation, use of PPE, monitor exposure

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7
Q

What is the hazard communication standard?

A

employees must know exposure hazards, proper labeling on containers, material safety data sheets (MSDS) - must be accessible

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8
Q

What information is provided by the manufacturers that is needed on a MSDS?

A
  • Manufacturers name and contact info
  • hazardous ingredients
  • identifying information
  • physical/chemical characteristics (how it affects us in how we use it)
  • fire and explosion hazard data
  • reactivity data
  • health hazard data
  • precautions for safe handling and use
  • control measures
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9
Q

What is the rule about container labeling?

A

When chemicals are removed from primary containers into another container, a secondary label must be applied

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10
Q

What protocols should be in place for blood-borne pathogens?

A

human - rare in vet. practice

zoonotic - protocols to prevent exposure (PPE, proper disinfection, proper disposal)

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11
Q

What PPE is needed in vet. practice?

A

eye protection
protective clothing
shield/barrier

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12
Q

What are the biosafety levels?

A

Level 1, level II, Level III, Level IV

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13
Q

What is biosafety level 1?

A

normally does not cause disease in humans

no specific requirements for handling or disposal - vaccines

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14
Q

What is biosafety level 2?

A

potential to cause human disease if handled incorrectly

precautions vary with agent (ingestion or puncture) - salmonella

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15
Q

What is biosafety level 3?

A

potential to cause serious and potentially lethal disease
aerosol respiratory transmission
very specific requirements
Ex: Tuberculosis

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16
Q

What is biosafety level 4?

A

unlikely for most employees to have exposure
high risk of life-threatening disease
maximum containment facilities

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17
Q

What protocol is needed for shipping hazardous materials?

A

regulations by U.S. Dept. of transportation
Category A - high risk - known or likely to cause disease in humans - permanent or life threatening diseases
Category B - low risk - most samples in this category

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18
Q

What is the way to ship specimens?

A

specific labeling, leak-proof containers, surrounded by watertight material, absorbent material between layers

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19
Q

What should a laboratory design be like?

A

separate from other hospital operations
Large enough to accommodate equipment and personnel - separate counters for centrifuges and analyzers because of shaking centrifuges
Room temp. and draft control
Sink, storage, electrical supply, internet access

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20
Q

How do you know if you can trust a website?

A
  • funding and sponsor ship
  • timeline
  • information about the source
  • authors and contributors
  • references and sources
  • expert review
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21
Q

What is need for an in-house lab?

A

a variety of equipment
factors that affect equipment needs
minimum equipment - microscope, refractometer, microhematocrit centrifuge, clinical centrifuge

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22
Q

What does the refractometer measure?

A

AKA total solids meter - measures the refractive index of a solution - the function of the concentration of solids in the medium
Calibrated to zero - using distilled water
Measures specific gravity
Protein concentration of plasma

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23
Q

What are the most common pipettes?

A

transfer, graduated
others - TD pipettes - delivers large amounts,TC pipettes - holds samples securely in microliter amounts
use an appropriate size

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24
Q

What temperature should incubators be set at?

A

for microbiology 37 degrees Celcius -best for pathogenic bacteria

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25
Q

Incubators need?

A

thermometer, humidity control

In larger or specialized facilities need controls for Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen

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26
Q

What are water baths and heat blocks needed for?

A

some assays, coagulation tests, and blood banking procedures require heat
incubators may not be appropriate

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27
Q

What are the types of water baths and heat blocks?

A

simple water bath, circulating water bath, and waterless bead bath, heat block - one tube size

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28
Q

What is a aliquot mixer?

A

mixes the blood so it doesn’t clot

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29
Q

What are some types of microscopes?

A 
compound light microscope
electron microscope
fluorescent microscope
phase-contract microscope
dark field microscope
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30
Q

What does a compound light microscope do?

A

generates an image by using a combination of lenses

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31
Q

What does a compound light microscope have?

A

optical tube length - distance between objective and the eyepiece
mechanical stage
coarse and fine focus

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32
Q

What are the lens systems?

A

ocular, objective

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33
Q

Describe the ocular lens?

A

located in the eyepiece, usually 10x, binocular and monocular

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34
Q

Describe the objective lens?

A

3-4 lenses with different magnification, 4x - scanning, 10x - low power, 40x high dry (highest magnification without oil
100x - oil immersion - no slide cover

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35
Q

How do you determine magnification?

A

total magnification can be calculated - multiply ocular magnification and objective magnification

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36
Q

define biohazard.

A

biological substances that contain infectious agents that pose a threat to human health

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37
Q

Define bloodborne pathogens.

A

infectious agents that are present in the bloodstream

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38
Q

Define chemical hygiene plan.

A

a document that contains details about the specific chemical hazards present in the workplace

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39
Q

Defnine Engineering controls.

A

safety procedures focused on changing the work environment to eliminate or minimize exposure to a hazard

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40
Q

Define Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

A

informational material that contains detailed data safety information about hazardous materials found in a particular place of a business (an OSHA mandate)

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41
Q

Define OSHA.

A

Occupational safety and health administration - a U.S. government agency that mandates specific laboratory practices that must be incorporated into a laboratory’s safety policy

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42
Q

Define PPE.

A

Personal protective equipment - items such as eye equipment and other protective clothing, shields, and barriers that are designed to minimize exposure to hazards in the workplace

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43
Q

define zoonoses.

A

diseases that can be transmitted between animals and humans

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44
Q

Define centrifuge.

A

used to separate substances of different densities that are in a solution. - spins at high speeds, which pushes the heaviest components in the sample to the bottom of the tube according to their densities

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45
Q

Liquid portion present in a sample that has been centifuged is called? The solid portion is called?

A

supernatant (plasma or serum from a blood sample)

sediment

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46
Q

Two types of centrifuges usually used in vet. practices are called?

A

microhematocrit and clinical centrifuge

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47
Q

Clinical centrifuges are one of two types, depending on the style of the centrifuge head, what are they?

A

a horizontal centrifuge head - AKA swinging-arm type and an angle centrifuge head
- have specimen cups that hang vertically when the centrifuge is a rest but during centrifugation, the cups swing out to a horizontal position.

48
Q

What are 2 disadvantages of a horizontal centrifuge head?

A

at excessive speeds (greater than 300 - revolutions/min) air friction causes heat buildup, which can damage delicate specimens
- Some remixing of the sediment with the supernatant may occur when th specimen cups fall back to the vertical position

49
Q

What is the angle centrifuge head?

A

specimen tubes are inserted through drilled holes that hold the tubes at a fixed angle, usually of approx. 52 degrees

50
Q

What is a horizontal head centrifuge?

A
  • have specimen cups that hang vertically when the centrifuge is a rest but during centrifugation, the cups swing out to a horizontal position.
51
Q

What type of centrifuge holds capillary tubes?

A

a microhematocrit centrifuge

52
Q

What advantages does the angle centrifuge head have over the horizontal head centrifuge?

A

the angle centrifuge can rotate at higher speeds without excessive heat buildup

53
Q

Define refractometer?

A

AKA - total solids meter - used to measure the refractive index of a solution

54
Q

Define refraction?

A

the bending of light rays as they pass from on medium (ie air) into another medium (ie. urine) with a different optical density

55
Q

Define degree of refraction?

A

a function of the concentration of solid material in the nedium

56
Q

What is the most common use of a refractometer?

A

for determination of the specific gravity of urine or other fluids

57
Q

What type of microscope is needed in a vet. practice?

A

binocular compound light microscope

58
Q

The compound microscope consists of what two types of lenses?

A

ocular and objective lenses

59
Q

What objective lens is considered low dry?

A

10x

60
Q

What objective lens is considered high dry?

A

40x

61
Q

How do you determine the total magnification of the object you are viewing on a microscope?

A

multiply the magnification of the ocular lens and objective lens

62
Q

What is the most important components of the microscope?

A

the objective lenses

63
Q

Objective lenses are characterized as one of three types, what are they?

A

achromatic, semi-apochromatic, and apochromatic (the latter two are primarily used in research settings)

64
Q

What is a type of achromatic objective lense?

A

planachromatic lens - aka - flat field lens - provides a more uniform field of focus from the center to the periphery of the microscopic image

65
Q

Define fluorescent microscope?

A

a type of microscope that is capable of viewing fluorescent particles, such as an antibody labeled with specific fluorescent dye

66
Q

Define compound microscope?

A

a microscope that generates an image by using a combination of lenses

67
Q

Define Dark field microscope?

A

a type of microscope that is used primarily in reference laboratories, especially for the viewing of unstained specimens

68
Q

Define phase-contrast microscope?

A

a type of light microscope that involves a special condenser and objective lens with a phase-shifting ring; it is used to visualize small differences in refractive index as differences in intensity or contrast.

69
Q

Define numerical aperature.

A

the measure of the efficiency of a microscope objective lenses; it is proportional to the square root of the amount of light that enters the instrument

70
Q

When viewing through a compound light microscope, an object appears?

A

upside down and reversed (the actual right side of an image is seen as its left side. movement of the slide by the mechanical stage is also reversed - when the stage is moved to the left, the object appears to move to the right)

71
Q

Define resolution (in regards to a microscope).

A

the degree of detail visible in the images and the clarity of the image
- measured in pixels, the greater the degree of detail and clarity and the more the image can be enlarged without loss of clarity

72
Q

What are the 3 basic units for weight in the metric system?

A

volume, weight (mass), and length

73
Q

What are the units assigned to the basic measurements of length weight (mass), and volume?

A

length - meter
weight (mass) - gram
volume - liter

74
Q

Define ratio.

A

the amount of one thing relative to another or the number of parts relative to a whole.

75
Q

Concentrations of dilutions are usually expressed as ____ of the original volume to the new volume.

A

ratios

76
Q

What is the only ratio that is usually expressed as a decimal in vet. technology?

A

specific gravity

77
Q

Define specific gravity.

A

a ratio expressed in decimal form that represents the weight of a substance relative to the weight of the same volume of water

78
Q

Results from any tests involving this 1:10 dilution must then be multiplied by __ to yield the correct result for the undiluted sample.

A

10

79
Q

Define dilution

A

the process of making a solution weaker or less concentrated

80
Q

SI units (internationsal system of units) are designated for what 7 different types of measurements?

A

length, mass, time, electric current, temperature, luminosity and quantity. In a vet clinical lab those of importance are mass, temperature, and quantity

81
Q

What are serial dilutions needed for?

A

when performing immunologic tests or when preparing manual calibration curves for some equipment.

82
Q

If a standard solution of bilirubin contains 20 mg/dL and is duluted 1 : 5, 1 : 10, 1 : 20, then the concentration of each dilution would be?

A

4 mg/dL, 2 mg/dL, 1 mg/dL

83
Q

Define scientific notation?

A

a method of handling very large or very small numbers

84
Q

Scientific notation involves the use of exponents to represent powers of ___ for a given number.

A

10

85
Q

The most used temperature measurement system in the vet. clinical laboratory is the ____ scale?

A

Celsius

86
Q

Converting to kelvins is done by adding ___ to the temperature in Celcius.

A

273

87
Q

Kelvins dow not involve the use of ____ rather, only the letter ___ is used.

A

degrees, K

88
Q

Define quality assurance.

A

procedures established to ensure that clinical testing is performed in compliance with accepted standards and that the process and results are properly documented

89
Q

What terms are frequently used to describe the quality control, and standards for any quality control program?

A

accuracy, precision, and reliability

90
Q

Define accuracy.

A

refers to how closely results agree with the true quantitative value of the constituent (component)

91
Q

Define precision.

A

the magnitude of random errors and the reproducibility of measurements

92
Q

Define reliability.

A

the ability of a method to be accurate and precise

93
Q

What are some factors that affect accuracy and precision?

A

test selection, sample quality, technician skill, electrical surges, and equipment maintenance

94
Q

Define lipemia.

A

the presence of fatty material in plasma or serum

95
Q

Define icteric.

A

abnormal yellowish discoloration of plasma or serum

96
Q

Define hemolyzed.

A

red appearance of a fluid sample (i.e., serum, urine) as a result of the destruction of erythrocytes

97
Q

Define standards.

A

non-biological materials used for calibrating equipment

98
Q

To ensure reliability, control samples must be tested when?

A

when a new assay is set up, when a new technician runs the test, when a new lot number of reagents is used,or when an instrument is known to perform erratically

99
Q

Other factors other than disease influence the results of laboratory tests, they are?

A

preanalytic, analytic, or postanalytic

100
Q

Postanalytic factors are?

A

related to data entry and record keeping

101
Q

Analytic variables affect the ______ by which the analyte is measured by the instrument.

A

procedure

102
Q

Preanalytic variables are?

A

biologic or nonbiologic

103
Q

Biologic variables are?

A

factors that are inherent to the patient, such as breed, age, and gender (non-controlled factors)
or factors that can be controlled such as drawing the blood sample (ensuring the animal is properly fasted)

104
Q

Nonbiologic variables are?

A

those related to clerical errors (incorrect labeling, delays in transporting samples, incorrect calculations, transcription errors, and sampling wrong patient) and sample collection and handling

105
Q

Hazards associated with specific chemicals are described in the?

A

Material safety data sheets

106
Q

The bacterial agent that causes toxoplasmosis is classified as having which biohazard level?

A

II

107
Q

Regulations related to the safe shipment of potentially hazardous or infectious materials in the U.S. are mandated by the?

A

U.S. Dept of transportation

108
Q

T or F Chemicals transferred into secondary containers always require special hazard labeling.

A

false

109
Q

T or F The use of PPE (e.g., lead-lined x-ray gloves) is optional.

A

false

110
Q

The scope and extent of worker training and the documentation of that training are contained in the?

A

chemical hygiene plan

111
Q

T or F Most diagnostic samples from veterinary patients sent to outside laboratories for analysis fall into Category B.

A

True

112
Q

Infectious canine hepatitis is classified as which biohazard level?

A

I

113
Q

The government agency that is responsible for enforcing safety regulations in the workplace is?

A

OSHA

114
Q

The use of a fume hood when handing chemicals is an example of ____ (what type of controls) that minimize workplace hazards.

A

Engineering controls

115
Q

Instrument maintenance log needs to have what information?

A

instrument name, serial number, model number, purchase date

Clinical Chem - Vic (29 decks)

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