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Clinical Chem - Vic > Ch 12 McCurnins workbook > Flashcards

Ch 12 McCurnins workbook Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the test that gives information about the numbers and types of circulating cells?

A

A CBC

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2
Q

What is the term used to identify stacking of red blood cells?

A

Rouleaux

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3
Q

What term means vacuolization, Dohle bodies, and cytoplasmic basophilia in neutrophilos?

A

toxic changes

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4
Q

What term means nonnucleated fragments of cytoplasm released from megakaryocytes?

A

platelets

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5
Q

A nucleated red blood cell?

A

metarubricyte

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6
Q

What term means falsely decreased in patients with red blood cell agglutination?

A

hematocrit

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7
Q

What term means percentage of RBCs in a specific volume of blood?

A

packed cell volume

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8
Q

What is large in some poodles, very small in goats, and oval in camels?

A

Red blood cell

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9
Q

What is the term variation in cell size?

A

anisocytosis

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10
Q

What test evaluates the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?

A

aptt

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11
Q

The term “leukopenia” means decreased numbers of these?

A

white blood cells

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12
Q

The most abundant granulocyte in rabbits?

A

heterophil

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13
Q

In most species, this is approximately equal to the PCV divided by 3?

A

hemoglobin

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14
Q

What becomes a macrophage in the tissues?

A

monocyte

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15
Q

What is used to evaluate exfoliated tissue cells?

A

cytology

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16
Q

MCV, MCHC, and MCH mean?

A

red blood cell indices

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17
Q

What change in RBC distribution occurs in patients with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IHA)?

A

agglutination

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18
Q

What is normally very few in circulation, but may be the most abundant leukocyte in some species of turtles?

A

basophil

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19
Q

What is the predominant circulating white blood cell in cattle, sheep, and goats?

A

lymphocyte

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20
Q

What is evaluated by the PT and ACT?

Prothrombin time and activated clotting time

A

hemostasis

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21
Q

May contain Dohle bodies?

A

neutrophil

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22
Q

What is counted to differentiate regenerative from nonregenerative anemia?

A

reticulocytes

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23
Q

A red blood cell that has lost a portion of its membrane?

A

spherocyte

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24
Q

In cats, what cell contains numerous small, rod-shaped granules?

A

eosinophil

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25
Q

An increased number of circulating bands are?

A

left shift

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26
Q

An immature neutrophil?

A

band

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27
Q

MCV?

A

(Mean Cell Volume) the average size of the RBC

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28
Q

MCHC?

A

(Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) the average amount of hemoglobin in a specific volume of blood

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29
Q

FDP?

A

(Fibrinogen Degradation Product) measure of fibrinolysis

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30
Q

PT?

A

evaluates the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade

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31
Q

MCH?

A

the average amount of hemoglobin in each RBC

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32
Q

RDW?

A

an indicator of variation in red cell size

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33
Q

HCT?

A

a measure of red blood cell mass

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34
Q

APTT?

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time - itevaluates the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation-ratio cascade

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35
Q

Neutrophils?

A

the predominant circulating white blood cell in dogs, cats and horses

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36
Q

Band neutrophils?

A

also called “stabs”

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37
Q

Hypersegmented nuclei?

A

Caused by high circulating corticosteroids

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38
Q

Pelger-Huet anomaly?

A

an incidental finding in dogs

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39
Q

Eosinophils?

A

contain numerous, large, brightly staining, granules in horses

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40
Q

Basophils?

A

have a twisted or irregular nucleus in dogs

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41
Q

lymphocytes?

A

may be intermediate to large size in cows

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42
Q

reactive lymphocytes?

A

have more basophilic cytoplasm and may have a perinuclear clear area

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43
Q

neoplastic lymphocytes?

A

these cells have prominent nucleoi

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44
Q

Monocytes?

A

have abundant gray-blue cytoplasm, possibly with clear vacuoles

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45
Q

Mast cells?

A

contain numerous purple granules and a round nucleus

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46
Q

This test requires use of a special tube that contains diatomaceous earth?

A

activated clotting time (ACT)

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47
Q

Used to evaluate platelet morphology?

A

Blood smear

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48
Q

Results in secondary hemostatis?

A

coagulation cascade

49
Q

products of fibrin proteolysis that are considered to be reflective of active degradation of clots?

A

D-dimers

50
Q

d-Dimer and fibrin degradation product tests can be used to evaluate?

A

tertiary hemostatis

51
Q

What is proteolysis?

A

the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides or amino acids.

52
Q

a device used in the measurement of fibrinogen?

A

refractometer

53
Q

form when fibrin undergoes proteolysis by plasmin?

A

fibrin degradation products (FDP)

54
Q

breakdown of the protein product of the coagulation cascade?

A

fibrinolysis

55
Q

a device that can be used to count platlets?

A

hemocytometer

56
Q

causes proteolysis of fibrin?

A

plasmin

57
Q

evaluates the extrinsic and common pathways

A

prothrombin time (PT)

58
Q

What would red or pink indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?

A

internal hemorrage

59
Q

What would white or tan indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?

A

lipid or high number of cells

60
Q

What would brown indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?

A

previous hemorrhage or leakage of bowel contents

61
Q

What would green indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?

A

ruptured bile duct

62
Q

What would yellow indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?

A

hemolysis and icterus, previous hemorrhage, or ruptured bladder

63
Q

Citrate is the anticoagulant contained in a?

A

blue top tube

64
Q

Which one of the following tests does not indicate the oxygen carrying capacity of blood?

  1. RBC count
  2. HCT -hematocrit test
  3. PDW - platelet distribution width
  4. PCV - packed cell volume
A
  1. PDW - platelet distribution width
65
Q

Automated hematoloy analyzers determine the HCT by?

A

multiplying the RBC count by the MCV (Mean corpuscular volume) - RBCs size

66
Q

MCV is often increased in patients with?

A

blood loss

67
Q

Red blood cells in an animal with a decreased MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) are called?

A

Hypochromic

68
Q

Plasma is often clear and light yellow in?

A

cows and horses

69
Q

Rouleaux formation is most common in?

A

horses and cats

70
Q

Agglutination refers to irregular, variable-sized clumps of RBCs that occur most commonly in animals with?

A

immune-mediated hemolytic anemia

71
Q

In which species do platelets not tend to stain as well as in other species on a blood smear?

A

Horses

72
Q

Macroplatelets may be normal in ?

A

Cavalier King Charles spaniels

73
Q

The central pallor in RBCs is most prominent in the normal RBCs of?

A

Dogs

74
Q

Anisocytosis tends to be greatest in___ and least in ____.

A

cows

dogs

75
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

red blood cells are of unequal size

76
Q

Animals with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia often have ___ on the blood smear?

A

spherocytes

77
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies are often increased in patients with?

A

regenerative anemia

78
Q

A reticulocyte count is used to determine if?

A

an anemia is regenerative or nonregenerative

79
Q

Segmented neutrophils have a segmented nucleus with a average of?

A

3 to 5 lobes

80
Q

This in-house coagulation test may be used to detect abnormal platelet function?

A

bleeding time

81
Q

This value is calculated as the TP of an unheated plasma sample minus the TP of a heated sample?

A

Fibrinogen

82
Q

Cytologic examination of tissue masses enables evauation of?

A

morphology of isolated cells

83
Q

When preparing thoracic or abdominal effusion samples for cytologic examination, direct smears are often made, but some samples require concentration of the cells. Which of the following fluids is most likely to require cell concentration?

A

clear fluid

84
Q

EDTA prevents blood clotting by binding____.

A

calcium

85
Q

Serum protein is usually a little lower than plasma protein, because there is no _____ in it.

A

fibrinogen

86
Q

The presence of increased numbers of circulating nucleated red blood cells may occur with a markedly regenerative anemia. When it occurs in the absence of anemia and is accompanied by basophilic stippling, it may indicate?

A

lead poisoning

87
Q

A blood smear may be too thick if, when preparing the smear, the drop of blood is too ___, the spreader slide is pushed too ____, or if the angle of the spreader slide is too ___.

A

large
quickly
acute - short

88
Q

The 3 areas of the blood smear, in order from the nearest to the drop to furthest away are the ___, the ___ ___, and the ____ ____.

A

body
counting area
feathered edge

89
Q

Regarding the shape of nuclei of WBC: The nucleus of a neutrophil is segmented with 3 to 5 lobes, whereas the nucleus of a monocyte is round, ____, ____, or ____ in shape, and the nucleus of a lymphocyte is generally ____ in shape.

A

oval, indented, or variable

round

90
Q

The RBCs of birds and reptiles differ from those of mammals in that they contain a ____ and are ___ in shape.

A

nucleus

oval

91
Q

Automatic cell counters may erroneously count nRBCs as WBCs. This error will cause the WBC count to be fasely ____. A WBC count that includes nRBCs should be referred to as a total ____ cell count.

A

elevated

nucleated

92
Q

The differential WBC count is performed by identifying and counting a minimun of ___ cells consequently encountered in the monolayer.

A

100

93
Q

A state in which the number of bands exceeds the number of segmented neutrophils is referred to as a _____ left shift.

A

degenerative

94
Q

Primary hemostasis refers to formation of the ____ ___ ___.

A

initial platelet plug

95
Q

Blood for a platelet count should be drawn in a tube containing _____ anticoagulant.

A

EDTA

96
Q

To determine viscosity of joint fluid, place a wooden applicator stick in the fluid and slowly withdraw it. If viscosity is normal a strand ___ to ___ cm long should form.

A

2 to 3

97
Q

T or F? Automated hematology analyzers designed for human samples will not generate accurate results for a sample from a cat because the cells in these two species are of different sizes.

A

True

98
Q

T or F? A PCV is determined by a mathematical calculation.

A

False
A PCV is determined by centrifugation of a whole blood sample and direct measurement of the height of the RBC column in relationship to the height of the whole sample.

99
Q

T or F? A hematology analyzer utilizing impedance methodology uses an electrical current to count blood cells and determine their size.

A

True

100
Q

T or F? WBCs are heavier than both RBCs and blood plasma, and thus are found on the bottom of a microhematocrit tube following centrifugation.

A

False

WBCs are lighter than RBCs but heavier than plasma, and thus are found between these two layers in the buffy coat.

101
Q

T or F? Changes in the hemoglobin concentration are generally proportional to changes in the WBC count.

A

False
Changes in the hemoglobin concentration are generally proportional to changes in the PCV or HCT because all three are related to RBC mass.

102
Q

T or F? An increased red cell distribution width (RDW) indicates anisocytosis.

A

True

103
Q

T or F? Platelet clumps occur most commonly in dogs.

A

False

in cats

104
Q

T or F? Ideally, a blood smear should be stained within 24 hours.

A

False

within several hours

105
Q

T or F? The substage condenser of the microscope should be in a relatively high position when evaluating a blood smear or cytology prep.

A

True

106
Q

T or F? Target cells when noted on a blood smear, are usually seen in animals with hemangiosarcoma or heartworm disease.

A

False

Target cells, when noted on a blood smear, are usually of little clinical relevance.

107
Q

T or F? Echinocytes are most often seen in animals with lymphoma (cancer of the lymph nodes).

A

False

Echinocytes are most often an artifact of slow drying of the smear.

108
Q

T or F? Normal RBCs often look like spherocytes near the feathered edge.

A

True

109
Q

T or F? The presence of any metarubricytes on a blood smear is abnormal.

A

False

Occasional metarubricytes may be seen on a blood smear from health animals

110
Q

T or F? In normal animals, up to 10% of the RBCs are polychromatophils.

A

False

In normal animals, up to 10% of the RBCs are polychromatophils, make up less than 1% of RBCs.

111
Q

T or F? The blood parasite anaplasma marginale is easily mistaken for stain precipitate.

A

False

Hemotropic mycoplasma is easily mistaken for stain precipitate

112
Q

T or F? A metamyelocyte is an immature neutrophil sometimes released into the circulation in the face of intense inflammatory reactions.

A

True

113
Q

T or F? A neutrophil has a higher nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio than a lymphocyte.

A

False

A lymphocyte has a higher nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio than a neutrophil.

114
Q

T or F? When performing a differential cell count, broken cells should not be counted.

A

True

115
Q

T or F? Plasma samples for APTT and PT testing should be kept frozen until arrival at the reference lab.

A

True

116
Q

T or F? The mucin clot test is used to evalute blood coagulation?

A

False

The mucin clot test is used to evaluate joint fluid.

117
Q

What is prothrombin time (PT)?

A

A blood test that measures how long it takes blood to clot

118
Q

What is activated clotting time (ACT)?

A

the time it takes for blood to clot after it has been added to a ACT tube

Clinical Chem - Vic (29 decks)

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