Ch 12 McCurnins workbook Flashcards
1
Q
What is the test that gives information about the numbers and types of circulating cells?
A
A CBC
2
Q
What is the term used to identify stacking of red blood cells?
A
Rouleaux
3
Q
What term means vacuolization, Dohle bodies, and cytoplasmic basophilia in neutrophilos?
A
toxic changes
4
Q
What term means nonnucleated fragments of cytoplasm released from megakaryocytes?
A
platelets
5
Q
A nucleated red blood cell?
A
metarubricyte
6
Q
What term means falsely decreased in patients with red blood cell agglutination?
A
hematocrit
7
Q
What term means percentage of RBCs in a specific volume of blood?
A
packed cell volume
8
Q
What is large in some poodles, very small in goats, and oval in camels?
A
Red blood cell
9
Q
What is the term variation in cell size?
A
anisocytosis
10
Q
What test evaluates the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?
A
aptt
11
Q
The term “leukopenia” means decreased numbers of these?
A
white blood cells
12
Q
The most abundant granulocyte in rabbits?
A
heterophil
13
Q
In most species, this is approximately equal to the PCV divided by 3?
A
hemoglobin
14
Q
What becomes a macrophage in the tissues?
A
monocyte
15
Q
What is used to evaluate exfoliated tissue cells?
A
cytology
16
Q
MCV, MCHC, and MCH mean?
A
red blood cell indices
17
Q
What change in RBC distribution occurs in patients with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IHA)?
A
agglutination
18
Q
What is normally very few in circulation, but may be the most abundant leukocyte in some species of turtles?
A
basophil
19
Q
What is the predominant circulating white blood cell in cattle, sheep, and goats?
A
lymphocyte
20
Q
What is evaluated by the PT and ACT?
Prothrombin time and activated clotting time
A
hemostasis
21
Q
May contain Dohle bodies?
A
neutrophil
22
Q
What is counted to differentiate regenerative from nonregenerative anemia?
A
reticulocytes
23
Q
A red blood cell that has lost a portion of its membrane?
A
spherocyte
24
Q
In cats, what cell contains numerous small, rod-shaped granules?
A
eosinophil
25
An increased number of circulating bands are?
left shift
26
An immature neutrophil?
band
27
MCV?
(Mean Cell Volume) the average size of the RBC
28
MCHC?
(Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) the average amount of hemoglobin in a specific volume of blood
29
FDP?
(Fibrinogen Degradation Product) measure of fibrinolysis
30
PT?
evaluates the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade
31
MCH?
the average amount of hemoglobin in each RBC
32
RDW?
an indicator of variation in red cell size
33
HCT?
a measure of red blood cell mass
34
APTT?
Activated partial thromboplastin time - itevaluates the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation-ratio cascade
35
Neutrophils?
the predominant circulating white blood cell in dogs, cats and horses
36
Band neutrophils?
also called "stabs"
37
Hypersegmented nuclei?
Caused by high circulating corticosteroids
38
Pelger-Huet anomaly?
an incidental finding in dogs
39
Eosinophils?
contain numerous, large, brightly staining, granules in horses
40
Basophils?
have a twisted or irregular nucleus in dogs
41
lymphocytes?
may be intermediate to large size in cows
42
reactive lymphocytes?
have more basophilic cytoplasm and may have a perinuclear clear area
43
neoplastic lymphocytes?
these cells have prominent nucleoi
44
Monocytes?
have abundant gray-blue cytoplasm, possibly with clear vacuoles
45
Mast cells?
contain numerous purple granules and a round nucleus
46
This test requires use of a special tube that contains diatomaceous earth?
activated clotting time (ACT)
47
Used to evaluate platelet morphology?
Blood smear
48
Results in secondary hemostatis?
coagulation cascade
49
products of fibrin proteolysis that are considered to be reflective of active degradation of clots?
D-dimers
50
d-Dimer and fibrin degradation product tests can be used to evaluate?
tertiary hemostatis
51
What is proteolysis?
the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides or amino acids.
52
a device used in the measurement of fibrinogen?
refractometer
53
form when fibrin undergoes proteolysis by plasmin?
fibrin degradation products (FDP)
54
breakdown of the protein product of the coagulation cascade?
fibrinolysis
55
a device that can be used to count platlets?
hemocytometer
56
causes proteolysis of fibrin?
plasmin
57
evaluates the extrinsic and common pathways
prothrombin time (PT)
58
What would red or pink indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?
internal hemorrage
59
What would white or tan indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?
lipid or high number of cells
60
What would brown indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?
previous hemorrhage or leakage of bowel contents
61
What would green indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?
ruptured bile duct
62
What would yellow indicate in abnormal body cavity fluids?
hemolysis and icterus, previous hemorrhage, or ruptured bladder
63
Citrate is the anticoagulant contained in a?
blue top tube
64
Which one of the following tests does not indicate the oxygen carrying capacity of blood?
1. RBC count
2. HCT -hematocrit test
3. PDW - platelet distribution width
4. PCV - packed cell volume
3. PDW - platelet distribution width
65
Automated hematoloy analyzers determine the HCT by?
multiplying the RBC count by the MCV (Mean corpuscular volume) - RBCs size
66
MCV is often increased in patients with?
blood loss
67
Red blood cells in an animal with a decreased MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) are called?
Hypochromic
68
Plasma is often clear and light yellow in?
cows and horses
69
Rouleaux formation is most common in?
horses and cats
70
Agglutination refers to irregular, variable-sized clumps of RBCs that occur most commonly in animals with?
immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
71
In which species do platelets not tend to stain as well as in other species on a blood smear?
Horses
72
Macroplatelets may be normal in ?
Cavalier King Charles spaniels
73
The central pallor in RBCs is most prominent in the normal RBCs of?
Dogs
74
Anisocytosis tends to be greatest in___ and least in ____.
cows
| dogs
75
What is anisocytosis?
red blood cells are of unequal size
76
Animals with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia often have ___ on the blood smear?
spherocytes
77
Howell-Jolly bodies are often increased in patients with?
regenerative anemia
78
A reticulocyte count is used to determine if?
an anemia is regenerative or nonregenerative
79
Segmented neutrophils have a segmented nucleus with a average of?
3 to 5 lobes
80
This in-house coagulation test may be used to detect abnormal platelet function?
bleeding time
81
This value is calculated as the TP of an unheated plasma sample minus the TP of a heated sample?
Fibrinogen
82
Cytologic examination of tissue masses enables evauation of?
morphology of isolated cells
83
When preparing thoracic or abdominal effusion samples for cytologic examination, direct smears are often made, but some samples require concentration of the cells. Which of the following fluids is most likely to require cell concentration?
clear fluid
84
EDTA prevents blood clotting by binding____.
calcium
85
Serum protein is usually a little lower than plasma protein, because there is no _____ in it.
fibrinogen
86
The presence of increased numbers of circulating nucleated red blood cells may occur with a markedly regenerative anemia. When it occurs in the absence of anemia and is accompanied by basophilic stippling, it may indicate?
lead poisoning
87
A blood smear may be too thick if, when preparing the smear, the drop of blood is too ___, the spreader slide is pushed too ____, or if the angle of the spreader slide is too ___.
large
quickly
acute - short
88
The 3 areas of the blood smear, in order from the nearest to the drop to furthest away are the ___, the ___ ___, and the ____ ____.
body
counting area
feathered edge
89
Regarding the shape of nuclei of WBC: The nucleus of a neutrophil is segmented with 3 to 5 lobes, whereas the nucleus of a monocyte is round, ____, ____, or ____ in shape, and the nucleus of a lymphocyte is generally ____ in shape.
oval, indented, or variable
| round
90
The RBCs of birds and reptiles differ from those of mammals in that they contain a ____ and are ___ in shape.
nucleus
| oval
91
Automatic cell counters may erroneously count nRBCs as WBCs. This error will cause the WBC count to be fasely ____. A WBC count that includes nRBCs should be referred to as a total ____ cell count.
elevated
| nucleated
92
The differential WBC count is performed by identifying and counting a minimun of ___ cells consequently encountered in the monolayer.
100
93
A state in which the number of bands exceeds the number of segmented neutrophils is referred to as a _____ left shift.
degenerative
94
Primary hemostasis refers to formation of the ____ ___ ___.
initial platelet plug
95
Blood for a platelet count should be drawn in a tube containing _____ anticoagulant.
EDTA
96
To determine viscosity of joint fluid, place a wooden applicator stick in the fluid and slowly withdraw it. If viscosity is normal a strand ___ to ___ cm long should form.
2 to 3
97
T or F? Automated hematology analyzers designed for human samples will not generate accurate results for a sample from a cat because the cells in these two species are of different sizes.
True
98
T or F? A PCV is determined by a mathematical calculation.
False
A PCV is determined by centrifugation of a whole blood sample and direct measurement of the height of the RBC column in relationship to the height of the whole sample.
99
T or F? A hematology analyzer utilizing impedance methodology uses an electrical current to count blood cells and determine their size.
True
100
T or F? WBCs are heavier than both RBCs and blood plasma, and thus are found on the bottom of a microhematocrit tube following centrifugation.
False
| WBCs are lighter than RBCs but heavier than plasma, and thus are found between these two layers in the buffy coat.
101
T or F? Changes in the hemoglobin concentration are generally proportional to changes in the WBC count.
False
Changes in the hemoglobin concentration are generally proportional to changes in the PCV or HCT because all three are related to RBC mass.
102
T or F? An increased red cell distribution width (RDW) indicates anisocytosis.
True
103
T or F? Platelet clumps occur most commonly in dogs.
False
| in cats
104
T or F? Ideally, a blood smear should be stained within 24 hours.
False
| within several hours
105
T or F? The substage condenser of the microscope should be in a relatively high position when evaluating a blood smear or cytology prep.
True
106
T or F? Target cells when noted on a blood smear, are usually seen in animals with hemangiosarcoma or heartworm disease.
False
| Target cells, when noted on a blood smear, are usually of little clinical relevance.
107
T or F? Echinocytes are most often seen in animals with lymphoma (cancer of the lymph nodes).
False
| Echinocytes are most often an artifact of slow drying of the smear.
108
T or F? Normal RBCs often look like spherocytes near the feathered edge.
True
109
T or F? The presence of any metarubricytes on a blood smear is abnormal.
False
| Occasional metarubricytes may be seen on a blood smear from health animals
110
T or F? In normal animals, up to 10% of the RBCs are polychromatophils.
False
| In normal animals, up to 10% of the RBCs are polychromatophils, make up less than 1% of RBCs.
111
T or F? The blood parasite anaplasma marginale is easily mistaken for stain precipitate.
False
| Hemotropic mycoplasma is easily mistaken for stain precipitate
112
T or F? A metamyelocyte is an immature neutrophil sometimes released into the circulation in the face of intense inflammatory reactions.
True
113
T or F? A neutrophil has a higher nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio than a lymphocyte.
False
| A lymphocyte has a higher nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio than a neutrophil.
114
T or F? When performing a differential cell count, broken cells should not be counted.
True
115
T or F? Plasma samples for APTT and PT testing should be kept frozen until arrival at the reference lab.
True
116
T or F? The mucin clot test is used to evalute blood coagulation?
False
| The mucin clot test is used to evaluate joint fluid.
117
What is prothrombin time (PT)?
A blood test that measures how long it takes blood to clot
118
What is activated clotting time (ACT)?
the time it takes for blood to clot after it has been added to a ACT tube
