Lecture 33: Ectoparasites Flashcards

1
Q

What transmits D. Immitis

A

Mosquitoes

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2
Q

Stable flies and horn flies cause __% production losses in cattle

A

20%

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3
Q

T or F: lice is highly host specific

A

True

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4
Q

The entire lifecycle for lice is spent on ___

A

The host

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5
Q

Ctenocephalides felis (fleas) infests __ and ___

A

Dogs and cats

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6
Q

Ctenocephalides felis is a vector for ___, ___ and ___

A

D. Caninum (zoonotic tapeworm), D. Recondition, and Bartonella henselae

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7
Q

How do ticks cause disease

A

Exsanguination/ anemia, infection secondary to bite wounds, pruritis, paralysis, toxicosis, disease transmission

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8
Q

Boophilus annulatus tick is a vector for ___ and ___causing ___ which is a reportable disease

A

Anaplasma and Bayesian bigemina, causing Texas cattle fever

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9
Q

What non-burrowing mite is reportable

A

Psoroptes spp

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10
Q

What non-burrowing mite is called walking dandruff and is zoonotic

A

Cheyletiella

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11
Q

What 4 things should a good ectoparasiticide do

A
  1. Effective adulticide and repellant
  2. Persist at an effective dose on the skin for extended period (1-3 months)
  3. Be stable in sunlight, shampoo, water
  4. Cause minimal contamination in the local environment (reduce risk of resistance)
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12
Q

Individual ectroparasiticide agents are __ molecular weight

A

Large

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13
Q

What large molecular weight of ectoparasiticides allows for what 4 things to occur

A
  1. Slow dermal absoprtion
  2. Low systemic bioavailability
  3. Large volumes of distribution
  4. Long tissue and plasma half lives
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14
Q

What are some advantages of topical ectoparasiticides

A

Avoid degradation in the GI tract, avoid first pass metabolism in the liver

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15
Q

What are some disadvantages of topical ectoparasiticides

A

Risk of overdose (licking collar or skin), prolonged withdrawal times in food animals

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16
Q

What are the routes of absoprtion for trans-epidermal absoprtion

A
  1. Transceullar- active transport
  2. Intercellular
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17
Q

What are the routes of absoprtion for trans follicular absoprtion

A
  1. Trans-epidermal
  2. Sweat pore- accumulation of sebaceous glands
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18
Q

What species has the thickest and thinnest epidermal skin

A

Thickest: pigs
Thinnest: cats

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19
Q

What are some indications for pyrethrins/pyrethroids

A
  1. Fleas and tickets
  2. 3rd generation chemicals have some mite and lice coverage
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20
Q

What 3rd generation pyrethrins/pyrethroids tx fleas, ticks, mites and lice

A

Permethrin

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21
Q

As you go from 1st generation to 4th generation pyrethrins/ pyrethroids how does stability and potency change

A

Increase

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22
Q

What is the PD for pyrethrins/pyrethroids

A

Activates Na+ channels in nerves—> repetitive depolarizations leading to parasite death

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23
Q

2nd generation pyrethrins pyrethroids are absolutely toxic to ___ because requires ___

A

Cats, requires glucoronidation metabolism

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24
Q

What are some signs of toxicity to pyrethrins/ pyrethroids

A

SLUDGE, miosis, tremors, convulsions, dyspnea

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25
Q

What are 2 examples of drugs that are synergistic with pyrethrins

A
  1. Piperonyl butoxide
  2. N-octal bicycloheptene dicarboximide
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26
Q

What is the PD of piperonyl butoxide and N-octyl bicycloheptene dicarboximide

A

Blocks cytochrome p450, inhibits oxidative and hydrolytic metabolism, prevents enzymatic breakdown of pyrethrins

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27
Q

What are some adverse effects with piperonyl butoxide

A

Prevents breakdown of pyrethrins in cats and increases toxicity

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28
Q

Organophosphate are used for what

A

Pesticide control, anti-nematode agents, flea collars

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29
Q

What is tetrachlorvinphos

A

Organophosphate collar to protect against fleas, ticks

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30
Q

What is the PD of organophosphates

A

Long lasting, irreversible inhibitors of AChE

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31
Q

What are some signs of AChE inhibitor toxicity

A

SLUDGE, miosis and muscle spasms, bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, hypotension, seizures, respiratory paralysis, death

32
Q

What cattle breeds are sensitive to organophosphates

A

Brahman, charolais, and simmental

33
Q

What dogs are sensitive to organophosphates

A

Greyhounds and whippets

34
Q

What broad species is sensitive to organophosphates

A

Cats

35
Q

What is pralidoximine chloride used for

A

Reversible agent for AChE toxicity caused by organophosphotases

36
Q

What is the PD for pralidoxime chloride

A

PAM binds organophosphate so it can’t bind to AChE receptor

37
Q

Besides pralidoximine chloride what drug is another potential tx for organophosphate toxicity/ AChE inhibitor toxicity

A

Tarpon

38
Q

T or F: pralidoxime chloride crosses BBB

A

False

39
Q

How is pralidoximine metabolized

A

Liver

40
Q

How is pralidoxime chloride excreted

A

Urine

41
Q

Do not use pralidoxime chloride unless indicated because also inhibits ___ and can cause signs similar to ___

A

AChE, organophosphate toxicity

42
Q

What is tx for organophosphate/ carbamate poisoning

A
  1. Administer atropine until pupils dilate and repeat q3-6hrs
  2. Administer pralidoxime chloride if less than 304hrs since exposure and repeat q8hrs
    3.intubate and ventilation
  3. Remove source of toxicity- bathe or sx
43
Q

T or F: you can treat carbamate toxicity with pralidoxime chloride

A

False, they have reversible binding and don;t have reactive phosphate so won’t work

44
Q

What is imidacloprid and nitenpyram indicated for

A

Fleas, especially resistant to fipronil

45
Q

Imidacloprid kills __ and __ within 1hr

A

Adults and larvae fleas

46
Q

Nitenpyram kills __ within 30 minutes

A

Adult fleas

47
Q

What is the fastest anti-flea drug

A

Nitenpyram

48
Q

Dog presents to your clinic with severe itching, you suspect fleas so before starting exam you give __ and after 30 minutes dogs stops itching which means ___

A

Nitenpyram, dog had fleas

49
Q

What is the PD for imidacloprid and nitenpyram

A

Agonist of the insects postsynpatic AChR NM receptor—> rigid paralysis/ tetanus

50
Q

What is the t 1/2 if imidacloprid and nitenpyram in dogs and cats

A

Dogs: 2.8hrs
Cats: 7.7hrs

51
Q

What are some adverse effects of imidacloprid

A

Nicotine and hepatic effects if ingested- don’t give orally

52
Q

What is fipronil indicated for

A

fleas, ticks, biting lice, ear parasites and Trombicula automnalis

53
Q

What is the PD of fipronil

A

Non-competitive inhibitor of glutamate activated chloride channels -> rigid paralysis and CNS disruption

54
Q

What is fluralaner and afoxolaner indicated for

A

Treatment and prevention of fleas and some ticks in dogs

55
Q

What is the PD of Fluralaner

A

Inhibit insect GABA receptors and also glutamate activate chloride channels—> rigid paralysis and CNS disruption

56
Q

What is Pd of afoxolaner

A

Inhibit insect GABA receptor

57
Q

What are some adverse effects of fluralaner and afoxolaner

A

Vomiting, inappetence, diarrhea, hypersalivation

58
Q

What is amitraz indicated for

A
  1. Generalized demodex in dogs and demodicosis in cats
  2. Fleas and ticks on dogs
  3. Ticks, mites and lice on swine and cattle
59
Q

Taktic, generic form of amitraz can kill what species

A

Horses and dogs

60
Q

What I the PD of amitraz

A

MAO inhibitor that acts prefentially in mites over mammals, causes toxic catecholamin(NE, epi) levels in mites

61
Q

What are some adverse effects of amitraz

A

Alpha2 adrenergic agonist in mammals —> sedation, bradycardia, vomiting, diarrhea, ataxia

62
Q

__ administration is most common cause of toxicity, for example ingesting ___

A

PO, impregnated collar

63
Q

What breeds/species are specifically suspceptible to amitraz toxicity

A

Toy breeds, dogs < 4months, cats, and rabbits

64
Q

What is the reversal agent for amitraz

A

Atipamezole

65
Q

What is juvenile hormone analog indicated for

A
  1. Fleas in dogs and cats
66
Q

What is the PD of junvenile hormone analogs

A

Maintains/ increases hormone levels so fleas don’t mature

67
Q

Pyriproxygen (JHA) concentrates in flea __ and creates ___

A

Ovaries, non-viable eggs

68
Q

Pyriproxygen is more stable to UV light than

A

Methoprene

69
Q

What are some adverse effects of juvenile hormone analogs

A

Very safe by themselves but when used in combination products that have permethroids can be toxic to cats

70
Q

What is sentinel used for

A

Fleas in dogs and cats

71
Q

What is the PD of sentinel

A

Drug consumed by fleas in blood, flea larvae feeding on adult flea feces also ingest drug and it inhibits the production of chitin exoskeleton during pupal stage of development (insect development inhibitors)

72
Q

What are some adverse effects of sentinel (insect development inhibitors)

A

Injection site reactions, very severe in dogs

73
Q

What are some examples of insect repellents

A
  1. Butoxypolypropylene
  2. Di-n-propyl isocinchomeronate
  3. Diethyl-m-tulamide (DEET)
74
Q

What are the effects of insect repellents

A

Reduce insects landing on/ entering the hair coat of animals interfere with ectoparasiticides feeding, ectoparasite disorientation

75
Q

What are some adverse effects of DEET (repellent)

A

Increase dermal absorption and increase adverse effects of primary ectoparasiticides in cats