Lecture 32

Question 1

What causes the destruction of tooth enamel during the process of caries?

Answer 1

Lactic acid

Question 2

What is lactic acid an end product of?

Answer 2

Sucrose (table sugar)

Question 3

Is lactic acid bacterially produced?

Answer 3

Yes

Question 4

What is the principal bacterium involved in tooth decay?

Answer 4

Streptococcus mutans

Question 5

Is streptococcus mutans a member of the resident flora of the mouth?

Answer 5

Yes

Question 6

What structures are considered as part of the periodontum?

Answer 6

• tooth root
• bone socket that holds the tooth
• the fibre that attach the tooth to the bone
• the gingiva or gums

Question 7

True or false. Periodontal disease results in tooth loss?

Answer 7

True

Question 8

Describe the process of periodontal disease.

Answer 8

• The accumulation of plaque at the tooth-gum interface.
• The plaque extends into the gums between the teeth
• Calsium is deposited in the plaque and calcifies
• This causes gingivitis

Question 9

What do the osteoblast do in relation to the bone?

Answer 9

They deposit bone

Question 10

What do the osteoclast do in relation to the bone?

Answer 10

They cause bone destruction

Question 11

How is bone strength determined when dealing with the cells found in the bone?

Answer 11

By the relatives rates of osteoblastic activity and osteoclastic activity

Question 12

What is the damage caused by for periodontal disease?

Answer 12

Calcified plaque

Question 13

What is the damage caused by for dental caries?

Answer 13

The removal of calcium by lactic acid.

Question 14

What is the key bacteria in the plaque?

Answer 14

Bacteriodes species, B. B gingivitis and anaerobes

Question 15

What are other terms to describe trench mouth?

Answer 15

Vincent’s stomatitis and Vincen’s angina.

Question 16

What is trench mouth characterized by?

Answer 16

ulcerative lesions of the mouth, tongue and tonsillar area

Question 17

What is trench mouth caused by in terms of bacteria?

Answer 17

Treponema vincentii and Bacteroides melaninogenicus that act together

Question 18

Treponema vincentii is an obligately anaerobic _______

Answer 18

spirochete

Question 19

Bacteroides melaninogenicus is an obligately anaerobic, Gram-_____, straight or curved ___.

Answer 19

Negative

rod

Question 20

What two bacteria might be considered to be the cause pf herpesvirus?

Answer 20

Trepmonema vincetii and bactericides melaninogenicus

Question 21

How is trench mouth spread? What is the treatment?

Answer 21

Contaminated drinking glasses, eating utensils, kissing etc. Treatment is an antiseptic mouth wash

Question 22

What bacterium causes anctinomycosis?

Answer 22

Actionmyces israelii

Question 23

Actionmyces israelli is a Gram-____ anaerobe

Answer 23

Positive

Question 24

True or false. Actionmyces israelli is part of the normal flora of the mouth

Answer 24

True

Question 25

What does A. israelli bacteria resemble?

Answer 25

mold in forming branched filamentous structures. They fragment in rod-like forms

Question 26

What types of characteristics does Actionmycosis have?

Answer 26

Abscess affecting the mouth or jaw.

Question 27

What is the treatment for Actionmycosis?

Answer 27

Prolonged used of a penicillin. Alternatives are dyoxycycline or erythromycin

Question 28

What is the causative agent of oral candidiasis or thrush?

Answer 28

Candida albicans

Question 29

Where in the body is Candida albicans found?

Answer 29

In the mouth, intestine and vagina

Question 30

What is treatment of thrush?

Answer 30

antifungal such as nystatin of fluconazole

Question 31

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram _____ rod.

Answer 31

Negative

Question 32

Why is pseudomonas an important organism in microbiology?

Answer 32

It invades wounds and burns

Question 33

True or false. Pseudomonas aeruginosa occurs in hospitals settings and is antibiotic resistant

Answer 33

True

Question 34

True or false. the bacterium pseudomonas aeruginosa is responsible for infection acquired by hot tubs and otitis media called swimmer's ear

Answer 34

True

Question 35

Is antimicrobial susceptibility testing important for P. aeruginosa?

Answer 35

Yes, as many stains are antibiotic resistant

Question 36

Treatment used for P. aeruginosa is?

Answer 36

Quinolone Ciprofloxacin as it's an synthetic compound and inhibitors of DNA replication and transcription

Question 37

What is the bacterium Clostridium tetani the cause of?

Answer 37

Tetanus

Question 38

C. tetani is a Gram _____, obligately anaerobic rod

Answer 38

positive

Question 39

What does C. tetani cause in terms of symptoms?

Answer 39

Spasm involving the neck and jaw. The neurotoxins cause convulsive contractions of the voluntary muscles.

Question 40

True or false. Immunization for tetanus is a part of the DPTP and booster should be given every 10 years.

Answer 40

True

Question 41

What 5 anaerobes can be involved in the infection of gangrene. They are all Gram-posisitve, endospore-forming, obligately anaerobic rods. Where are they commonly found in?

Answer 41

1. Clostridium perfringens 2. Clodtridium histolyticum 3. Clostridium sporogenes 4. Clostridium septicum 5. Clostridium oedematiens They are found in soil

Question 42

Explain the sequence of events of gas gangrene infection (3 steps)

Answer 42

1. Endospores are introduces in the wound. 2. They germinate and the negative cell grows in deep wounds where lack of blood flow caused necrotic tissue 3. Toxins are gas produced with damages the tissues

Question 43

What can gas gangrene result in? Name 3

Answer 43

1. necrosis 2. toxemia 3. death

Question 44

What is the treatment in gangrene?

Answer 44

Antibiotic are not effective as the blood does not reach the affected area due to necrosis.

Question 45

What does dermatophytic fungi affect?

Answer 45

The skin, hair and nails.

Question 46

What is the dermatophytic bingo diseases called?

Answer 46

Dermatophytoses

Question 47

Name the 4 major diseases of dermatophytoses

Answer 47

1. Tinea pedis- Athlete'S foot 2. Tinea corporis- ringworm of the smooth skin 3. Tinea capitis- ringworm of the scalp 4. Tinha unguium- ringworm of the nails

Question 48

What is the treatment to treat dermatophytoses

Answer 48

Antifungal creams of tablets.

Question 49

How is the rabies virus spread to humans?

Answer 49

Bites from infected mammals, saliva and inhalation

Question 50

What is the incubation period for rabies virus?

Answer 50

1-3 months

Question 51

What are the symptoms in human who have contracted rabies

Answer 51

Headache, nervousness, fever, eventually paralysis, hydrophobia, delirium, convulsions and coma.

Question 52

The treatment for rabies is used when and why?

Answer 52

post exposure for prophylaxis

Question 53

The rabies vaccine consists of what?

Answer 53

Killed rabies viruses good for both pre-exposure and post-exposure

Question 54

What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?

Answer 54

Borrelia burgdorferi

Question 55

The bacteria that causes lyme is carried by ticks. What is the tick found in deer?

Answer 55

lxodes dammini

Question 56

What are symptoms of Lyme disease?

Answer 56

Site of infection becomes red with the middle giving a bull's eye appearance. Fever, headache, stiff neck and lymphadenopathy

Question 57

If the Lyme disease is not treated, what can occur?

Answer 57

Arthritis, neurological problems and cardiovascular problems

Question 58

Why is Lyme disease so hard to detect

Answer 58

The individuals do not always develop the characteristic lesions and Borrelia burgdorferi is not always recoverable from the blood and serological test give a high false negatives.

Question 59

What are the recommended antibiotics for treating Lyme disease?

Answer 59

doxycycline, amoxicillin, cephalosporins