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Medical Microbiology 16- > Lecture 32 > Flashcards

Lecture 32 Flashcards

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1
Q

What causes the destruction of tooth enamel during the process of caries?

A

Lactic acid

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2
Q

What is lactic acid an end product of?

A

Sucrose (table sugar)

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3
Q

Is lactic acid bacterially produced?

A

Yes

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4
Q

What is the principal bacterium involved in tooth decay?

A

Streptococcus mutans

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5
Q

Is streptococcus mutans a member of the resident flora of the mouth?

A

Yes

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6
Q

What structures are considered as part of the periodontum?

A
  • tooth root
  • bone socket that holds the tooth
  • the fibre that attach the tooth to the bone
  • the gingiva or gums
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7
Q

True or false. Periodontal disease results in tooth loss?

A

True

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8
Q

Describe the process of periodontal disease.

A
  • The accumulation of plaque at the tooth-gum interface.
  • The plaque extends into the gums between the teeth
  • Calsium is deposited in the plaque and calcifies
  • This causes gingivitis
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9
Q

What do the osteoblast do in relation to the bone?

A

They deposit bone

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10
Q

What do the osteoclast do in relation to the bone?

A

They cause bone destruction

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11
Q

How is bone strength determined when dealing with the cells found in the bone?

A

By the relatives rates of osteoblastic activity and osteoclastic activity

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12
Q

What is the damage caused by for periodontal disease?

A

Calcified plaque

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13
Q

What is the damage caused by for dental caries?

A

The removal of calcium by lactic acid.

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14
Q

What is the key bacteria in the plaque?

A

Bacteriodes species, B. B gingivitis and anaerobes

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15
Q

What are other terms to describe trench mouth?

A

Vincent’s stomatitis and Vincen’s angina.

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16
Q

What is trench mouth characterized by?

A

ulcerative lesions of the mouth, tongue and tonsillar area

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17
Q

What is trench mouth caused by in terms of bacteria?

A

Treponema vincentii and Bacteroides melaninogenicus that act together

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18
Q

Treponema vincentii is an obligately anaerobic _______

A

spirochete

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19
Q

Bacteroides melaninogenicus is an obligately anaerobic, Gram-_____, straight or curved ___.

A

Negative

rod

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20
Q

What two bacteria might be considered to be the cause pf herpesvirus?

A

Trepmonema vincetii and bactericides melaninogenicus

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21
Q

How is trench mouth spread? What is the treatment?

A

Contaminated drinking glasses, eating utensils, kissing etc. Treatment is an antiseptic mouth wash

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22
Q

What bacterium causes anctinomycosis?

A

Actionmyces israelii

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23
Q

Actionmyces israelli is a Gram-____ anaerobe

A

Positive

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24
Q

True or false. Actionmyces israelli is part of the normal flora of the mouth

A

True

25
Q

What does A. israelli bacteria resemble?

A

mold in forming branched filamentous structures. They fragment in rod-like forms

26
Q

What types of characteristics does Actionmycosis have?

A

Abscess affecting the mouth or jaw.

27
Q

What is the treatment for Actionmycosis?

A

Prolonged used of a penicillin. Alternatives are dyoxycycline or erythromycin

28
Q

What is the causative agent of oral candidiasis or thrush?

A

Candida albicans

29
Q

Where in the body is Candida albicans found?

A

In the mouth, intestine and vagina

30
Q

What is treatment of thrush?

A

antifungal such as nystatin of fluconazole

31
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram _____ rod.

A

Negative

32
Q

Why is pseudomonas an important organism in microbiology?

A

It invades wounds and burns

33
Q

True or false. Pseudomonas aeruginosa occurs in hospitals settings and is antibiotic resistant

A

True

34
Q

True or false. the bacterium pseudomonas aeruginosa is responsible for infection acquired by hot tubs and otitis media called swimmer’s ear

A

True

35
Q

Is antimicrobial susceptibility testing important for P. aeruginosa?

A

Yes, as many stains are antibiotic resistant

36
Q

Treatment used for P. aeruginosa is?

A

Quinolone Ciprofloxacin as it’s an synthetic compound and inhibitors of DNA replication and transcription

37
Q

What is the bacterium Clostridium tetani the cause of?

A

Tetanus

38
Q

C. tetani is a Gram _____, obligately anaerobic rod

A

positive

39
Q

What does C. tetani cause in terms of symptoms?

A

Spasm involving the neck and jaw. The neurotoxins cause convulsive contractions of the voluntary muscles.

40
Q

True or false. Immunization for tetanus is a part of the DPTP and booster should be given every 10 years.

A

True

41
Q

What 5 anaerobes can be involved in the infection of gangrene. They are all Gram-posisitve, endospore-forming, obligately anaerobic rods. Where are they commonly found in?

A
  1. Clostridium perfringens
  2. Clodtridium histolyticum
  3. Clostridium sporogenes
  4. Clostridium septicum
  5. Clostridium oedematiens
    They are found in soil
42
Q

Explain the sequence of events of gas gangrene infection (3 steps)

A
  1. Endospores are introduces in the wound.
  2. They germinate and the negative cell grows in deep wounds where lack of blood flow caused necrotic tissue
  3. Toxins are gas produced with damages the tissues
43
Q

What can gas gangrene result in? Name 3

A
  1. necrosis
  2. toxemia
  3. death
44
Q

What is the treatment in gangrene?

A

Antibiotic are not effective as the blood does not reach the affected area due to necrosis.

45
Q

What does dermatophytic fungi affect?

A

The skin, hair and nails.

46
Q

What is the dermatophytic bingo diseases called?

A

Dermatophytoses

47
Q

Name the 4 major diseases of dermatophytoses

A
  1. Tinea pedis- Athlete’S foot
  2. Tinea corporis- ringworm of the smooth skin
  3. Tinea capitis- ringworm of the scalp
  4. Tinha unguium- ringworm of the nails
48
Q

What is the treatment to treat dermatophytoses

A

Antifungal creams of tablets.

49
Q

How is the rabies virus spread to humans?

A

Bites from infected mammals, saliva and inhalation

50
Q

What is the incubation period for rabies virus?

A

1-3 months

51
Q

What are the symptoms in human who have contracted rabies

A

Headache, nervousness, fever, eventually paralysis, hydrophobia, delirium, convulsions and coma.

52
Q

The treatment for rabies is used when and why?

A

post exposure for prophylaxis

53
Q

The rabies vaccine consists of what?

A

Killed rabies viruses good for both pre-exposure and post-exposure

54
Q

What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

55
Q

The bacteria that causes lyme is carried by ticks. What is the tick found in deer?

A

lxodes dammini

56
Q

What are symptoms of Lyme disease?

A

Site of infection becomes red with the middle giving a bull’s eye appearance. Fever, headache, stiff neck and lymphadenopathy

57
Q

If the Lyme disease is not treated, what can occur?

A

Arthritis, neurological problems and cardiovascular problems

58
Q

Why is Lyme disease so hard to detect

A

The individuals do not always develop the characteristic lesions and Borrelia burgdorferi is not always recoverable from the blood and serological test give a high false negatives.

59
Q

What are the recommended antibiotics for treating Lyme disease?

A

doxycycline, amoxicillin, cephalosporins

Medical Microbiology 16- (17 decks)

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