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Medical Microbiology 16- > Lecture 25 > Flashcards

Lecture 25 Flashcards

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1
Q

Are Staphylococci Gram positive or Gram negative?

A

Gram positive

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2
Q

Are staphylococci facultative anaerobes or aerobes?

A

Facultative anaerobes

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3
Q

True or false. Staphylococci are able to grow in media having a high concentration of NaCl (10%)

A

Partially true. The statement is true, however, the concentration of NaCl is 7.5%

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4
Q

Name the three principal species of Staphylococci

A

i. Staphylococcus epidermidis
ii. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
iii. Staphylococcus aureus

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5
Q

Name 5 virulent stains of S. aureus

A
  1. Coagulase positive
  2. DNase positive
  3. beta-hemolytic
  4. Mannitol fermenting
  5. Catalase-positive
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6
Q

Define pyogenic

A

pus-forming

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7
Q

True or false. Staphylococci, Streptococcus and Neisseria are not pyogenic

A

False. They are

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8
Q

Bacterium that are pyogenic stimulate ____ in order to accumulate along with ___,___,___ and cellular debris. This accumulation is called pus.

A

Leukocytes, plasma proteins, plasma, red blood cells.

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9
Q

What is the cause of localized infections such as boils and impetigo?

A

S. aureus

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10
Q

The enzyme _____ produces a fibrin barrier that walls off the infection focus.

A

Coagulase

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11
Q

How is the process of coagulase an advantage to the bacterium?

A

The cells are walled off from the host’s defense mechanisms.

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12
Q

How is coagulase a disadvantage to the bacterium?

A

The infection remains localized

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13
Q

The action of coagulase also results in a thin layer of fibrin around the bacterial cell. What does this inhibit?

A

Phagocytosis by the host’s phagocytes.

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14
Q

If the fibrin barrier is broken from coagulase, what can happen?

A

the cells enter the lymphatic channels or blood vessels and spread to other parts of the body. Disease can result.

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15
Q

What 9 disease can occur from S. aureus entering the blood vessels or lymphatic system.

A
  1. Septicemia
  2. Abscesses
  3. Endocarditis
  4. Periostitis
  5. Conjunctivitis
  6. Sinusitis
  7. Pneumonia
  8. Meningitis
  9. Toxic shock syndrome
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16
Q

Define Septicemia

A

Microbes multiply in the blood. Destruction of blood components occurs.

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17
Q

Define Abscesses

A

A localized accumulation of pus.

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18
Q

Define Endocarditis

A

An inflammation of the internal membrane of the heart valves and/or chambers

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19
Q

Define Periostitis

A

An inflammation of the membrane surrounding bone

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20
Q

Define Conjunctivitis

A

An inflammation of the conjunctiva.

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21
Q

Define sinusitis

A

Inflammation of the sinuses

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22
Q

Define Pneumonia

A

Inflammation of the lungs

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23
Q

Define Meningitis

A

Inflammation of the meninges (membranes which envelop the brain and spinal cord)

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24
Q

Define toxic shock syndrome

A

A condition by shock and rash.

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25
Q

Why is susceptibility testing important prior in administrating antibiotic to treat S. aureus?

A

There are some penicillin resistant strains of S. aureus.

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26
Q

True or false. Extensive use of antibiotics result in antibiotic-resistant strains.

A

True

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27
Q

Define nosocomial infection

A

hospital acquired infections.

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28
Q

Are streptococci Gram positive or Gram negative?

A

Gram -positive

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29
Q

True or false. Streptococci facultative anaerobes or anaerobes requiring sometimes higher concentration of CO2 than is found in air.

A

True

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30
Q

Define facultative anaerobes

A

A facultative anaerobe is an organism that makes ATP by aerobic respiration if oxygen is present, but is capable of switching to fermentation or anaerobic respiration if oxygen is absent

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31
Q

Define hemolysis

A

Hemolysis or haemolysis, also known by several other names, is the rupturing ( lysis) of red blood cells (erythrocytes) and the release of their contents (cytoplasm ) into surrounding fluid (e.g. blood plasma).

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32
Q

How many kinds of hemolysis does streptococci display?

A
  1. Beta-hemolysis
  2. Alpha hemolysis
  3. Gamma hemolysis
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33
Q

Define Beta hemolysis

A

Complete lysis of the red blood cells surrounding a colony, resulting in a clear zone.

34
Q

Define Alpha-hemolysis

A

A partial lysis or damage to the red blood cells surrounding a colony resulting in the presence of a zone of greenish or brownish discolouration.

35
Q

Define Gamma hemolysis

A

The absence of hemolysis

36
Q

Give an example of a beta-hemolytic streptococcus

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

37
Q

Which 2 types of streptococci do not possess the C carbohydrate?

A

Alpha-hemolytic streptococci and gamma hemolytic streptococci.

38
Q

Beta-hemolytic streptococci can be divided into groups based on what? Groups are divided from A-V.

A

On the nature of their C carbohydrate antigen extracted from their cell walls.

39
Q

Which group of beta -hemolytic streptococci are most important to us?

A

A beta-hemolytic streptococci

40
Q

Name 12 A beta-hemolytic streptococci diseases

A
  1. Sore throat
  2. Tonsillitis
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Speticemia
  5. Puerperal sepsis
  6. Erysipelas
  7. Cellutitis
  8. Necrotizing fasciitis and necrotising myositis
  9. Rheumatic fever
  10. Meningitis
  11. Endocarditis
  12. Endocarditis
  13. Scarlet fever
41
Q

Define puerperal sepsis

A

Acute infection of the uterus following childbirth

42
Q

Define Erysipelas

A

Acute infection of the epidermis and dermis of the skin

43
Q

Define Necrotizing fasciitis and necrotizing myositis

A

infection of the fascia and muscles

44
Q

What is one of the bacteria responsible for a third of flesh eating disease cases and what antibiotic to use to treat?

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) or Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria or in combination with Staphylococcal infections. penicillin G, clindamycin, vancomycin, and gentamicin.

45
Q

Define scarlet fever (also known as Scarlatina)

A

Resulting from a sore throat caused by a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus that secretes the erythrogenic toxin.

46
Q

What are the symptoms of scarlet fever?

A

Sore throat, high fever, headache, vomiting, strawberry tongue and a rash.

47
Q

Name the streptococci that are part of the resident flora of the mouth and upper respiratory tract

A

Alpha-hemolytic streptococci

48
Q

True or false. Antimicrobial testing is essential when dealing with alpha-hemolytic streptococci as they susceptible to antimicrobial agents.

A

True

49
Q

All group of A beta-hemolytic streptococci are susceptible to _____ and most are susceptible to _____

A

Penicillin G and erythromycin

50
Q

B beta hemolytic streptococci are present in ___ of female vaginal flora

A

25%. They cause serious infections to newborn

51
Q

Name serious infections that can affect newborns born by mothers with b beta hemolytic streptococci

A

Bacteremia, pneumonia and meningits.

52
Q

Name all causative agents of pneumonia?

A 
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus aureus
beta-hemolytic streptococci
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenza
certain viruses
53
Q

The pneumonia causer by s. pneumoniae is called _______. The etiological agent can be called the pneumococcus.

A

Pneumococcal pneumonia. Pmeumococcus

54
Q

Is S.pneumoniea a Gram positive or gram-negative coccus?

A

Gram positive, arranged in pairs or short chains

55
Q

True or false. Virulent cells of S. pneumoniae are encapsulated

A

True

56
Q

The bacterium of S. pneumoniae is _____

A

Alpha-hemolytic

57
Q

True or false. the pneumococcus resembles other alpha-hemolytic streptococci in cellular morphology and colonial morphology

A

True

58
Q

Define cellular morphology

A

Cell morphology is essential in identifying the shape, structure, form, and size of cells.

59
Q

Define colony morphology

A

It includes form, elevation and margin of the bacteria

60
Q

What can bile solubility be used for when speaking of autolysis.

A

Bile solubility can be used to differentiate the pneumococcus and other alpha-hemolytic streptococci.

61
Q

Name 2 ways pneumococcus can be distinguished from other alpha hemolytic streptococci.

A
  1. In older culture, the cells become progressively more Gram-negative.
  2. The viable count decreases.
62
Q

What is used in inoculated agar plated to differentiate the pneumococcus and other alpha-hemolytic streptococcus?

A

Optochin discs

63
Q

Define what Optochin discs are.

A

They are discs that have been impregnated with ethylhydrocupreine

64
Q

What is the incubation period for pneumococcal pneumonia?

A

1-3 days

65
Q

What are symptoms of pneumococcal pneumonia?

A

Fever, chills and pleural pain

66
Q

Define what the pleura is

A

The pleura is the membrane that enfolds the lungs

67
Q

How many lobes does the right lung possess and how many lobes does the left lung posses?

A

Right=3 lobes

Left = 2 lobes

68
Q

True or false. Pneumococcal pneumonia cause the alveoli will fill with exudate

A

True

69
Q

S. pneumoniae can invade other tissues and cause what 7 medical conditions?

A
  1. Sinusitis
  2. Otitis media (inflammation of the middle ear)
  3. Meningitis
  4. Empyema (pus in the pleural cavity)
  5. Septicemia
  6. Endocarditis
  7. Pericarditis (infection the pericardium ((sac that encloses the heart))
70
Q

The diagnosis of pneumococcal pneumonia can be confirmed by observing Gram-positive, encapsulated ____ in sputum samples.

A

diplococci

71
Q

True or false. S. pneumoniae is part of the resident flora of the upper respiratory tract of healthy individuals

A

True

72
Q

What is fluoroquinolone

A

An antibiotic

73
Q

What are the treatment options for S. pneumonia?

A

Fluoroquinolone or doxycycline.

74
Q

True or false. Erythromycin, clindamycin and lincomycin are older macrocodes antibiotic treatments

A

True

75
Q

Some strains of S. pneumoniae are now resistant to penicillin treatment, name the 4

A
  1. tétracycline
  2. erythromycin
  3. chloramphenicol
  4. clindamycin
76
Q

What does the Streptococcus pneumoniae vaccines protect you from?

A

Invasive pneumococcal disease. This includes pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis, pleural empyema and bacteremia.

77
Q

The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine contain ____antigens of ____ serotypes of S. penumoniae.

A

capsular

23

78
Q

The pneumococcal polysaccharide conjugate vaccine (Prevnar) contains capsular antigens of ___ serotypes of S. penumonias.

A

13

79
Q

Who is the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine intended for?

A

person greater than 2 years old with risk of invasive pneumococcal disease.

80
Q

Who is the pneumococcal polysaccharide conjugate vaccine intended for? how many injections are needed?

A

For all children (3 injections at the ages of 2 month, 4 months and 12 months) and persons at high right of invasive pneumococcal disease.

Medical Microbiology 16- (17 decks)

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