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Medical Microbiology 16- > Lecture 19 > Flashcards

Lecture 19 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two types of defence against infectious diseases?

A

Natural resistance and immunity

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2
Q

True or false. The natural resistance is a function of the physiological condition of the individual at the time of the exposure to the pathogen.

A

True.

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3
Q

When referring to natural resistance, what does nonspecific mean?

A

Not directed against particular disease but against diseases in general.

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4
Q

True or false. There is no barriers or factors that can contribute to the natural resistance.

A

False. There are barriers and factors that contribute to natural resistance by preventing the establishment of pathogens in or on our body.

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5
Q

True or false. The skin is a physical barrier that prevents microbial species from entering the body of the host.

A

True.

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6
Q

Define mucous membrane

A

It’s a membrane that covers numerous cavities and internal organs in the body. It consists of one or more layer of epithelial cells. It’s present in most openings such as the mouth, ears, lips.

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7
Q

True or false. Epithelial cells of the mucous membrane are ciliated (covered in tiny hairs).

A

True

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8
Q

True or false. Epithelial cells of the mucous membrane do not secrete mucus.

A

False. They do.

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9
Q

Explain the process of the mucociliary escalator.

A

Microbes that are formed in the lower airway are trapped in mucus and swept up to the back of the throat by the beating action of the cilia.

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10
Q

Explain the mucociliary process for the nose.

A

The nasal hairs and the cilia sweep the particles to the back of the throat where they are swallowed.

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11
Q

True or false. The alveoli have ciliated cells and mucus.

A

False. The alveoli cells do not have ciliated cells or mucous.

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12
Q

What does the lower respiratory tract posses that can trap foreign particles in order to discard them?

A

Phagocytic cells.- they engulf the foreign particles that have managed to reach the lower end of the respiratory tract.

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13
Q

True or false. Lysozyme has a bacterial affect on some bacteria.

A

True.

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14
Q

In what 3 types of secretions can lysozyme be found in?

A
  1. Tears
  2. Saliva
  3. Nasal secretions.
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15
Q

What is one component that skin secretion from sweat and sebaceous glands provide?

A

A barrier

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16
Q

True or false. Some of the secretions from sweat and sebaceous glands (mainly fatty acids) have an antimicrobial effect?

A

True

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17
Q

True or false. The acidity of gastric juices does not provides a barrier?

A

False. It does provide a barrier.

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18
Q

True or false. Competition of the resident flora provides a barrier.

A

True

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19
Q

Name the three principal types of leukocytes.

A
  1. Granulocytes
  2. Monocytes
  3. Lymphocytes
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20
Q

Explain how the leukocytes (white blood cells) are very important in the natural resistance.

A

They are capable of phagocytosis

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21
Q

Which two types leukocytes are capable of phagocytosis?

A
  1. Granulocytes

2. Monocytes

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22
Q

Lymphocytes are involved in which two types of “immunity”

A
  1. Humoral immunity

2. Cell mediated immunity

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23
Q

Name the three subdivisions of the granulocytes based on their staining characteristics.

A
  1. Neutrophiles also known as polymorphonuclear neutrophils or PMNs
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
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24
Q

True or false. All granulocytes have multi-lobed nuclei.

A

True

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25
Q

True or false. All granulocytes contain numerous granules called lysosomes.

A

True

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26
Q

What is lysosomes

A

An organelle in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells containing degradative enzymes enclosed in a membrane.

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27
Q

Concerning PMNs, they are abundant in which part of the body’s cells.

A

Phagocytic cells.

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28
Q

Concerning PMNs, they are produced continuously in what part of the bone?

A

The bone marrow and discharged into the circulating blood.

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29
Q

What is the acronym PMNs stand for?

A

Polymorphonuclear neutrophils

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30
Q

True or false. The presence of a foreign substance such as microbial cell is a chemical stimulus that attracts PMNs.

A

True

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31
Q

What type of motility do PMNs take on in order to migrate out of the capillaries?

A

Amoeboid type motility.

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32
Q

When referring to the amoeboid motility, when does this movement occur in cells?

A

When the PMNs are so attracted. They make their way to the source and phagocytize it.

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33
Q

Define leukocytosis

A

In many infection, there is an explosive increase in the number of leukocytes in the blood.

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34
Q

During leukocytosis, what percentage does the PMNs account of the leukocyte count?

A

65%-70%

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35
Q

Define leukopenia

A

In some infections, especially in Gram-negative bacteria, there’s a decrease in the number of leukocytes in the blood.

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36
Q

True or false. Monocytes also arise from stem cell from the bone marrow.

A

True

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37
Q

Are monocytes larger or smaller than PMNs. Are they less numerous or more numerous than PMNs?

A

Monocytes are larger and less numerous than PMNs.

38
Q

True or false. Monocytes are mononuclear cells.

A

True

39
Q

True or false. Monocytes come before macrophages which are capable of phagocytosis.

A

True

40
Q

True or false. Monocytes are not attracted to foreign substances

A

False. They are, at the site of the foreign substance they become macrophages.

41
Q

Define the reticuloendothelial system

A

a network of cells and tissues found throughout the body, especially in the blood, general connective tissue, spleen, liver, lungs, bone marrow, and lymph nodes.

42
Q

True or false. Many monocytes are in fixed positions within the body as part of the reticuloendothelial system

A

True.

43
Q

The reticuloendothelial system (RES) is a system of what types of cells.

A

Phagocytic

44
Q

Name certain area of the body that RES are fixed to.

A

Bone marrow, liver, spleen, lungs, lymphoid tissues and CNS.

45
Q

True or false. Some of the phagocytic cells do not adhere to structures.

A

False. They do, they are fixed in the reticulum.

46
Q

Define reticulum

A

A loose connective tissues.

47
Q

Define endothelium

A

The lining of the blood vessels and sinusoids (capillary expansions).

48
Q

True or false. Some of the phagocytic cells are fixed in the endothelium.

A

True

49
Q

Explain the function of RES

A

To remove microbes and other particulate matter (debris, dead red and white blood cells) from the circulating fluids and sites of infections.

50
Q

True or false. Some of the phagocytic cells of the RES have amoeboid-type motility.

A

True.

51
Q

True or false. Some of the phagocytic cells of the RES are called wandering cells as they move in response to chemical stimuli.

A

True.

52
Q

What does the lymphatic fluid contain?

A

Similar to blood, but lacks red blood cells.

53
Q

What system does the lymph circulate in?

A

Lymphatic system

54
Q

Explain the process in which the lymphatic fluids drain.

A

Fluids from the tissues drain into the lymphatic capillaries and them into the lymph nodes.

55
Q

True or false. Lymph nodes have name branching channels.

A

True

56
Q

What type of cell lines the lymph branching channels?

A

Phagocytes

57
Q

Where to the phagocytes eliminate the microbes and particulates when discussing the lymphatic system?

A

In the branching channel, as they are lined with phagocytes cells.

58
Q

Via what duct does the lymph eventually flow by to be reintroduced the circulatory system?

A

Thoracic duct.

59
Q

The inflammatory system is an overall reaction to what type of condition or circumstances?

A

Infection and tissue injury. It’s the body’s attempt to localize that infection of injury.

60
Q

When speaking of inflammation, do the blood vessels dilate or retract creating an increase in blood flow?

A

Dilate

61
Q

When referring to inflammation, what do the walls of the blood vessels become more of and why?

A

They become more permeable so that the plasma and phagocytes can pass through more readily.

62
Q

Explain how the process of phagocytosis occurs during inflammation.

A

Phagocytes stick to the lining of the blood vessels, then pass through the irritant where phagocytosis occurs.

63
Q

True or false. When referring to inflammation, the PMNS are the most dominant.

A

True

64
Q

True or false, the monocytes and the macrophage never dominate in number during the inflammation process.

A

False. They predominate the PMNs

65
Q

What does the monocytes and macrophages do during the inflammation process.

A

They engulf the infected particles and leukocytic debris.

66
Q

Define the inflammatory exudate.

A

The collection of fluid and cell at the site of injury.

67
Q

Define a purulent or suppurative exudate

A

A thick yellow fluid due to the large number of leukocytes- pus.

68
Q

Define a serous exudate

A

Less thick and pinkish. It contains more plasma than cells.

69
Q

Define a fibrinous exudate

A

It contains sufficient fibrinogen to form a fibrin clot.

70
Q

Enumerate four symptoms of an inflammation that occurs superficially (skin or mucous membrane).

A

Redness, heat, swelling, and tenderness.

71
Q

During inflammation, what is the redness ans heat due to?

A

Increased blood flow.

72
Q

During inflammation, what is the swelling and tenderness due to?

A

Exudate, it puts pressure on adjacent nerves.

73
Q

Describe the two outcomes of an abscess.

A
  1. It may rupture and allow spread to adjacent tissues

2. The exudate is absorbed, cellular debris is phagocytize and fibrinous deposits are removed.

74
Q

True or false. Fever is a systemic manifestation of the inflammatory response.

A

True

75
Q

Explain what fever is due to.

A

It’s due to a combination of increased heat production and a decrease heat loss.

76
Q

The regulators of body temperature that are in the brain are subject to which two types of stimuli?

A

Physical and chemical.

77
Q

True or false. The endotoxins of Gram-negative bacteria are fever inducing.

A

True. Known as pyrogenic.

78
Q

True or false. Certain substances related by leukocytes especially granulocytes are pyrogenic.

A

True

79
Q

True or false. Substances that are pyrogenic are the causative agent of a fever.

A

True

80
Q

Explain the process in which a fever is started.

A

When substances that are pyrogenic are carried by the blood to the brain and initiate the physiological response resulting in a fever.

81
Q

True or false. The elevated temperature of a fever is not harmful to the etiological agent and that your immune system works more efficiently at a higher temperature.

A

True

82
Q

Define a interferon

A

Interferons are proteins produced by virally-infected cells.

83
Q

True or false. Interferons have inducers such as certain bacteria and protozoa.

A

True

84
Q

True or false. Interferons make the multiplication of viruses easy.

A

False. They inhibit the multiplication of viruses.

85
Q

Explain the three step process of how interferon work

A
  1. The interferon molecules are released from the infected cell
  2. Enter uninfected cells
  3. Stimulate the production of another protein. This protein inhibits virus multiplication by inhibiting further protein synthesis.
86
Q

True or false. Interferons are virus specific not cell specific.

A

False. They are cell specific not virus specific.

87
Q

True or false. Interferons are effective against viruses in general

A

True.

88
Q

True or false. Interferons are effective in the species in which they are produced.

A

True.

89
Q

True or false. The interferon gene has been cloned in E.coli and yeast

A

True.

90
Q

True or false. Interferon is an acceptable treatment of Hep B and C

A

True.

91
Q

True or false. Interferon is an acceptable treatment for the common cold.

A

False. They are not as they have common side effects such as fever, severe fatigue, headache, nausea and dry mouth.

Medical Microbiology 16- (17 decks)

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