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RYAN E175 GROUND SCHOOL > KV Guide > Flashcards

KV Guide Flashcards

1
Q

How long is a release valid?

A

2 hours

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2
Q

Reasons why a release would need to amended or would need a new one?

A

New:

  • CA change
  • Aircraft change
  • Return to field
  • Unscheduled stops

Ammendments:

  • FO change
  • FA change
  • MINTO
  • Release fuel
  • Altitude/routing
  • WX
  • MELs/CDLs
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3
Q

When must a takeoff alternate be on the release?

A

If minimums are lower than the approach to get back in

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4
Q

What are operational restrictions associated with a takeoff alternate?

A

1 hour in single engine normal cruise in still air, includes Cat II

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5
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

Always unless 1-2-3 rule, freezing precip, RCC 1

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6
Q

How can you determine if the destination alternate is legal?

A

If 1 useable approach add 400-1. If 2 usable approach add 200-1/2 (exemption 17347)

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7
Q

When does the release require an additional alternate airport?

A

If using the exemption 17347 or if wx is marginal

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8
Q

What is MINTO fuel and how is it calculated?

A

Absolute minimum fuel required for take off

Burnoff, most distant alternate, holding, and reserve added together

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9
Q

How is release fuel calculated?

A

Minto + taxi out + contingency

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10
Q

How is planned reserve fuel calculated?

A

15,000ft at 250kts and burn adjustments made specific to environmental conditions and aircraft’s burn and weight. We will always have minimum reserve of 2,450

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11
Q

What is minimum contingency fuel amount for the ERJ under normal flight conditions?

A

15 minutes planned at landing weight and 10,000ft above destination airport

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12
Q

How is holding fuel calculated?

A

Planned landing weight and 10,000ft above airport elevation

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13
Q

What would a Sabre Windshear value of >07 indicate on the release? Considerations?

A

Possible moderate turbulence. Windshear values were removed from the release

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14
Q

Where is your planned TOC with respect to the tropopause? Why is this important to note?

A

Look at MWL (max wind level) on release for tropopause. This is important because temperature no longer follows the standard lapse rate.

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15
Q

What is the filed true airspeed and why is important to reference during flight?

A

Required report to ATC if TAS varies by 5% or 10kts, whichever is greater

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16
Q

Are all MEL, CDL, and NEF items required to be on the release?

A

MEL and CDLs are required

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17
Q

If an item is deferred after block out and prior to takeoff, is the deferred item required to be reflected on the release?

A

Yes, release can be amended to reflect the change

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18
Q

Have students check NOTAMs and determine any operational considerations for the flight

A

…Check NOTAMs

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19
Q

Is there anyway you can determine how much fuel you are predicted to burn per hour for this flight?

A

Check F/FLOW on release

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20
Q

You decide to add fuel because of the possibility for convective activity at your ETA. Are you required to notify anyone?

A

Yes, all fuel increases must be coordinated with dispatch

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21
Q

Explain how reserve fuel is calculated using the data on the release.

A

15,000ft at 250kts and burn adjustments made specific to environmental conditions and aircraft’s burn and weight. We will always have minimum reserve of 2,450

The only way was TOD fuel flow multiplied by 0.75

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22
Q

A minor reduction of release fuel will avoid an overweight condition and allow all passengers and cargo to be loaded. What does FOM ch. 5 allow regarding “fuel decrease”?

A

Fuel can be decreased by 200 lb or 50% of contingency (whichever is less) without notifying dispatch

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23
Q

Explain how the dispatcher calculated your MINTO fuel for today’s flight?

A

MINTO= burnoff+most distant alternate+holding+reserve

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24
Q

At what point in the flight is the crew required to have MINTO on board?

A

When advancing the thrust levers for takeoff

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25
Q

True or False. MINTO is the minimum FAR fuel needed to complete the flight leg.

A

True

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26
Q

True or False. The release includes enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to fly to the first alternate and then to the second alternate.

A

False, only to the most distant alternate

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27
Q

True or False. Reserve fuel is used for diversion to a planned destination alternate.

A

False, reserve fuel is your required 45 min reserve

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28
Q

True or False. When diverting to an unplanned alternate the crew should calculate their landing with their planned reserve fuel intact.

A

True

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29
Q

True or False. The crew may accept a flight delay including a clearance to hold even if holding fuel was not included in the flight release.

A

True, if we have enough fuel at that time to accept the delay

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30
Q

True or False. Reporting minimum fuel to ATC communicates that you are an emergency aircraft

A

False, it just indicates that you cannot accept any undue delay (landing with 45 min of fuel)

Emergency fuel requires the PIC to declare an emergency (landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel)

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31
Q

True or False. Reporting minimum fuel to ATC indicates a fuel status has been reached that requires the flight cannot accept any undue delay.

A

True, but do not expect to receive priority handling

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32
Q

True or False. Minimum fuel is reported when the fuel gauges show 2250lbs

A

False, report it when predicated landing fuel will be 2,250 lbs

Emergency fuel when predicted landing fuel will be 1,500 lbs

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33
Q

True or False. Emergency fuel is declared when the remaining fuel supply would result in a landing with less than 20 minutes of fuel remaining

A

False, 30 minutes

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34
Q

True or False. When declaring emergency fuel, the crew should declare MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY.

A

You must declare an emergency when your landing fuel will be less than emergency fuel (1,500 lbs)

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35
Q

Your current fuel is 5000 lbs, you have just entered a hold. The destination has significant delays due to weather but remains above landing minimums. ATC advises an EFC of 30 minutes and you are 100nm away from the runway. You seek out a viable alternate which is 100nm from your current position, but 200nm from your destination. How long can you hold and proceed to the alternate with reserve?

A

Reserve fuel = 2,450
Fuel on board = 5,000

This gives you roughly 2,500 lbs to hold AND get to your alternate

Based on GS and fuel burn, you can calculate how long it will take you to get from the hold to your alternate and how much fuel that will require.

2,500 lbs - (fuel required to alt) = Hold fuel

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36
Q

Your dispatcher planned the flight to land with 3800 lbs, the reserve fuel is 2300. When determining how long the flight can hold, can the crew use the lower of the 2 values or do they need to plan on landing with 3800lbs?

A

You need to land with reserve fuel of 2,300 lbs

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37
Q

True or False. When the dispatcher built the flight plan, they planned enough fuel to hold, continue to the destination, fly an approach a missed approach, and divert to the most distant alternate.

A

False, no approach or missed approach planned in

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38
Q

True or False. When the dispatcher built the flight plan, they planned only enough fuel to hold and either continue to the destination or the alternate but not to the destination and the alternate?

A

False, they plan enough fuel to fly to the destination and thereafter to the most distant alternate

If there’s an alternate they have to plan to it

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39
Q

Using the flight release, planned takeoff weight, and current Wx, what are the takeoff speeds, MCDU configuration, and N1 values?

A

Look at release…

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40
Q

What is the minimum altitude a turn can be made in IMC?

A

1,000 feet

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41
Q

Is it mandatory that pilots fly a simple-special procedure in IMC? VMC?

A

Mandatory in IMC. If vectors are unavailable, comply with procedure until 3,000 AFE
Mandatory in VMC until reaching 1,000 AFE
(Perf Handbook 2.2)

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42
Q

Is it mandatory that pilots fly a complex-special procedure in IMC? VMC?

A

Mandatory in VMC and IMC. (Perf Handbook 2.2)

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43
Q

When would you consider a runway wet for performance reasons?

A

More than 25% of the runway surface area has visible dampness or water 1/8in or less. (Perf Handbook 2.3)

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44
Q

When is a runway considered to be contaminated?

A

More than 25% of a runway is covered by more than 1/8in of standing water, or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow, or any depth of ice or compacted snow. (Perf Handbook 2.3)

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45
Q

When are reduced thrust takeoffs prohibited?

A

Windshear, contaminated runway, departure requires full thrust (ex: required by SID)

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46
Q

Is a runway with patchy thin ice or snow considered contaminated?

A

No, patchy is less than 25%

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47
Q

Performance data is valid for what range of temperatures on the release?

A

POAT +0 to -10C. Example: POAT 25C, release is valid down to 15C. OAT can’t be higher.
(Perf Handbook 2.7)

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48
Q

Performance data is valid for what range of QNH values?

A

The actual QNH can be now lower than 0.10” below PQNH. Example: 29.92 can go down to 29.82
A new takeoff report is NOT required when actual QNH is greater than PQNH
(Perf Handbook 2.7)

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49
Q

If your takeoff weight exceeds the weight listed under the “PTOW plus 1000” column, what would you do?

A

Contact dispatch to see if you can get performance numbers for a higher weight. Otherwise, you need to reduce weight

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50
Q

Are we permitted to takeoff with a tailwind? If so, is your release performance data valid?

A

15 knot maximum tailwind

ACARS takeoff perf sections are based on calm winds. Unless specifically noted in the section title, use of this data is NOT allowed for takeoff with a tailwind
(Perf Handbook 2.11)

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51
Q

If weather conditions require the pilot to program REF A/I to “ALL” in the MCDU, and the remarks section states “ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON” only, are you able to use performance data?

A

No, you must contact dispatch for new performance numbers

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52
Q

If the flex N1 value on the EICAS is less than the calculated release value, what would you do?

A

Reduce the flex temperature until you are no lower than planned N1 and no greater than 0.5%

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53
Q

During a single-engine missed approach, would you fly the published missed approach procedure or wait until 1000 AFE to commence a turn?

A

Fly published missed

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54
Q

Where would you find a LAHSO landing distance info?

A

Back of airport diagram chart in Jepp

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55
Q

When are you required to use low visibility taxi chats?

A

Below 1200 RVR

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56
Q

Calculate landing speed using the QRH for the following conditions: winds 30 degrees across the runway 20G30, no icing, at your planned landing weight.

A

Use dispatch…

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57
Q

Recite CABIN ALTITUDE HI memory item.

A

Oxygen masks - Don, 100%

Crew Communication - Establish

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58
Q

Will the CABIN ALTITUDE HI likely result in a descent? What altitude will you descend to? How would you find the MEA- demonstrate?

A

Emergency Descent
Descend to 10,000 or MEA whichever is higher
MEA is found on enroute chart or ask ATC

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59
Q

What action does the SOPM require when passing through 14,500’ on an emergency descent?

A

PAX oxygen mask deploy- Override

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60
Q

How must the MFD be configured for an emergency descent?

A

Terrain must be on

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61
Q

What is the primary purpose of continuous communication during an emergency descent?

A

To identify possible pilot incapacitation

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62
Q

What is the recommended vertical mode for emergency descent?

A

FLCH, it provides airspeed and altitude protect to reduce crew workload

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63
Q

Recite ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item.

A

Affected engine - STOP

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64
Q

When will the FADEC automatically abort the start?

A

Hot Start
Hung Start
No light off

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65
Q

List the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start.

A

1) No positive oil pressure within 10 secs after N2 increase 2) During engine start with tailwind, no positive N1 before started cutout
3) No ITT within 30 secs
4) ITT exceeds start limit (815C hot start)
5) Oil pressure stabilizes below engine limits
6)N1 and/or N2 fails to stabilize at idle (hung start)
7)Electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction before starter cutout
(SOPM 04-03.10)

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66
Q

True or False. When an automatic abort occurs or engine start is manually aborted due to abnormal indications, its cause must be investigated and corrected before further attempts to start the engine.

A

True

SOPM 04-03.10

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67
Q

In case of an automatic abort due to an engine hot start and with no ENGINE EXCEEDANCE EICAS message, how many additional engine starts are allowed?

A

Two additional engine starts are allowed.

SOPM 04-03.10

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68
Q

Recite SMOKE EVACUATION memory item. Where is this procedure located in the QRH, what section?

A

Oxygen Masks - Don, EMER
Crew Communications - Establish
Pressurization Dump - Push In

Procedure is found in the SMOKE section of the QRH

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69
Q

True or False. Upon completion of the SMOKE EVACUATION memory item smoke will initially decrease due to pressurization dumping, even if the source has not yet been removed.

A

True

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70
Q

Recite SMOKE/FIRE/FUMES memory item. When would this be applied vs the SMOKE EVACUATION memory item?

A

Oxygen Masks - Don, 100%
Crew Communications - Establish

SMOKE/FIRE/FUMES for only a little bit of smoke or the onset… SMOKE EVACUATION for when the cabin is filled

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71
Q

Recite BATT OVERTEMP memory item. How could you immediately verify that this action was effective?

A

Associated Battery - OFF

Batt 1(2) OFF caution message and check the battery temp on the Electrical Synoptic Page on the MFD

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72
Q

Where is the battery temperature read? Give another example of why it is always important to view the appropriate synoptic page when troubleshooting a problem.

A

Battery temperature is found on the electric synoptic page.

Extra example: the hydraulic page shows items related to specific hydraulic systems

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73
Q

What caution message will populate when the associated battery is selected off?

A

Battery 1(2) Off

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74
Q

In the QRH what is the difference between a BATT 1-2 OFF procedure and a BAT 1(2) OFF procedure? What is the potential pitfall if the wrong procedure is completed?

A

Batt 1-2 means 1 AND 2.
Batt 1(2) means 1 OR 2.
1-2 leads you to land at the nearest suitable airport

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75
Q

Recite JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN-PITCH memory item. Can you reconnect the control column in flight?

A

Elevator Disconnect Handle- PULL

Can’t be reconnected in flight

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76
Q

True or False. Expect lower pitch rates and authority after the completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN-PITCH memory item.

A

True

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77
Q

True or False. The Autopilot will continue to work after the completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN-PITCH memory item.

A

False

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78
Q

Flaps will be 5 for landing after the completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN-PITCH MI, however if a go-around is required the slat/flap will be selected 4, how would you effectively manage this threat?

A

Thorough briefing, “Threat”

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79
Q

Recite JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL-ROLL memory item. What controls remain usable on the “good” side?

A

Aileron Disconnect Handle- PULL
Good side aileron + Capt would get multifunction 5
Fo would get multifunction 4, depending on the jammed side

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80
Q

True or False. After completion of the JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL-ROLL MI crosswind greater than 10 kts must be avoided.

A

True

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81
Q

Recite PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY memory item. Is this emergency addressed by the QRC? What section of the QRH is it?

A

Autopilot Disconnect - Press and Hold
Pitch system 1 & 2 disconnect buttons - Push In

Yes, memory item, QRC, and non-annunciated section of QRH

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82
Q

How would you alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies with a PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY?

A

Continuous banks up to 30 degrees

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83
Q

Recite Roll (YAW) TRIM RUNAWAY memory item.

A

Autopilot Disconnect - Press and Hold

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84
Q

Recite STEERING RUNAWAY memory item.

A

Steer Disc Switch - Press

Steer the airplane using the differential braking and rudder

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85
Q

When performing the SAFETY AND POWER UP CHECKLIST, which display units should be powered?

A

Screens 2, 3, and IESS

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86
Q

What information is displayed on Display unit 2 when you first power up the aircraft?

A

Status page

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87
Q

Why must battery voltage be checked before applying AC power?

A

So we can identity if our batteries have sufficient charge to handle an electrical emergency

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88
Q

If Batt 1 is 22.5v and Batt 2 is 21.4v, what action must you take?

A

Recharge the batteries using the procedure in the SOPM. (SOPM 04-01.7)

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89
Q

What is the battery charging procedure?

A

Recharge batteries using any AC power source. The time it takes to recharge is based on Batt Temp. This procedure can only be used when the Batt voltage is between 21.0 and 22.5. If less than 21.0 call MX.
(SOPM 04-01.7)

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90
Q

What is the purpose of charging the batteries prior to takeoff?

A

In an electrical emergency, while the RAT is not deployed the batteries can provided 10 minutes of power.
(AOM 14-05-15)

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91
Q

What should the pilot check prior to conducting a fire panel test?

A

Verify no fire protection fail messages on the EICAS. (SOPM 04-01.8)

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92
Q

Describe what comes with the fire panel test.

A

6 lights on overhead: Both fire handles, Cargo smoke FWD/AFT, APU button, upper half of APU EMER STOP
5 EICAS messages: CARGO FWD(AFT) SMOKE, APU FIRE, ENG 1(2) FIRE
2 FIRE indications inside ITT
2 Master warning lights
2 Aural warnings: Triple chime and fire bell
(SOPM 04-01.8)

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93
Q

How do you determine if the AC power supplied by the GPU is within proper limits?

A

If the GPU button AVAIL light is illuminated the power is within proper limits. The plane checks for correct voltage/amperage/frequency automatically.
(AOM 14-05-10)

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94
Q

Upon establishing AC power on the aircraft, what test should automatically start?

A

Electric P-BIT

SOPM 04-01.11

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95
Q

When does the elec PBIT auto start? How long does it last? What can interrupt it?

A

E-PBIT automatically starts when an initial AC source is introduced.
It takes 3 minutes to complete.
3 things interrupt it: any hydraulic pump is on, flight control modes switches are cycled, AC power is interrupted.
(SOPM 04-01.11)

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96
Q

Is the elec PBIt required to complete every flight?

A

No, only needs to be completed if it is about to expire or we have a FLT CRTL BIT EXPIRED EICAS msg is displayed. Means test is more than 50 hours old.

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97
Q

What should the pilot do if AC ground power is suddenly lost?

A

Power the plane down using the Leaving the Airplane Checklist, wait one minute, power plane up using Safety and Power Up Checklist, let E-PIT run.
(SOPM 04-01.12)

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98
Q

When do the amber IDG lights illuminate?

A

HOTLOP. If the IDG experiences HIGH OIL TEMP or LOW OIL PRESS the amber light illuminates. The QRH directs the pilots to disconnect the associated IDG. After disconnecting the light will extinguish.
(AOM 14-05-10)

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99
Q

Generally speaking, can one IDG meet the needs of the entire elec system?

A

Yes, bus ties will automatically close to connect the electrical networks. (AOM 14-05-40)

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100
Q

Why is the switch position for Batt 2 AUTO instead on ON?

A

Batt 2 is used to start the APU and it can be replaced by a DC GPU cart (system logic)

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101
Q

What kind of batteries are installed on the ERJ?

A

Two NiCd 22.8 VDC, 27 Amp batteries

AOM 14-05-15

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102
Q

Which lights/switches on the overhead panel illuminate amber and what is the significance?

A

IDG HOTLOP lights
BLEED 1(2) and APU BLEED switches illuminate amber when a leak is detected
(AOM 14-02-05)

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103
Q

Is the total fuel quantity any different if the aircraft is gravity refueled?

A

No, the plane and be completely refueled using both gravity and pressure refueling
(AOM 14-10-10)

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104
Q

Can the aircraft be refueled without AC power?

A

Yes, the refuel panel can be powered by HOT BATT BUS 2

AOM 14-10-05

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105
Q

What is the purpose of the DC pump?

A

It provides fuel from the right tank to the APU and engine start when AC power is not available or AC fuel pump is not available.
(AOM 14-10-10)

106
Q

When will the AC fuel pumps automatically activate?

A
  • Onside engine during engine start
  • Cross side engine during cross feed operations
  • APU, when engine is not running
  • Backup in the event of an ejector pump failure
    (AOM 14-10-10)
107
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance? When will the message appear?

A
  • Max imbalance is 794 lb (SOPM 02-04.3) Message

- Appears at 800 lb (AOM 14-10-10)

108
Q

How does the pilot correct a fuel imbalance

A

Without the message we can move the cross feed selector towards the low tank

If the FUEL IMBALANCE message is displayed we must refer to the QRH

109
Q

What happens when you move the cross feed to the LOW 1(2) position?

A

Crossfeed to the low side will start both engines burning from the high side, using an AC pump

Burn to balance

110
Q

During single engine ops, how would the pilot correct a fuel imbalance situation?

A

Put the crossfeed to the working engine (low side)

111
Q

When should you declare min fuel? Emerg fuel?

A

Min fuel- 2250 lbs

Emerg fuel- 1500 lbs

112
Q

Are you permitted to land with a fuel imbalance eicas message?

A

Yes, if you’ve run the QRH and if you’re less than 794 lbs

113
Q

When will the message extinguish?

A

When within 100 lbs

114
Q

If the engines burn fuel evenly, what is the most likely way of getting into a fuel imbalance situation?

A

Extended single engine ops, or apu use

Possible fuel leak

115
Q

Why do we use the term crossfeed and not crossflow?

A

Because we crossfeed fuel to the engine. We do not crossflow fuel to the opposite tank.

116
Q

Is it possible to get a FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL warning message and not be in a low fuel condition?

A

Yes, if a scavenge pump fails

117
Q

When do the emergency lights come on automatically?

A

When Aircraft losses it’s normal electrical power

AOM 14-01-40

118
Q

How long do they remain lit?

A

10 minutes

AOM 14-01-40

119
Q

How are the emergency lights charged?

A

They have 4 independent batteries charged by DC bus 1

AOM 14-01-40

120
Q

What happens when you pull the fire handle?

A

Closes fuel SOV, hydraulic SOV, bleed SOV

121
Q

Are you able to re-stow the fire handle after you have pulled it?

A

You can restow it. Can’t find answer about it resetting SOVs

122
Q

Why are we required to push the cargo smoke button an additional time to discharge the low rate bottle on the ground?

A

Low rate won’t automatically discharge on the ground because it assumes there will be outside fire assistance and we don’t want it to discharge for 75 minutes

123
Q

According to the SOPM, how long should we delay APU start before pushback?

A

10 minutes prior to push

124
Q

What is the minimum temperature to start the APU?

A

-54 C

125
Q

When shutting down the APU, what is the difference between pushing the EMERG STOP button and turning the APU switch to OFF?

A

EMER STOP button closes APU fuel shutoff valve with no cool down period

OFF initiates normal APU shutdown

126
Q

If performance requires ECS OFF, what operational considerations exist with respect to the APU?

A

ECS off = APU on for pressurization and air conditioning

127
Q

How long can the aircraft be unattended while the APU is running?

A

No more than 5 minutes

SOPM 02-04.4

128
Q

What is the maximum speed for the windshield wipers?

A

250 kts

129
Q

Do the wipers operate together or independently?

A

Independently

130
Q

When should taxi lights be on? Movement

A
  • While taxiing through takeoff and up to 10,000ft
  • OFF at 10,000ft
  • Back ON when after landing sequence called for
  • Back OFF when pulling into the gate
131
Q

When does the SOPM require the NAV lights to be switched on?

A

When electrical power is applied to the aircraft

SOPM 04-01.8

132
Q

How do you initiate a hydraulic PBIT?

A

H-PBIT begins when all 3 hydraulic systems are pressured and reservoir temp is at least +10C
(SOPM 04-01.11)

133
Q

List the ways in which a hydraulic PBIT can be interrupted?

A

Interrupted when any flight control surface is moved. (SOPM 04-01.11)

134
Q

What temperature will inhibit it from running? Why?

A

Less than 10 degrees C because it’s too cold to properly move and could cause a flt cntrl no dsptch

135
Q

When is a hydraulic warm up required?

A

Reservoir temperature below -18C prior to engine start

136
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

The PTU assists the landing gear retraction or extension, should a right engine or right EDP failure occur

137
Q

What is the EICAS message associated with the hydraulic PBIT?

A

FLIGHT CONTROL TEST IN PROG

138
Q

How is normal hydraulic pressure, temp, and quantity determined during the originating checklist?

A

CA originating flow, hydraulic synoptic page

139
Q

When must a hydraulic PBIT be completed without interruption?

A

When the test is expired or will expire

140
Q

How is landing elevation set?

A

By setting the destination airport in the MCDU the plane will automatically set LFE

141
Q

How many outflow valves are installed on the aircraft?

A

One

142
Q

What happens when you press the DUMP button?

A
  • Packs commanded OFF
  • Recirculation fan OFF
  • Outflow valve opens to climb the cabin at 2000 fpm up to 12,400
  • Outflow valve then closes and cabin continues to climb due to natural leak
143
Q

When does the windshield heat come on automatically on the ground?

A

When a single AC power is available (e.g. one IDG) each windshield heating controller performs its standard power-up BIT routine heating the corresponding windshield for 120 seconds then off until 2 independent AC sources

144
Q

What is the maximum altitude for single pack operations?

A

31,000 feet

145
Q

What do the amber indications on the bleed push buttons indicate?

A

When a leak is detected, the button amber striped bar is illuminated

146
Q

Are we permitted to use high pressure external air and the APU simultaneously?

A

Simultaneous use of APU bleed and the HP cart is prohibited
(APU Bleed button PUSHED OUT)

147
Q

When will the passenger oxygen masks auto deploy?

A

Cabin altitude is between 14,000 ft to 14,750 ft

SOPM 14-14-15

148
Q

How many minutes of oxygen will the masks provide?

A

12 minutes

149
Q

What conditions would require the ADS probe heater switch be pressed during the preflight?

A
  • FFOD temperature below - 18 degrees OAT
  • Below zero and visible moisture
  • Contaminated probes
  • PFD erroneous indications
150
Q

When does the probe heat come on automatically?

A

Engine start

151
Q

When must a cold weather preflight inspection be performed?

A
  • OAT 5C or less, or
  • Wing fuel temp 0C or less, or
  • Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing, or
  • A/C exposed overnight to frost or precip, or
  • Residual ice from inbound flight, or
  • Cold soak ice is suspected in fuel tank area
152
Q

Can you use the TAT displayed inside the flight deck to determine if icing conditions exist on the ground?

A

No, use OAT

153
Q

List some of the critical surfaces on the ERJ

A

Wings, horizontal stabilizer, flight control surfaces

154
Q

On the external services panel, what is the normal position of the external steering switch at the gate?

A

Disengaged (allows for towing)

155
Q

Have student identify smart probes. What makes them smart?

A

We have 4 ADSPs that are composed of multifunction probes and air data computers. The ADSPs along with the TAT sensors collect data to send to the 5 Air Data Systems. The ADS gives us things like airspeed, altimeter, VSI, IESS instruments, TAT, SAT. The ADS also have automatic reversionary logic.

156
Q

What is the purpose of the yellow hatch marks on the fuselage?

A

RVSM critical areas

157
Q

What equipment is required prior to entry into RVSM airspace? Do we need TCAS?

A
  • Transponder
  • Either primary altimeter (CAs or FOs)
  • Altitude alerting and capture capability
  • Autopilot

TCAS is NOT required

158
Q

Have student identify ice detector probes

A

You know what they look like!

159
Q

If both ice detector probes fail do we still have ice protection? How?

A

Yes, we can manually turn on ice protection

160
Q

Identify TAT probes

A

You know what they look like!

161
Q

Differences between TAT and SAT

A

SAT - static air temperature- temp of undisturbed air

TAT - total air temperature- SAT plus temperature rise associated with high speed flight

162
Q

Which temp (TAT or SAT) would you reference inflight to determine if you are in icing conditions?

A

Icing conditions exist from TAT +10C to SAT -40C. Report SAT temperatures to ATC when reporting icing

163
Q

What is the airspeed limitation for the DV window?

A

160 KTS

164
Q

If you noticed fluid leaking around the nose gear which hydraulic system would be the source?

A

Hydraulic system 2

165
Q

What would you do if you found gear pins installed in either the nose or main gear? Fuselage?

A

Remove the pins

166
Q

Must the static discharge wick on the nose gear be installed?

A

Yes

167
Q

Looking at the aircraft doors from the outside can you determine if they are armed or disarmed?

A

No, but the slide will not deploy if opened from the outside

168
Q

Have the student identify the RAT compartment

A

You know what it looks like!

169
Q

When does the RAT auto deploy

A

Whenever AC power sources are not powering AC buses the RAT will automatically deploy, and after 8 sec, supplies power to AC ESS BUS.
(AOM 14-05-10)

170
Q

Are there any altitude or speed limitations associated with the RAT?

A
  • Max speed to deploy the RAT is Vmo/Mmo
  • Min speed to spin the RAT up is 150kts
  • Min speed after the RAT is spun up is 130kts
  • No altitude limitations
171
Q

Student identifies the oxygen discharge indicator and what it should indicate prior to flight?

A

Right forward fuselage, Green Disc

172
Q

How do you know you have sufficient oxygen for an observer? 2 crewmembers? When must you call mait?

A
  • Green: 3 crew members
  • Cyan: 2 crew members
  • Amber: Call MX
173
Q

How many smoke detectors are located in the forward cargo compartment?

A

3

174
Q

Are we permitted to load both dry ice and animals in both cargo compartments?

A

No, one or the other

175
Q

How long will the low rate cargo halon bottle discharge?

A

75 minutes to allow for a 60 minute diversion

176
Q

Identify low and high pressure external air panel

A

Underside of the plane

177
Q

Which engine would you start first with an inoperative APU and why?

A

Number 2

The plumbing of the high pressure air forces the huffer cart/hose to sit in front of the number 1 engine

178
Q

What must you verify with respect to the N1 fan prior to engine start?

A

Clear of contaminants, and free rotation

179
Q

If you see a puddle of oil in the exhaust nozzle is it permitted?

A

When the puddle size exceeds 4 in. contact maintenance

180
Q

How many slats panels are heated?

A

All 3 outboard leading edges are heated by engine bleed air

181
Q

You notice frost on the fuselage and underside of the wing. What would you do?

A

Nothing. As long as it’s less than 1/8in under the wing and you can distinguish markings on the fuselage

182
Q

How can you determine that the wing is free of contamination during the preflight?

A

You can see the top of the wings from inside the cabin

183
Q

Have students identify brake wear indicator pins

A

You know what they look like!

184
Q

When must maintenance be called regarding the brake pins?

A

When the wear pin is flush with the bracket

185
Q

Identify the DC external panel

A

You know what it looks like!

186
Q

What MCDU selection should be made with regard to anti-ice if the OAT is 3C and 1000 ovc

A

REF A/I ALL

187
Q

If the MCDU is programmed REF A/I ALL, when will the engine anti-ice valves automatically open? Wing anti-ice valves?

A

Engine valves open after respective engine start. Wing valves open with wheel speed above 40kts
(AOM 14-12-10)

188
Q

If the flight crew selected REF A/I OFF and the aircraft encountered icing conditions immediately after takeoff, when would the anti-ice turn on automatically?

A

OFF inhibits anti-ice logic after takeoff until 1700 AGL or 2 minutes, whichever occurs first
(AOM 14-12-10)

189
Q

What are the considerations associated with a ground crew exceeding 5 kts during the pushback?

A

Autobrakes will turn off and we may get a temporary LH/RH brake fault advisory message

190
Q

What is required to generate a green light during pushback?

A
  • Parking brake off
  • Toe brakes off
  • Steering off
  • Ground crew steering switch to disengage
191
Q

What are the starter duty cycles on the ground?

A

Ground:

  • Starts 1-2: 90 seconds ON, 10 seconds OFF
  • Starts 2-5: 90 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF

In Flight:

  • Starts 1-2: 120 seconds ON, 10 seconds OFF
  • Starts 3-5: 120 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF
192
Q

What conditions would justify dry motoring an engine?

A

To cool the engine down after a hot start or clear out unused fuel after a no light off

193
Q

Provide at least 2 considerations with respect to cold weather engine starts.

A
  • Verify freedom of rotation of the N1 fan before engine start
  • Oil pressure may temporarily be low while the oil warms up. If oil pressure remains low for 2 minutes the engine must be shut down and the oil must be warmed up by other means
  • Initial oil response may be slow, then the oil pressure may rise rapidly, then return to normal once the engine warms sufficiently
  • IDGs may be slow in producing steady power; five minutes may be required for the IDGs to stabilize
194
Q

Which engine do we normally start if we plan a single engine taxi? Why?

A
  • Engine 1, system logic

- Electric Hydraulic Pump 2 will be automatically activated with engine 1 running and parking brake released.

195
Q

Are we permitted to single engine taxi using the right engine? Considerations?

A

Yes, we must turn on hydraulic pump 1 manually so we have outboard brakes

196
Q

What is the minimum pressure required for a cross bleed engine start? Where can this pressure be referenced?

A
  • 40 to 45 psi

- Status page.

197
Q

With the left engine and APU running, what powers the electrical system?

A

IDG 1 powers AC BUS 1

APU powers AC BUS 2 and AC ESS

198
Q

What conditions would preclude a single engine taxi?

A

Contaminated ramp/taxiways
Short taxi
Required by gate/airport
PIC discretion

199
Q

During a single engine taxi with the left engine running, which hydraulic pumps are running?

A

Engine driven pump 1
ACMP 2
ACMP 3A

200
Q

With the right engine running on a single engine taxi, which hydraulic pumps are on?

A

ACMP1 (if we manually turned it on)
Engine driven pump 2
ACMP 3A

201
Q

What is the maximum taxi speed on a dry surface?

A

30 kts straight, 10kts in a turn

202
Q

What is the maximum taxi speed on a contaminated surface?

A

10 kts straight, 5 kts in a turn

203
Q

If hydraulic pump 3A fails on the taxi out, what is the system logic for pump 3B?

A

3B does NOT turn on while on the ground. System logic assumes you will call MX and return to the gate

204
Q

Assuming a single engine taxi with the APU off, will you have windshield heat?

A

No, not with a single AC source. The windshield’s 120 sec PBIT should have already run by now but, if it had not run you would have both sides heated for 120 secs

205
Q

Scenario: crew must taxi out for deice/anti-ice validation

A

a) Correctly perform ground procedures
b) Receive and understand information from the deice crew
c) Correctly establish a holdover time
d) Understand difference between a pre-takeoff check and pre-takeoff contamination and when each required
e) Ensure the aircraft does not takeoff with frozen contaminates adhering to any critical surface
f) Identify the threat associated with delaying flap extension until just prior to takeoff

206
Q

Are we permitted to takeoff in heavy snow?

A

Yes, there is no holdover time so we must do a pretakeoff contamination check 5 minutes before takeoff

207
Q

What items does the takeoff configuration button check to ensure the aircraft is properly configured for takeoff?

A
  • Flaps/slats agree with perf data
  • Parking brake off
  • Trim in green arc
  • Flight spoilers
208
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind on a runway with compacted snow?

A

20 knots

209
Q

What must the PM verify prior to calling, “Thrust Checked”?

A

ATTCS turns green
N1s reach target (carrots)
Engine parameters normal

210
Q

If the “F-BUG” disappears before before total slat/flap retraction, what information can the pilot use to determine a minimum speed to retract the remaining flaps/slats?

A

Green dot + 10 knot

211
Q

If a close-in turn is required immediately after takeoff, what is the minimum speed that can be flown? What bank protection does the pilot have with this speed?

A

Initiate the turn as required at V2+ 10 kt
Single engine we have 25 degrees bank protection

Can’t find a reference for 2-engine bank protection at this speed

212
Q

Should an engine fail at V2+5 kts during takeoff, what speed will the dual cue FD command the pilot to fly?

A

V2+5

213
Q

Have the student describe each Flight Mode Annunciator change for the takeoff sequence

A
  • Start with TO ROLL TO
  • 60kts HOLD
  • 100kts TRACK
  • 200feet LNAV jumps the fence 400feet LNAV captures
214
Q

Does RTO provide the same deceleration rate as maximum manual braking?

A

Yes

215
Q

Give three examples of information supplied to the PFD by the Air Data System.

A 
– Airspeed indicator;
– Altimeter;
– Vertical speed indicator;
– Static air temperature;
– Total air temperature;
216
Q

Provide at least two higher level functions associated with the flight controls.

A
  • AOA limiting to prevent stalls
  • Elevator/rudder speed scheduling to dampen deflections at higher speeds -Yaw damper
  • Auto-thrust compensation with elevator
  • Configuration compensation when using speed brakes
    (AOM 14-08-10)
217
Q

Why is FLCH the preferred mode to use during climbout?

A

It gives us a max performance climb for the selected airspeed

218
Q

What temperature information inside the flight deck would be used to determine icing conditions in flight?

A

TAT +10 to SAT -40

Report SAT when reporting icing conditions

219
Q

Give 3 practical uses of Green Dot info on the airspeed tape.

A
  • Max endurance
  • Ideal flap extension speed
  • Flap extension speed (green dot + 10)
  • Driftdown
  • Provides a minimum margin of 1.3 g over stick shaker speed, or 40° of bank angle, for wings leveled condition during any flight
    phase and Slat/Flap setting
  • Emergency RTF landing speeds
220
Q

When are crews required to monitor flight time and fuel burn?

A

First required check is at TOC and then every hour after.

221
Q

Before attempting to balance fuel, what does the SOPM require the pilot to check first? What is the reason behind this procedure?

A

Check for fuel leak. So we don’t use all the fuel from a good tank while not using fuel from a tank that is leaking

222
Q

What is the pressurization schedule for FL360? FL380?

A

Up to FL370: 7.8 psi
Above FL370 8.4 psi

Max. Diff Over Pressure: 8.8 psi
(SOPM 02-04-4)

223
Q

If ATC asks you if you are able FL 410, are you able to accept?

A

Yes, if we are capable of that altitude at the time

224
Q

Inflight, you recieve and ENG 1 FAIL caution message. Describe the required actions and callouts?

A
  • Announce malfunction
  • PF: “CONTINUOUS”
  • Verify A/T goes to TOGA, then disengage A/T
  • Set drift down altitude, and press FLCH when you reach green down
  • Call for QRC
  • PM: set CON, declare emergency, turn seatbelt sign on, read QRC
225
Q

What generates an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS message?

A

AC main buses are de-energized

AOM 14-05-45

226
Q

What would cause the RAT to deploy automatically in flight?

A

Whenever AC power sources are not powering AC buses. (AOM 14-05-10)

227
Q

How long will the RAT take to deploy and latch to the AC Essential Bus?

A

8 seconds

228
Q

What is powering the electrical system during an electrical emergency?

A
  • RAT powers AC ESS BUS
  • The DC ESS BUSES are powered through ESS TRU
  • When we only have BATT power the DC ESS BUSES and STANDBY AC BUS is powered.
    (AOM 14-05-10)
229
Q

What is available in the flight deck to pilots during an electrical emergency?

A

Screen 2 and 3, IESS, dome light, compass light, clock
CA: Comm 1, Nav 1, IRS 1, CCD 1
FO: MCDU, FMS

230
Q

During an electrical emergency, how can you determine if the batteries are being charged?

A

Batt discharging warning message is not displayed

231
Q

Does the RAT charge the batteries? Emergency lights?

A

It charges the batteries
Does NOT charge the emergency lights
The 4 emergency light batteries are charged through DC Bus 1

232
Q

What items are on the on the AC Essential Bus?

A

3-2-2-1

Hydraulic pump 3A
AC fuel pump 2
Slat channel 2
Flap channel 1

233
Q

What is the maximum altitude the APU can be started?

A

FL300

234
Q

What is the maximum altitude the APU is operational?

A

FL330

235
Q

Will the APU automatically shut down for a fire in flight?

A

No - UFO SHELF (UFO = airborne only)

Underspeed
FADEC Fault
Overspeed

Sensor Fail
High Oil Temp
EGT High Temp
Low Oil Pressure
Fire
236
Q

What causes the CABIN ALTITUDE HI EICAS message?

A

Cabin altitude is 9,700 or higher

237
Q

When will the speed brakes automatically retract?

A

Flaps greater than 1
Speed less than 180 kts
Thrust lever angle greater than 70 degrees

238
Q

When are you required to use stall protection ice speeds for landing?

A

When STALL PROT ICE SDPs advisory message is displayed

239
Q

Give at least 3 requirements of a stabilized approach.

A

By 1500 ft AGL:

  • Landing gear DOWN
  • Airspeed no greater than 180 KIAS

At 1000 ft AGL:

  • Final landing config
  • Before Landing Checklist COMPLETE
  • Airspeed +15/-5 KIAS of target
  • On Lateral/Vertical prfile

At 500 ft AGL

  • Airspeed within speed bug
  • Thrust setting above idle
240
Q

What are the lowest SkyWest minimums for a CAT II approach?

A

1200, 600, 300

241
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for a CAT II approach?

A

15kts

242
Q

On a 2 engine approach with Flaps 1, how many hydraulic pumps are running?

A

5 pumps:

EDP 1 and 2
ACMP 1 and 2
ACMP 3A

243
Q

What is the single engine approach and landing configuration?

A

Gear down, Flaps 5

244
Q

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 3?

A

200 kts

Flaps 1 - 230 kts
Flaps 2 - 215 kts
Flaps 3 - 200 kts
Flaps 4/5 - 180 kts
Flaps Full - 165 kts
245
Q

What are the minimum autopilot altitudes?

A

Min. engagement height: 400 ft
Min. use height: 50 ft
Min. use height (non-precision approach): MDA

246
Q

When will the pilot receive windshear escape guidance on the PFD?

A

When you have a windshear warning or push the TOGA with a windshear caution

247
Q

What are the PM callouts during a windshear escape maneuver?

A

Climbing or descending, and if under 1000ft also calling out the altitude. Then telling the PF when they are out of the windshear

248
Q

Should the PF reference the aircraft symbol or FD during windshear if escape guidance is available?

A

Reference the FD

249
Q

How many ways are there to effectively extend the landing gear?

A

Three

Normal gear extension
Electric override switch
Emergency extension handle

250
Q

Give the crew a wind and runway scenario and have them calculate V approach.

A

Vapp = Vref + 1/2 HW + gust factor

Vapp = Vref + 5 (min) to Vref + 20 (max)

251
Q

What type of brakes are installed on the ERJ?

A

Carbon

252
Q

How do carbon brakes work most effectively?

A

Firm applications and they are more efficient when they heat up

253
Q

When will the auto throttles automatically retard upon landing? When will they not?

A 
Retard mode occurs at or below 30 ft.
Must have the following conditions:
- RA with valid information
- A/T engaged
- Slat/Flaps levee position at 5 or Full -Gear down
- RA below 150ft
254
Q

How should you configure the aircraft the aircraft if landing on a contaminated runway?

A

Autobrakes Medium
Flaps full
Max reverse thrust

255
Q

If you had a failure of both hydraulic systems 1 and 2, how would you bring the aircraft to a stop upon landing?

A

Using the Emergency/Parking Brake

256
Q

What additional threats do you have when attempting to stop the aircraft using only the emergency brake?

A

Skidding, locking up the wheels, blowing a tire, loss of directional control

257
Q

What is the maximum tire speed? In what scenario may this limitation be exceeded?

A

195 ground speed

Could be an issue at Hot, high airports or when you have a flap fail

258
Q

How would you configure the aircraft for engine anti-ice on after touchdown?

A

Move the ENG A/I mode selector knob to ON

259
Q

How long are you required to wait before shutting an engine down after landing? Does this change if thrust reversers were used?

A

2 minutes. Taxi time counts

Use of thrust reverse does not matter (nothing stated in SOPM)

260
Q

With one engine running at the gate and external AC connected to the aircraft, what is powering the electrical system?

A

The IDG that is running and ground power

261
Q

With the external ground power connected to the aircraft and after shutting down one engine, the GPU switchlight indicates “AVAIL” why and what should be done?

A

Push the button. The plane is ready to accept the ground power

RYAN E175 GROUND SCHOOL (21 decks)

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