Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RYAN E175 GROUND SCHOOL > Approach > Flashcards

Approach Flashcards

1
Q

Any doubt as to the approaches success must lead to a ______?

A

GO AROUND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During all phases of the approach the PF shoud guard what?

A
  • Controls
  • thrust levers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is a go-around/missed approach mandatory when flying and instrument approach?

A
  • Not enough visual guidance is available
  • visual guidance is obtained but the aircraft is out of position for a safe landing
  • approach becomes unstabilizedbelow 1000HAT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are two examples of a deviation callout made by the PM while performing an IAP?

A
  • Sink rate
  • localizer
  • glideslope
  • airspeed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If the FMS is not available to use for an IAP, what mode is to be used for lateral navigation during ALL VOR and LOC only approaches?

A

HDG mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What vertical mode(s) will be used for VOR, LOC, NDB, BC without and FMS

A

FPA or V/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What vertical mode will be used for an ILS approach without an FMS?

A

GS Mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What settings are used for decision height on CATl and CATll approaches?

A

BARO/ RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At what altitude must the aircraft be stablized on an IAP?

A

1000 HAT or a go around is mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

On a VMC circle to land maneuver, at what altitude must the aircraft be aligned with the centerline of the runway or established on the final approach course?

A

500 HAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the flap settings for CATl , approaches with no vertical guidance and visual approaches?

A

Flaps 5 or full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When must the approach speeds be corrected using the ICE ACCRETION table?

A

Anytime the EICAS message ICE PROT ICE SPEEDS is displayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At what height and speed across the threshold does the CAFM calculate landing performance values?

A

at the screen height and at VREF or VREF NEW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is VAP determined?

A

VREF + 1/2 steady state headwind component + gust increment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

VAC must be ________ than VREF

A

HIGHER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the flap setting for a CATl ILS?

A

flaps 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A CAT ll ILS VREF is the equivalent of/same as CAT l VREF plus________

A

ice accretion additive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the preferred lateral mode for beginning an IAP?

A

LNAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When the FMS flight plan is programmed for intended arrival, which vertical mode is preferred for the intial approach phase?

A

VNAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For a FMS-flown, approach with no vertical guidance, what must be displayed 2NM from the FAF and remain displayed throughout the approach?

A

APPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What two choices are available to a flight crew if a DGRAD message appears while on an FMS flown IAP?

A

Continue the approach with raw data or execute a Missed approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

During a manually flown visual approach, what mode my be used as a reference?

A

FPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

During an OEI visual approach, what bank angleshould not be exceeded while turning base to final?

A

30*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

During a procedure turn outbound on an IAP, what configuration should be selected before crossing the inbound fix?

A

Flaps 1 and reduce to Flaps 1 maneuvering speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During a procedure turn inbound on an IAP, what configuration should be selected before crossing the inbound fix?

A

Flaps 2 and reduce to Flaps 2 maneurvering speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If a complete arrival prodedure is to be flown to the lOC/GS intercept pont, what modes are acceptable for lateral and vertical navigation?

A
  • LNAV/VNAV
  • but ensure the FLIGHT PLAN (FPL) pages sequence
  • altitude restrictions and MAP display reflect the actual ATC clearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How should last minute ATC changes be handled with regards to lateral and vertical modes?

A

Appropriate use of HDG, ALT and FPA/FLCH or V/S, updating the FMS sequencing sould only occur as time permits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is ATC vectors available and recommended for use?

A

When being vectored to intercept the localizer (available within 30NM of the destination airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

For a CAT l ILS, what configuration and speed should be selected when approaching the airport, then on base and maneuvering for final?

A
  • Slow to 210kias
  • on Base, select Flaps 1
  • when maneuvering to intercept the LOC, Flaps 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When must the airplane be fully configured for landing when conducting a CAT 1 ILS?

A

Prior to crossing the FAF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is used to indicate to the aircraft that a CAT ll ILS will be flown?

A

Selection of RA minimums on the PFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How will APPR 2 capability degrdation be indicated?

A

Amber APPR 1 ONLY will flash active characters video for five seconds, then steady in conjunction iwth the RA miminum selected digital readout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

PF will cover and guard the thrust levers, TOGA button, control wheel and AP DISC at the approaching mimimums call, will divert their scan outside the aircraft, at miminums call willl do one of two things?

A
  • Calls “Landing” or
  • Selects TO/GA, Calls and executes missed approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Operation of the autopilot below _____ is______.

A
  • 50 ft
  • prohibited
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the wind limitations for the AFCS when preforming a CAT ll ILS?

A

NONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the demonstrated headwind , tailwind and crosswind components for a CAt ll ILS?

A
  • Headwind 25kts
  • txwind 10 kts
  • Cxwind 12kts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hardover is encountered while on a CAT ll ILS?

A
  • AP disengage
  • Call and execute “missed approach”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Slowover is encountered on a CAT ll ILS?

A
  • slowover tendency confirmed
  • AP disengage
  • Call and execute missed approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

CAT ll ILS, outside FAF, AP disengages twice

A

Call and execute Missed approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CAT ll ILS, inside FAF, AP disengages?

A
  • Do not re-engage AP
  • Call and execute missed approach
42
Q

There are 10 display warnings that will neccessitate abandoning the CAT ll ILS?

A
  • APPR 1 ONLY
  • APPR ll NOT AVAIL, EICAS message
  • RALT FAIL (cyan)
  • RA (amber)
  • GS (amber)
  • LOC (amber)
  • P/T (amber)
  • HDG (amber)
  • CAS (amber)
  • SPA (amber)
43
Q

Excessive deviation warning recieved below 200ft radar altitude on a CAT ll ILS

A

Discontinue

44
Q

When will an aircraft be downgraded from CAT ll status?

A
  • anytime a required component fails or
  • the required interval for system check/functional test is exceeded
45
Q

Can a CAT ll inflight functional check be performed on a revenue flight?

A

YES

46
Q

When must a CAT ll approach be logged in the MX can?

A

Whenever a pilot attempts a CAT ll approach

(regardless of conditions)

47
Q

What must an aborted CAT ll approach be logged and on what form?

A

Anytime a CAT ll app cannot be completed due to equipment failure or other problems (excluding weather )

reported on for M-88

48
Q

How many CAT ll approaches are recommedded to be flown every 90 days?

A

Three

49
Q

??What non - precision approaches can be flown with vertical guidance???

A

??Any with a defined final path descent angle??

50
Q

What vertical mode is recommended for non-precision approaches which feature a defined final path descent angle?

A

VGP

51
Q

What is the FMS/autopilot intercept angle limit?

A

90*

52
Q

The FMS may not ve used as the primay source of guidance on the final approach segment of what approaches?

A
  • ILS
  • LOC/BC
  • LDA
  • radar final approaches
53
Q

When using the FMS as the primary source of navigation and receiving vectors to final what lateral and vertical modes should be used?

A
  • HDG
  • FPA or
  • V/S
54
Q

When recieving vectors to final and using the FMS as primary source of navigation what prompt shoud be used to extend the final aproach presentation( aka “BIGGIE SIZE”)

A

ACT VECTORS

55
Q

When using FMS as primary source of navigation and being vectored to final, when should the APP or NAV button be armed?

A

Only when cleared to intercept the final approach course

56
Q

what are the possivle vertical sub-modes of the VNAV when conducting an IAP with the FMS?

A

VPATH and GP

57
Q

what does the TEMP COMP feature of the FMS do with regards to an IAP?

A

Compenstates approach altitudes from the FMS database according to the destination temerature as entered on the landing page

58
Q

If a compensated (DA) MDA is assigned on the TEMP COMP page it_________be used as the ______(DA) MDA

A
  • must
  • current
59
Q

What altitude must be selected if (V)PATH mode is used?

A

MDA

(missed approach altitude cannot be selected)

60
Q

In (V) PATH modewhen can the missed approach altitude be set in the altitude selector?

A

(V) ALT

altitude capture mode

61
Q

Which vertical mode is the preferred mode for all FMS flown approaches with no vertical guidance?

A

(V) GP mode

62
Q

When flying an approach with no vertical guidance using GP mode what must be added to the MDA?

A

50ft

63
Q

How can the use of GP mode possibly lead to an unstablized approach?

A

Capturing a glide path from above the desired GP if the vertical mode is ALT and close to or at FAF

64
Q

What should/can be done if an autothrottle failure occurs below 1000ft while on an IAP?

A

the approach may be continued if the airspeed is under control and stablilized

65
Q

What is recommended to be done in regards to landing if an ingine fails on approach with landing flaps set to 5?

A

The aircraft is already configured for landing and only a speed adjustment will be needed

66
Q

What is recommedded to be done in regards to landing if an engine fails on approach with landing flaps full?

A

Go-Around

67
Q

On a LOC only approach, when shold the PF transition from LNAV/VNAV FD mode to the PFD primary navigation mode V/L?

A

When cleared to intercept the LOC

68
Q

What vertical mode shall be used by the PF to fly a LOC only approach?

A

FPA

is preffered

69
Q

On a LOC only approach what source is used for vertical guidance?

A

PM’s GP

70
Q

What flap setting shold be used for (planned) OEI non -precision IAP?

A

Flaps 5

71
Q

When may a circling approach be intiated?

A

After visual contact with the airport

72
Q

when is the circling miminum altitude set on the altitude selector?

A

At the FAF

73
Q

What mode is used to fly the downwind leg of a circling approach?

A

HDG

74
Q

What distance is recommended to stay abeam the runway while on the downwind leg of a circling approach?

A

1.5nm

75
Q

What configuration should be established on the downwind leg of a circling approach?

A
  • Landing gear down
  • Flaps 3
76
Q

What should happen when the aircraft is abeam the threshold while performing a circling approach?

A
  • Star timer wait 20 sec
  • maintain visual references
  • select landing flaps
  • reduce to VAP
  • set go around altitude
  • perform Before landing checklist
77
Q

what configuration should be established on the downwind leg of a circling approach OEI?

A
  • Gear up
  • Flaps 2
78
Q

What should happen when the aircraft is abeam the threshold while performing a circling approach OEI?

A
  • Start timer wait 20 sec
  • maintain visual references
  • select Flaps 3
  • Prior to turning final select Flaps 5
  • reduce speed to VAP
  • set missed approach altitude
  • Before Landing checklist
79
Q

Who is primarily responsible for the missed approach call out?

A

PF

although PM can make the call out if PF does not make it in a timely fashion.

80
Q

when is it mandatory for the PM t call a go-around/missed approach?

A

when the PF does not make the call

81
Q

If a go around is required at anytime while the aircraft is maneuvering in the traffidc pattern and visual conditions cannot be maintained what should be intiated?

A
  • Intiate a climbing turn towards the runway of intended landing, when over the airport and climbing
  • turn in the shortest direction to the missed approach fix
  • proceed with the published procedure
82
Q

After pressing TOGA, what modes on the FMA should be verified active?

A
  • TRACK
  • GA
83
Q

After a go around, when will TRACK mode disengage?

A

only when another lateral mode is selected and becomes active

84
Q

What pitch should be flown in a manual go around?

A

8*

85
Q

What flap setting should be selected for a flap 5 go around?

A

Flaps 2

86
Q

When should the gear be retracted during a go around?

A

After verifiying Positive rate of climb

87
Q

What should happen at 1000ft or obstacle clearance (whichever is higher) following a go around?

A
  • Accelerate to flap retraction speed,
  • select VNAV or another vertical mode
  • accerlerate to VFS
  • as airspeed increases retract flaps according to F_BUG
88
Q

What flap setting should be selected for flaps full go around?

A

Flaps 4

89
Q

What parameters must be met for MISSED APPR mode to become active?

A

Whenver GA is active and the aircraft is between 2 NM outside FAF and the MAP

90
Q

If MISSED APPR mode is selected what mode changes occur with regards to the FMS?

A

the APR annunciator shuts off and the FMS transitions from Approach mode to the terminal mode

91
Q

What considerations must be accounted for when performing a OEI go around iwht regards to pitch rate and aileron use?

A

Rotation must be done at a slower rate and maintain heutral aileron and use rudder and yaw trim to keep wings level

92
Q

On a OEI go around what should ve selected at 400AGL?

A

select HDG and BANK mode

93
Q

What occurs at VFS during a OEI go around?

A

with landing gear and flaps retracted, select thrust CON on the MCDU TRS page and verify CON on EICAS

94
Q

What are the three recommended practices regarding pattern management while performing a no slat/flap landing?

A
  • Use autopilot
  • check landing distance/use longest runway available
  • limit bank to 20*
95
Q

When should thrust levers be set to idle on a no slat/flap landing?

A

Over the threshold

96
Q

All EGPWS warnings must not be ignored unless the runway is__________and the aircraft is ______?

A
  • in sight
  • stablized
97
Q

Unless verifed as erroneous, what must occur after receiving an EGPWS warning whild enroute or on intial approach?

A

club immediately until warning cancels and terrain separation is ahieved

98
Q

Unless verified as erroneous, what must occur after recieving an EGPWS warning while on final appraoch (VMC)

A

Correct flight path to cancel warining or perform an EGPWS/CFIT escape maneuver

99
Q

Unless verifed as erroneous, what must occur after receiving as EGPWS warning while on final approach (IMC)

A

Above 500ft AGL, correct flight path to cancel warining or perform an EGPWS/CFIT escape maneuver,

Below 500ft AGL, immediately intiate and EGPWS/CFIT escape maneuver

100
Q

When is the execution of the EGWPS/CFIT Escape Maneuver mandatory?

A

Below 500ft, AGL on final approach in IMC

101
Q

What is the emphasis placed on during a stall recovery?

A

Reduce angle of attack (nose down)

102
Q
A

RYAN E175 GROUND SCHOOL (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions