Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RYAN E175 GROUND SCHOOL > E175 Limitations > Flashcards

E175 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Start Cycles Flight

A 
1 - 120/10sec
2 - 120/10 sec
3 - 120/5 min
4 - 120/5 min
5 - 120/5 min
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Max pressure differential above 37,000ft

A

8.4 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vmin RAT for pwr

A

130 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vfe 3

A

200 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TRU

A

Convert 115v AC to 28v DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Engine dry motoring cycles

A

1st cycle: 90 sec ON 5 min OFF

2nd-5th cycles: 30 sec ON 5 min OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Min Spoiler Speed

A

180 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ROLL (YAW) TRIM RUNAWAY

A

AP/TRIM DISC BUTTON - PRESS & HOLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Max Takeoff and Landing Altitude

A

10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PTU

A

Assists gear up/down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

V wiper ops max

A

250 (SW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CABIN ALTITUDE HI

A

O2 Mask - Don 100%

Crew Communications - Establish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Airspeed ADSP and TAT valid

A

60 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Max static crosswind for takeoff

A

25 kts in new FOIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Max Single Pack Operations

A

31,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Min Temp T/O & Lnd

A

-40C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Go Around full flaps

A

Flaps 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

V Window

A

160 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

41,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Max Altitude flaps/slats extended

A

20,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Full Flaps

A

165 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Vle

A

250 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

V RAT DEPLOY MAX

A

Vmo/Mmo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Max Tailwind

A

15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Autopilot Minimum Use Height

A

50 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Vlo ext

A

250 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Autopilot Minimum Use Height Non Percision

A

MDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Smoke/Fire/Fumes

A

Oxygen Masks . . .DON 100%

Crew Communication. . .ESTABLISH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Max X-Wind - Compact Snow (RCC-4) BA=Good to Med.

A

20 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RAT

A

150 kts min to spin up 8sec
130 min sustain
Powers AC ESS Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CAT II Approach Flap Setting?

A

Flaps 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Max x-wind ice RCC-2

A

12 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight

A

69,886 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

APU running unattended

A

5 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Min runway width

A

100 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Jammed Control Column - Pitch

A

ELEVATOR DISCONNECT HANDLE - PULL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP

A

Associated Battery - OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

APU start temp

A

-54C to ISA +35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Start Cycles Ground

A 
1 - 90/10sec
2 - 90/10 sec
3 - 90/5 min
4 - 90/5 min
5 - 90/5 min
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Max X-wind Standing water/slush/Wet snow/Dry snow

A

18 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Vfe 5

A

180 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Max Runway Slope

A

+/- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

HBIT

A

60 sec

All hyd systems pressurized

Interrupt: move flight controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

APU Starter Limits

A

Attempts 1-2 - 60 Sec On - 60 Sec Off

Attempt 3 - 60 Sec On - 5 Min Off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

APU max alt for bleed air use

A

15,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Min Fuel

A

2250 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP

A

Associated Battery - OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Emergency Fuel

A

1500 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Vmo (10,000-Mach Trans)

A

320 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pitch Trim Runaway

A

AP/TRIM DISC BUTTON - PRESS & HOLD

Pitch trim sys 1&2 cutout buttons - push in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Max Temp T/O & Lnd

A

ISA +35C (52C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

DC System

A

24v charges 28v

SLAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Take-Off DATASET MENU

A

Visible moisture <1700 or <1sm vis
ENG 5-10C
ALL <4C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Vmo (SL-8000ft)

A

300 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Max pressure differential (overpressure)

A

8.8 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Min battery voltage

A

22.5V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Vfe 4

A

180 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Max Landing Weight

A

74,957 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Aircraft Length

A

103ft 11in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Engine start oil pressure limits

A

Min 25psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Brake temp for takeoff

A

In the green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Auto on ACMP flight

A

Flaps >0

If EDP fail or Eng fail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Auto on ACMP ground

A

2 if Eng 1 Start P-brake release

Flaps >0 thrust set T/o or GS>50kts

(Auto Shutoff 6min p-brake engaged)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Mmo

A

0.82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Max Takeoff Weight

A

85,517 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Go Around Flaps 5

A

Flaps 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ENGINE ABNORMAL START

A

Affected engine:

START/STOP selector. . .STOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Interrupt Electrical PBIT

A

AC pwr cycled

Normal Mode (disable FMC)

Turn on hyd pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

APU max alt

A

33,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Wingspan

A

93ft 11in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Engine start temp

A

815 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Min Batt voltage mx

A

21 v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Vb (10,000 ft and above)

A

270/.76M (whichever is lower)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

APU op temp

A

-54C to ISA +35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Slats/Flaps Enroute Ops

A

prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Vfe 1

A

230 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

SMOKE EVACUATION

A

OXYGEN MASKS - DON, EMER
CREW COMMUNICATION - ESTABLISH
PRESSURIZATION DUMP - PUSH IN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Tail Height

A

32ft 4in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Max. ramp weight (lbs)

A

85,870 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Autopilot Minimum Engagement Height

A

400 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

APU max alt for eng start

A

21,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Max X-Wind - Dry (RCC-6) BA=Dry

A

38 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Electrical PBIT

A

Good for 50 hrs

3 min, AC pwr to start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Vb <10,00ft

A

250 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

IDG

A

AC power 115vAC

1 each eng

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Max fuel imbalance

A

794 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Min Fuel Tank Temp

A

-37C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

V Tire

A

195 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Max pressure differential takeoff and landing

A

.2 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Max pressure differential (negative pressure)

A

-.5 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Va

A

240 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Max pressure differential up to 37,000ft

A

7.8 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Max Fuel Capacity

A

20,935 lb

94
Q

Min runway length

A

5,400ft reduces to

5,000ft and SAT level 1-3 <4,000ft MSL

95
Q

Min hyd reservoir temp for eng start

A

-18C

96
Q

Vfe 2

A

215 kts

97
Q

APU Max Start Alt

A

30,000 ft

98
Q

Jammed Control Wheel - Roll

A

AILERON DISCONNECT HANDLE - PULL

99
Q

Vle (retraction)

A

250 kts

100
Q

Max X-Wind - Wet (RCC-5) BA=Good

A

31 kts

101
Q

Batt 1 and 2 power time

A

10min 2 APU starts

102
Q

Max FWD Cargo Weight

A

3306

103
Q

Max AFT Cargo Weight

A

2535

104
Q

Main Landing Gear Distance Between

A

17’ 1”

105
Q

Landing Gear Distance Between Nose and Mains

A

37’ 5”

106
Q

With Battery Power Only, What Is Powered

A
  1. Lighted Compass
  2. Cpt’s DCU
  3. Glare Shield Lights
  4. Reversionary Panel
  5. Cpt’s PFD
  6. EICAS
  7. IESS
  8. Clock
  9. FO’s MCDU
  10. Cpt’s CCD
  11. Audio Control Panels - Both
  12. Dome Light At Half Intensity
107
Q

Take off with ATTCS Off?

A

Prohibited

108
Q

Fuel: Minimum fuel tank temperature

A

-37°C

109
Q

Fuel crossfeed operations

A

Must be off for takeoff

110
Q

APU: limits/restrictions

A

Wait 30 seconds after EICAS is energized to start.

Do not leave the aircraft unattended for more than five minutes with APU running.

APU bleed air and high pressure cart air is prohibited at the same time.

111
Q

Windmill Start Max Alt.

A

25,000’

112
Q

Hydraulic reservoir temperature for engine start, min.

A

-18C

113
Q

Thrust Reversers (all limits)

A

Do not attempt a go-around after deployment.

Do not move thrust levers into forward thrust range until REV icon is shown in amber or green.

Thrust reversers during taxi are prohibited.

Thrust reversers for power back are prohibited.

114
Q

Anti-ice system automatic operation temperature limit

A

No Temp. LImits

115
Q

Wing Anti-ice set on in MCDU turns on at ____

A

40Kts

116
Q

Anti-ice ENG must be selected on when ___

A

OAT is between 5°C and 10°C and:

Any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700’ AFE.

When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush maybe ingested by the engines, or freeze on Engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

117
Q

Anti-ice ALL on must be selected when ____

A

OAT is 4C and below and:

Any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700’ AFE.

When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush maybe ingested by the engines, or freeze on Engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

118
Q

Anti-ice in flight

A

System is automatic unless one or both ice detectors are failed, then crew must select anti-ice on when in icing conditions. 10°C TAT with visible moisture.

119
Q

RNAV Approach Minimums

A

RNAV (GPS) LP minima are not authorized

120
Q

Instruments - TAT, SAT, TAS only valid above __

A

60 Kts

121
Q

Navigation equipment - standby magnetic compass

A

While transmitting in VHF 1, the standby magnetic compass is not valid

122
Q

Cat 1 approach : Setting Mins

A

Barometric altimeter minimums must be used

123
Q

Enhanced ground proximity warning system (EGPWS) limitations

A

Navigation is not to be predicated on the use of the terrain awareness system.

Landing at an airport that is not in the database, EGPWS functions should be inhibited.

Use of EGPWS functions must be inhibited when GPS data is unavailable or inoperative. Press the ground proximity terrain inhibit button to inhibit predictive EGPWS functions.

124
Q

Autopilot must be used above __

A

20,000’

125
Q

Use of flight director

A

The flight director is used and updated at all times. When the flight director is not synchronized with the actual aircraft maneuver it must be updated or turned off.

Turning off flight director will not turn off autopilot.

126
Q

Auto-throttle use

A

Preferable to override the Auto-throttles than turn them off

127
Q

IESS initialization

A

The aircraft must not be moved until IESS is initialized, usually within 90 seconds after power up.

Verify only screens 2 and 3 are available.

128
Q

Electrical PBIT

A

Takes three minutes after electrical power up.

Interrupted by….

any hydraulic pump turned on.

flight control mode panel switches cycled.

A/C power supply interrupted.

129
Q

Hydraulic PBIT

A

All three hydraulic systems must be pressurized for at least 1 minute and reservoir temperature greater than 10°C.

Interrupted by moving any flight control surface

–One minute, one thing–

130
Q

Hydraulic System Warm-Up. Must be done when reservoir temperatures are below __?

A

-18°C

131
Q

Air data smart probe heater

A

Must be turned on during the first flight of the day with temperatures below -18°C, or when Smart probes are frozen.

Turn off during after start checklist.

132
Q

Ram air fault nuisance message

A

If ram air fault message remains for more than one minute after power up:

  • Pack one and pack two: push out
  • Wait five seconds
  • Pack one and pack two: push in
133
Q

Walk Around: Turbine exhaust area

A

After engine shutdown, the scavenge system is no longer a effective. A small amount of oil may leak through the oil sump drain and pool in the engine Chevron nozzle. Oil puddle must not exceed 4 inches.

134
Q

Walk Around: Brake Wear Indicators

A

Parking brake must be selected on and sufficient hydraulic pressure.

135
Q

Hoar frost layer permitted underneath wing surfaces

A

Up to 1/8 of an inch, 3 mm, is allowed

136
Q

Crew oxygen levels

A 
Green = 3 Crewmembers
Cyan = 2 Crewmembers
Amber = no dispatch
137
Q

Before start check list BELOW the line can be read___

A

Once ready to taxi signal has been received from the flight attendants and cockpit door has been closed and locked

138
Q

Auto-brakes during pushback

A

When pushback speed is higher than 5 Kts auto-brakes may disarm

139
Q

Engine start actions

A

At 7% N2 ignition, at 20% N2 fuel flow, positive oil pressure, ignition out at 50% N2.

N1 target value on EICAS must be equal or greater than but not greater than 0.5% of the computed calculation value.

SOPM 4-3.5

140
Q

IDG’s during cold weather operations

A

May take five minutes for IDG’s to stabilize

141
Q

Oil pressure during cold weather operations

A

Oil pressure may remain below minimum levels for two minutes, then engine must be shut down and oil heated to at least -20°C

142
Q

IDG faults

A

IDG 1/2 OIL Caution displayed on EICAS and amber LED illuminates on overhead panel when either:

IDG oil pressure drops below 140 psi +/- 25 PSI,

IDG oil temperature reaches 335°F +/- 10°F

Automatic disconnection is achieved at 366°F IDG oil temperature, or by manually selecting IDG disconnect position for one second.

143
Q

IDG and APU generator ratings

A

40 kVA, 115 VAC, 400 Hz, three-phase

144
Q

RAT USE and Operations

A

Deploys whenever AC power sources are not powering easy buses. After eight seconds it supplies power to the AC essential bus. During the eight second period batteries are used as backups to power the DC essential buses and standby AC bus.

RAT’s electrical power drives the AC motor driven pump 3A.

Minimum of 130 Kts maximum of VMO/MMO

150 Kts need to “latch” the contact

No altitude restriction

145
Q

TRU’s (transformer rectifier units)

A

Three on the aircraft rated at 300A.

TRU 1 , TRU 2, TRU essential.

They convert 115 VAC power from the AC buses into 28 VDC power

If one fails, the buses will automatically be powered by the remaining TRU’s

146
Q

Aircraft batteries

A

Batteries are charged by any AC source through the TRU’s

During an electrical emergency, batteries supply essential loads for 10 minutes

Battery over temp is triggered if battery temperature reaches 70°C for at least two seconds

147
Q

DC GPU

A

Used during the APU starting cycle if battery number two is below -20° C or is not available.

Suitable DC GPU should be at least 24 VDC and no more than 32 VDC, can be checked on the synoptic page

148
Q

SPDA’S (secondary power distribution assemblies)

A

An electrical load management unit which receives power from the ICC AC/DC electrical buses and distributes it to the aircraft systems.

Two in each plane, number one is in the forward electronics bay and number two is in the center electronics bay. Incorporate electronic circuit breakers to protect load distribution

149
Q

What is on the AC essential bus

A

4 things:

  • AC fuel pump 2A
  • ACMP HYD 3A
  • SF-ACE 1 FLAP ch 1 AC feed
  • SF-ACE 2 SLAT ch 1 AC feed
150
Q

Electrical priority for power

A

On side, inside, outside, Cross side

151
Q

Engine vibration indications

A

Green: normal operating range 0 to 3.9

Amber: cautionary operating range 4.0 to 5.0

Amber dashed: invalid information or value

152
Q

Air data smart probes (ADSP)

A

Comprised of:
Multi function probes,
Air data computer.

Work with TAT to sense and transmit static pressure, total pressure, angle of attack and total air temperature to the air data system

Angle of attack is calculated based on an interface between the static pressure of the smart probes

153
Q

Taxi Speeds - Dry

A

Straight - 30 Kts max

Turn - 10 Kts max

154
Q

Taxi Speeds - Wet

A

Straight - 10 Kts max

Turn - 5 Kts max

155
Q

Lavatory Waste - Size, Full mark

A

Size - 95 liters MAX

Full - (Service Light) @ 75% (71.25 liters)

156
Q

Potable Water Amount

A

70 liters MAX

157
Q

Brake Locked Wheel Protection

A

Active anytime on ground and wheel speeds greater than 30 kts. Compares wheel speeds, anytime they differ by 33% or more the brake control module releases either opposite outboard or opposite inboard brake pressure until both wheels equalize. The 33% tolerance is to allow for steering with differential breaking.

158
Q

Cabin High Altitude

A

9,700’

159
Q

Engine Out Distance for Takeoff Alt.

A

300nm

160
Q

MINTO

Min. Takeoff Fuel

A

Fuel to fly from A to B + 45min. reserve + furthest Alternate + Holding fuel

161
Q

RLSF

Release Fuel

A

MINTO + Contingency Fuel + Taxi Fuel

162
Q

Fuel Gauges Turn Amber? Red?

A

2640 total = 1320lbs /side

Fuel Low Level @ 660lbs. Either Tank

163
Q

Things That Cause A Red Light For The Tug Driver

A
  1. Parking Brake On
  2. Toe Brakes depressed
  3. Steering Engaged
  4. External Disconnect Switch Not On
164
Q

T.O. Config Is Checking

A
  1. Parking Break
  2. Spoilers
  3. Flaps
  4. Trim

“Please Stop For Takeoff”

165
Q

Fab 4

For After Stall/Wake/Uncontrolled Maneuver

A
  1. FLCH
  2. HDG
  3. A/P
  4. A/T
166
Q

When does Auto Throttle take over?

A

At 50° TLA

167
Q

Climb/Cruise/Descent Deviation and Callouts - SPEED

A

Target speed +/- 10 KIAS or .02 Mach

168
Q

Climb/Cruise/Descent Deviation and Callouts - BANK

A

Bank angle in excess of 30°

169
Q

Climb/Cruise/Descent Deviation and Callouts - HEADING

A

Heading differs from bugged +/- 10°

170
Q

Climb/Cruise/Descent Deviation and Callouts - COURSE

A

Course differs from the established course by 1/4 deflection

171
Q

Climb/Cruise/Descent Deviation and Callouts - PITCH

A

Pitch angle above or below typical angles, may result in a profile deviation

172
Q

Climb/Cruise/Descent Deviation and Callouts - VERTICAL SPEED

A

Vertical speed too high or low, may result in a profile deviation

173
Q

Climb/Cruise/Descent Deviation and Callouts - Call the failure

A

Any autopilot or flight director malfunction

174
Q

Contaminated Runway

A

A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the reported length and width being used, is covered by more than 1/8”, 3MM, of standing water or it’s equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow or any depth of ice or compacted snow.

175
Q

Stabilized Approach Windows

By 1,500’ AGL/RA or the FAF, whichever occurs later…

A
  • Landing gear down

- Airspeed no greater than 180 KIAS

176
Q

Stabilized Approach Windows

At 1,000’ AGL/RA

A
  • Final landing configuration
  • Airspeed with in +15 and minus 5 KTS of target airspeed
  • On the lateral and vertical profiles/minor bracketing
177
Q

Stabilized Approach Windows

By 500’ AGL

A
  • Airspeed indication established within the speed bug

- Thrust setting above idle

178
Q

RNP Airspeed Restrictions - All RF legs

IAF to FAF

A

250 KTS or charted speed (controlling)

179
Q

RNP Airspeed Restrictions - All RF legs

FAF to DA

A

165 KTS (Cat D) or charted speed (controlling)

180
Q

RNP Airspeed Restrictions - All RF legs

DA to MAHP (missed approach holding point)

A

265 KTS or charted speed (controlling)

181
Q

RNP - Terrain Map

A

Minimum of one pilot must have the terrain map up on MFD.

182
Q

Approach - Temperature Compensation

A

Approach - Temperature Compensation
1. When Airport 10-7 has blue bar with temperature restriction column.

  1. OAT at airport is outside of approach operational temp limits in the remarks section of the IAP
  2. When OAT is less than -30•C at any foreign airports.

Don’t forget to tell ATC you are using temp compensation. Must give corrected altitudes at intermediate altitude segment (initial intercept altitude) and published missed approach hold point.

183
Q

Pressing the TOGA button/s - Speed schedule

A

Pressing the TOGA button/s - Speed schedule
Initially commands Vref + 20 kts

Once reaching VNAV Cap alt, a/c accelerates to go-around flap speed schedule.

184
Q

TOGA - Missed Approach sequencing.

A

TOGA will not sequence the missed approach point until you are two miles prior to FAF.

185
Q

RNP - Procedure to discontinue the approach

NEED TO VERIFY THIS

A

Callout, “Discontinue”

Deselect APP and verify LNAV is the new active horizontal mode

Set 165 KTS manually

Set missed altitude and press FLCH

Have PM sequence missed in FMS (LSK L6, Flight Plan page)

186
Q

RNP - Required Flaps setting

A

Flaps 5 for RNP

187
Q

RNP - Altimeter Settings limit

A

Remote altimeter settings are not authorized.

PM must perform Altimeter crosscheck at FAF: Limits 100’ of each altimeter and 100’ of FAF altitude

188
Q

RNP- Single Engine

A

Is Authorized

189
Q

Flaps Maneuvering Speeds

A

Provide at least 1.3 g margin over stick shaker which is equivalent to a shaker free bank angle of 40°

190
Q

RNP - Pilot Qualification

A

Both pilots must have been qualified in the Sim to shoot an RNP approach.

191
Q

Green dot

A

Provides at least 1.3 G margin over stick shaker speed, adjusted for the current airplane weight.

Green dot can be used as the flap maneuvering speed. Flap Ext./Retract (+10 Kts.)

L/D Max

SE Drift down speed.

Emergency Return Speed

192
Q

Cold Weather Preflight required when….

A

The OAT is 5°C or less

The wing fuel temperature 0° or less

Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exist

The aircraft has remained overnight and has frozen contaminants adhering to surfaces

Any through flight where residual ice from the inbound flight may have accumulated on the airframe surfaces or components

Cold soak ice is suspected in the fuel tank area.

193
Q

Unreliable Airspeed - Actions

A 
Verbalize indicators
PF disconnects auto pilot
PF disconnects auto throttles
PF determines initial pitch and power for safe flight.
PM complete QRH procedure correctly

Quick reference…..

Clean: 70% N1 and 2° pitch up
(2° to5° window for cruise)

Flaps extended: 70% N1 and 7° pitch up

194
Q

Unreliable Airspeed - Causes

A 
Failure of pitot-static system
Failure of AOA probe
Failure of air data computer
Failure of an IRU
Damaged or missing radon's
195
Q

Windshear Alerting is active from __ ‘to ___’?

A

10’ to 1500’ Radio Altitude during takeoff, go around, and landing

196
Q

How do you activate windshear escape after receiving a windshear caution?

A

Press TOGA to activate windshear escape guidance

197
Q

APU Auto Shutdown in Flight

A

UFO
U Underspeed
F Fadec Crit Fault
O Overspeed

198
Q

APU Auto Shutdown on ground

A 
UFOSHELF
Underspeed
Fadec Crit. Fault
Overspeed
Sensor Failure 
High Oil Temp.
EGT Overtemp
Low Oil Pressure
Fire Detected
199
Q

Higher Level Elevator Functions - Elevator

A

AoA Limiting
Thrust Compensation
Speed Compensation
Speed Brakes Compensation

200
Q

Higher Level Functions - Ailerons

A

Roll Spoiler Scheduling

Ground Spoiler Auto Deploy

201
Q

Higher Level Functions - Rudder

A

Rudder Flight Authority

Yaw Damp Turn Coordinator Via AFCS

202
Q

When is flex takeoff prohibited?

A

Windshear Reported
Contaminated Runways
When specified by a departure procedure

203
Q

PBE (Hood) Normal Indication? Humidity?

A

Blue Humidity = Pink

204
Q

Deploying Cargo Fire Bottles

Annunciated vs Non-Annunciated

A

Push once +
+1 for Non- Annunciated
+1 for on the ground

205
Q

Pulling the fire handle - Engines

A

closes
Fuel Shutoff Valve
Hydraulic Shutoff valve
Bleed Air shutoff valve

206
Q

Fire and Smoke Detected in the FWD Cargo Bay

A

Air circulation fan is turned off
Ventilation outflow is close
high rate fire bottle armed

207
Q

Pressurization- Recirc Button Auto Mode

A

Turns on the RECIRC fans when:
At least 1 pack is on.

Turns the RECIRC fans OFF when:
Both PACKs are off
Cargo or recirculation bay SMOKE is detected

208
Q

PAX CABIN Knob requires ________

A

PACK 2 operating

209
Q

PACK in auto mode closes the valve (turns the pack off) automatically when:

A

Engine Start

Associated bleed duct leak is detected

210
Q

Pressurization- XBLEED Auto

A

OPENS the XBLEED Valve when bleed air is available on one side and not the other
CLOSES the valve automatically when:
1.Bleed leak detected (unless starting engine)
2. A fire extinguishing handle has been pulled

211
Q

External Air Connections

A

HP High Pressure. Used for Engine start if APU INOP

LP Low Pressure used for cabin heating and cooling (not shown on the synoptics page)

212
Q

APU BLEED Set to Auto:

A 
OPENS Automatically when:
When APU bleed is available
CLOSES Automatically when:
APU or left bleed leak is detected
Anti Ice system is on
Left engine bleed is available (in most cases engine bleed valves have priority over
213
Q

Pressurization DUMP BUTTON

A

When Pressed:

  1. OPENING the OFV (outflow valve) to command a 2000fpm cabin climb to 12,400’ cabin altitude
  2. Commands PACK’s off
  3. Commands Recirculating fans off
214
Q

How long does the passenger oxygen supply last:

A

12 Min

215
Q

Fuel Tanks each side

A
  1. Surge Tank Contains fuel vent
  2. Main Tank Main fuel storage area
  3. Collector Tank: Where AC, DC and Ejector pumps are located
216
Q

DC Fuel Pump:

A

Located in the right wing
Primarily used to supply fuel to APU during start without AC power
Can also be used to start Engine 2 without AC power
Can be used during and ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY, to start APU and Engine 2

217
Q

AC Standby Buss

A

Powered through the DC ESS BUS through and inverter when batteries are turned on.
Powers Exciter(Igniter) 1 per engine
Allows engine start with no AC power

218
Q

Static Air Tempature

A

Temp. of the air around the plane as if it were standing still

219
Q

Total Air Tempature (TAT)

A

Temp. of the air experience by the moving plane. includes heating from compression. TAT is used for aircraft icing awareness. Compare to the release for performance awareness.

220
Q

Display Selector Knob selects for which display

A

MFD

221
Q

ADS Reversion Button

A

Can selected another Air Data Source.
CA PFD defaults to ADS 1
FO PFD defaults to ADS 2
ADS 3 is a dedicated backup.

If failure. Default is backup then x-side

222
Q

ADS Reversion Button

A

Can selected another Air Data Source. (3 on plane)
CA PFD defaults to ADS 1
FO PFD defaults to ADS 2
ADS 3 is a dedicated backup.

If failure. Default is backup then x-side

223
Q

IRS (inertial reference system)

A

2 on the plane.

Provides roll pitch and heading information

224
Q

ADS Components

A

ADSP (Air Data Smart Probes)
Total Air Temperature Probes (TAT)
Air Data Applications (ADA)

225
Q

Air Data Smart Probes

A

Composed of:
Multi Function Probes
Air Data Computer

Calculates:
Static Pressure
Total Pressure
AoA
Total AIr Temperature
226
Q

While the PA button is selected all other transmissions are disables

A

True

227
Q

DVDR System

A

Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder
Stores 120 minutes of audio
Stores flight data
Used for safety trends and after accidents
Used for FOQA

228
Q

When will the auto throttles automatically retard upon landing? When will they not?

A 
Reduces thrust levers at 30 feet. Requires:
Valid Radar Altimeter 
Landing Gear down
AT engaged
Altitude below 150 AGL 
Slat Flap at 5 or full
229
Q

Loss of Audio Panel, How do we activate backup radio?

A

MCDU Radio page 2

230
Q

ATTCS Engages Reserve Thrust:

A

Thrust levers at TOGA and :

  1. N1 Values greater than 15% difference
  2. 1 engine failure during takeoff
  3. 1 engine failure during go around
  4. Windshear

RYAN E175 GROUND SCHOOL (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions