2020 CQ Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the Emergency/Parking brake need to be on prior to starting the external inspection?

A

So the brake wear pins show correctly

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2
Q

Just because the parking brake is on, does this guarantee that there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to check the brake wear indicators?

A

No, the EMERG/PRKG BRAKE light has to illuminate which indicates sufficient pressure in brake lines

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3
Q

If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to the external walkaround?

A

Turn on HYD pumps 1 & 2 and verify brake pressures are in the green

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4
Q

On the walkaround you see ADSP covered in frost, what would you do?

A

Turn on ADSP heater switches on FO side

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5
Q

Provide at least one other condition that would require the heat being applied to the ADSP’s during preflight

A
-18ºC
Any or all on EICAS
AFCS FAULT
AT FAULT
AP FAIL 
FD FAIL
YD FAIL
APPR 2 NOT AVAIL
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6
Q

Describe the preflight action outlined in the SOPM for the Nose Landing Gear

A

Wheel Chocks …………………………………………………………………..IN
Wheels and Tires ……………. CONDITION • *** Clear of ice
Up Lock Hook ………………………………………………… UNLOCKED
Downlock Springs ………………………………………….. CONDITION
Strut/Wheel Well/Doors ………. CONDITION and NO LEAKS
Ground Locking Pin …………………………………………… REMOVED
Landing and Taxi Lights ………………………………… CONDITION

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7
Q

What unique piece of equipment resides in the right forward fuselage? Describe the SOPM external preflight of the RAT.

A

RAT Safety Lock Pin ………………………………… REMOVED

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8
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Engine Inlet according to the SOPM?

A

Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet. Left Side: Ensure there is no damage to the T12 Sensor and the FADEC Cooling Inlet is clear.
Clear of ice or snow

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9
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM?

A
  • Check for damaged fan blades and ensure fan is free to rotate
  • Check for damage on spinner
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10
Q

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of the engine?

A

Yes

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11
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing?

A

3 Per Wing

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12
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection according to the SOPM.

A

Right Main Gear …………………………………….CHECK
• *** Clear of ice and unobstructed
Wheels and Tires ………………………………….. CONDITION
Up Lock Hook ………………………………………. UNLOCKED
Downlock Springs ……………………………. CONDITION
Strut/Wheel Wells ……………..CONDITION AND NO LEAKS
Ground Locking Pin ……………………………….. REMOVED
Brakes Pin Indicators ……………………………………..CHECK

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13
Q

How many static discharges are on the aileron? Winglet? What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharges?

A

Aileron 3 Static Dischargers
Winglet 6 Static Dischargers
Rudder 4 Static Dischargers
Elevator 8 total 4 each side

Refer to the CDL for dispatch with missing items

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14
Q

You’re sitting at the gate when a BATT 1 OVERTEMP warning message appears. What do you do? How do you verify that this action was effective?

A

MEMORY ITEM Batt 1 (2) Overtemp:
“ASSOCIATED BATTERY………….. OFF

QRC
QRH (EAP 5-1)
Watch battery temp on the MFD and make sure it lowers

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15
Q

You’re starting an engine and notice that the ITT is rapidly rising toward the ITT redline. What temperature is redline, and what do you do?

A

815° C
MEMORY ITEM Engine Abnormal Start:
“AFFECTED ENGINE START/STOP SELECTOR…. STOP”

QRC
QRH (NAP 1-7)
Call MX

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16
Q

On taxi to the runway, the airplane begins veering to the left aggressively. What might you do?

A

MEMORY ITEM Steering Runaway
Steering DISENGAGE switch………….. PRESS
Steer using differential braking

QRC
QRH (NAP 1-16)

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17
Q

Shortly after takeoff, the cockpit starts filling with smoke. What do you do? Where is this procedure located in the QRH, what section?

A

MEMORY ITEM Smoke Evacuation
Crew Oxy Masks…………….. DON, EMER
Crew communication……….. ESTABLISH
DUMP Button………………… Push in

QRC
QRH - Smoke section. S1-3. Big letters before NAP/EAP

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18
Q

You’re flying in cruise at FL350 when you hear the triple chime and see CABIN ALTITUDE HI on the EICAS. What do you do?

A

MEMORY ITEM Cabin Alt High
Crew Oxy Masks……………. DON, 100%
Crew communications……… ESTABLISH
QRC

QRH (EAP 2-1) will take you through memory item plus this
Altitude……………………….. 10,000ft or MEA, whichever is higher
Thrust Levers………………… IDLE
Speedbrake lever……………. FULL OPEN
Airspeed………………………MAX/APPROPRIATE
Transponder………………….. 7700
ATC……………………………. NOTIFY
NOTE - both SOPM/QRH call for Masks deploy… OVRD @ 14,500ft Cab alt.

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19
Q

You’re flying in cruise when the autopilot disconnects and the airplane begins to pitch up, in spite of nose- down control pressure. What do you do?

A

MEMORY ITEM Pitch Trim Runaway
AP/TRIM DISC Button……………… PRESS AND HOLD
Pitch Trim SYS 1 and SYS 2 CUTOUT buttons……. PUSH IN

QRC
QRH (NAP 1-15)

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20
Q

Where is the battery temperature read? Give another example of why it is always important to view the appropriate synoptic page(s) when troubleshooting a problem.

A

MFD Electrical systems synoptic page down on the bottom
Synoptic pages help gain the BIG picture and going to the proper synoptic page will help you see that. (i.e. just looking at the flight control page might show some malfunctioning control surfaces however you’d notice that it is stemming from a hydraulic pump failure by looking at the hyd synoptic page)

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21
Q

What CAUTION message will populate when the Associated Battery is selected off?

A

BATT 1 OFF or BATT 2 OFF (NOT batt 1(2) off)

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22
Q

List four of the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start.

A

No positive oil pressure indication within 10 seconds after N2 starts to increase
No N1 increase before starter cutout (50% N2)
No ITT within 30 seconds
ITT exceeds 815°C - HOT start
Oil pressure stabilizes low
N1 and/or N2 stabilizing too low - HUNG start
Intermittent malfunction (electrical, pneumatic, or starter)
NOTE - FADEC will abort for HOT, HUNG, or NO

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23
Q

Will the CABIN ALTITUDE HI likely result in a descent? What Altitude will you descend to? How would you find the MEA - demonstrate?

A

Absolutely it would. Here are the steps: (EAP 2-1)

MEMORY ITEM
Crew 02 masks - DON, 100%
Crew communication - ESTABLISH

QRC
QRH
Altitude - 10000ft or MEA whichever is higher
Thrust Levers - Idle
Speedbrake lever - Full open
Airspeed - MAX APPROPRIATE
Transponder - 7700 
ATC - NOTIFY
Bring up Terrain page on MFD
Set 10,000, or the MEA for that area. (Red numbers on the LOW enroute chart)
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24
Q

What action does the SOPM require when the cabin altitude reaches 14,500’ on an emergency descent?

A

EAP 2-1 “MASKS DEPLOY Selector - OVRD

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25
Q

How must the MFD be configured for an emergency descent?

A

Terrain

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26
Q

Is the PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY addressed by the QRC? In what section of the QRH is it located? (QRH NAP1-15)

A

Yes - Memory Item - Pitch Trim Runaway

​QRH NAP1-15

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27
Q

How would you alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies with a PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY?

A

Continuous Turns

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28
Q

When powering-up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is required? When would you need to perform the SOPM charging procedure? (AOM1 3-05,SOPM CH4.Saftey and Power up)

A

22.5 volts
If between 21.0-22.5 - charging procedure
If below 21.0 - MX

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29
Q

After EICAS is powered up, how long must we wait before starting the APU?

A

30 seconds

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30
Q

Can takeoff/landing occur with the fuel imbalance EICAS message displayed?

A

Yes as long as it is less than 794 lbs

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31
Q

Min fuel tank temperature?

A

-37°C

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32
Q

Starter cranking limits

A
GROUND
1-2 		90 seconds on		10 seconds off
3-5		90 seconds on 	5 minutes off
IN FLIGHT
1-2		120 seconds on	10 seconds off
3-5 		120 seconds on 	5 minutes off
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33
Q

During engine start we must see N1 rotation by what N2?

A

50% N2 - At high risk while starting with tailwind

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34
Q

Wingspan?

A

93’ 11”

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35
Q

Max tailwind component for takeoff?

A

15 kts

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36
Q

Are static takeoffs recommended for takeoffs with a crosswind component of over 30 kts?

A

No

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37
Q

What is the minimum runway width?

A

100 ft

However we can operate on runways that have a cleared width min of 80’

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38
Q

ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulence ahead. What’s the turbulent air penetration speed? Is it a target or a maximum speed?

A

VB (below 10,000) – 250kts
VB (10,000 and above) – 270/.76 (whichever is lower)
TARGET SPEED

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39
Q

Max APU altitude?

A

Start - 30,000 ft
Continuous - 33,000 ft
Bleed use - 15,000 ft
Engine start - 21,000 ft

40
Q

If flying a CAT II approach, what flap setting is required?

A

Flaps 5

41
Q

VWiper

A

250 kts

42
Q

Can we use VNAV LPV mins?

A

No, not authorized (except one plane)

43
Q

Can we initiate a go-around after TR’s deployed?

A

NO!

44
Q

Do the controls and throttles need to be guarded during all phases of the approach and landing when the auto-flight system is engaged? Why?

A

Yes, to be ready to manually takeover if necessary

45
Q

Is it permissible to turn the Landing lights off while on an approach in IMC if they pose a distraction?

A

Yes

46
Q

Is it recommended that the PM call out any observed deviations while on approach?

A

Yes, PM MUST call out deviations

47
Q

DEVIATION

Localizer and/or GP deviation greater than 1 dot

A

CALLOUT

“Localizer” / “Glide Path”

48
Q

DEVIATION
Above: Target Speed + 10 KIAS
Below: Target speed -5 KIAS; or any speed less than Vref, whichever is higher

A

CALLOUT

“Speed”

49
Q

DEVIATION

Rate of descent more that 1000’/min.

A

CALLOUT

“Sink Rate”

50
Q

DEVIATION

Bank angle in excess of 25°

A

CALLOUT

“Bank”

51
Q

DEVIATION

Pitch angle below -5° or above 5° in relation to the established pitch

A

CALLOUT

“Pitch”

52
Q

​DEVIATION

Any autopilot of FD malfunction

A

CALLOUT

Call the failure

53
Q

​DEVIATION

EGPWS callouts not performed automatically by the airplane

A

CALLOUT

Perform the callouts

54
Q

What is the PF’s response to any of the deviations?

A

CALLOUT

Correcting

55
Q

It is critical to a safe operation that pilots meet stabilized approach criteria by what altitud
e?

A

Yes

1500 AGL or RA or FAF
Gear Down
Airspeed less than 180kts

1000 AGL/RA
Before Landing Check 
AS +15/-5 of Target
On Lateral Profile
On Vertical Profile
IF not ---- correcting

500 AGl/RA
Airspeed in Bug
Thrust not Idle

56
Q

If any of the planned parameters are not met on approach to landing at or below 500’ AGL, what is the PM required to do?

A

Call out “Unstable, Go Around.”

State parameter that has not been met (i.e. speed, bank, etc.)

57
Q

What does MINTO include?

A

Holding
Burn
Alternate (most distant)/go-around
Reserve

58
Q

What does release fuel include?

A

MINTO (HBAR)
Taxi out
Contingency
Then rounded to nearest 100

59
Q

What is the specific “Go-Around” fuel?

A

700lbs extra

60
Q

When an alternate is planned, the standard go-around fuel is added to what fuel category on the dispatch release? (Dispatch release explanation guide p.01.4)

A

Fuel required to fly to the Alternate (Most Distant) + the 700 LBS of GA fuel

61
Q

Can go-around fuel be reduced to meet a weight restriction? (Dispatch release explanation guide p.01.4)

A

No

62
Q

Planned reserve fuel is calculated at what speed and

altitude? (Dispatch release explanation guide p.01.4)

A

15,000 ft

250 KIAS

63
Q

What duration is planned reserve fuel designed to achieve? (Dispatch release explanation guide p.01.4)

A

45 Minutes

64
Q

Planned hold fuel is calculated at what weight and altitude? (Dispatch release explanation guide p.01.4)

A

Planned Landing Weight at 10,000 ft above destination airport

65
Q

If the AVG TMP DEV for CRZ is blank, what does this indicate? (Dispatch release explanation guide p.01.5)

A

Average temp deviation is 0°C (zero), or ISA ●

66
Q

Does the dispatch release list both scheduled and estimated times of departure and arrival? (Dispatch release explanation guide p.01.7)

A

Yes, it lists scheduled and planned times.

67
Q

The Maximum wind level (MWL) listed on the release is the height of what?

A

Tropopause

68
Q

Is there any way you can determine how much fuel you are predicted to burn per hour for this flight? (Ref. Dispatch Release Explained)

A

Yes.

EFB estimated fuel burn, total fuel burn since takeoff, and estimated remaining fuel (#59 on release explanation)

69
Q

Required items on a release?

A

DIMMWIT

Dep/Dest 
IFR/VFR
MINTO
MEL or CDL’s (any that are open) 
WX reports and forecasts for dep/dest, enroute, and alternates
Flt ID
Tail #
70
Q

You notice that one of the flight attendant’s names listed on the release does not match your current crew. Give at least two ways you can amend the release? (Ref. FOM Chapter 5)

A

FliteView
ACARS
Verbal communication with the dispatcher over phone or radio
If a paper release is used, the PIC can put a slash through the old FA’s name and pen in the new name.

71
Q

What is the latest time you can push back from the gate without amending this release?

A

1 hour, 59 minutes?

72
Q

If you were uncertain about whether a situation required an amendment to the release, how could you verify using your EFB?

A

FOM Chapter 5, Part L

Or FAR/FOM cross reference chapter 9

73
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When the weather minimums (visibility only) at the airport of departure are below the landing minimums for that airport.
The alternate must be within 1 hour of flight at normal cruise on one engine (ERJ-300nm)

74
Q

Explain why a destination alternate would be needed?

A

1, 2, 3 rule (hour before/after ETA, ceilings below 2000, visibility less than 3
Airport is in AK and doesn’t have more than one one separate suitable runway for the type of A/C used
Destination has no instrument approach
Freezing precip is in the forecast
RCC values of less than 3

75
Q

If you cannot recall all of the conditions that require a destination alternate, where can you find these requirements using your EFB?

A

FOM chap 5 or 7

FAR/FOM Cross reference

76
Q

If you have both a destination and second alternate listed on the release, which one is used by the Dispatcher to determine your FAR reserve fuel?

A

The most distant one

77
Q

The weather is below 1,000’ ceiling and 3sm visibility, what two conditions permit a turn at less than 1,000’ above field elevation? (SkyWest Airlines Performance Handbook 2.1 General/Takeoff path)

A

Special departure procedure prescribes otherwise

Assigned Instrument departure specifically requires a turn before reaching 1,000’ AFE

78
Q

Flap retraction altitude (FRA) is at 1000’ AFE unless what?

A

A special Procedure prescribes otherwise

79
Q

With regard to Standard Engine Failure Takeoff Path, if an engine failure occurs below 1,000’ AFE on takeoff, what altitude would you climb to before turning to a Heading or Navaid as listed on the release?

A

Climb straight ahead to 1,000 AFE

80
Q

With regard to Standard Engine Failure Takeoff Path,

if a turn is required, what bank angle would be used? (SOPM 04-08.13 of 21)

A

15° at V2
20° at V2+5
25° at V2+10

81
Q

With regard to Standard Engine Failure Takeoff Path, if a NAVAID is listed, upon reaching the NAVAID, what is the crew expected to do?

A

Hold standard (right turns 1 minute) on the inbound radial with a direct entry

82
Q

With regard to Standard Engine Failure Takeoff Path, if a heading is listed, how long/far do you remain on that heading?

A

In IMC - until the MSA in that area. Vectors can be accepted above 1000ft.
VMC - climb straight to 1000’ then land visually

83
Q

With a simple-special procedure, are engine failure climb speeds and initial headings or courses always listed in the procedure?

A

Not unless they are different than the standard Single engine failure profile

84
Q

Where would a crew find a systematic flow that represents current TALPA/RCAM and FOM policies?

A

In the Runway condition decision matrix

(ERJ175 folder) weather section

85
Q

Where is the RCAM/Braking Action Table located?

A

Weather section

86
Q

Give at least two atmospheric conditions that require a cold weather inspection?

A

OAT 5°C or less
Wing fuel temp is 0°C or less
Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing
Aircraft has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminants
Residual ice from a previous flight
Cold soak ice is suspected in the fuel tank area

87
Q

When would the pilot select the anti-ice to ALL

A

OAT is less than 5°C and
There is a possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1,700’ AFE
When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines

88
Q

What must be verified on the exterior of the aircraft with respect to the engine start during cold weather operations?

A

“Freedom of the N1 fan rotation is verified and all ice deposits are removed from the air inlet”

89
Q

After establishing AC power, the captain notices the E-PBIT was never initiated. What would prohibit it from running?

A

Any hyd pump running
FCM switches are cycled
Or AC power is interrupted

90
Q

What would be an appropriate action by the crew should the E-PBIT fail to run?

A
Power down aircraft
Wait 1 minute
Perform the power up procedure
Wait three minutes
Perform a H-PBIT when required
91
Q

When is a hydraulic warm-up test required?

A
Before starting the engines when the reservoir temperatures are below -18°C
Accomplished by:
Hyd 1, 3A 		on
PTU			on
Wait 30 seconds
PTU			Auto
Hyd 2 			on
Verify temps warmer than -18°C
Hyd 1, 2		Auto
Hyd 3A		Off
92
Q

Assuming a single engine taxi with the APU off, will heat be applied to the windshield?

A

No, the windshield heater needs two sources of AC power

93
Q

What is the max speed while taxiing straight ahead on a contaminated taxiway? Where is your ground speed shown?

A

10kts straight
5 kts turning
On the PFD

94
Q

If both ice detector probes fail do we have ice protection? If so, how?

A

Yes, you can manually turn on the system

95
Q

When is a runway considered to be contaminated?

A

More than 25% of the runway surface area is covered more than 1/8 inch of standing water or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow, or any depth of compacted snow

96
Q

With a RCC value of 4/4/3 listed on the current ATIS, should we utilize the max performance landing technique? If so, what does that consist of?

A

Yes we should. SOPM says to “consider using”

Autobrake MED
Firm touchdown
Max reverse thrust
Firm and symmetrical braking (don’t pump the brakes)
If the airplane loses friction, don’t apply the Emergency/parking brake
Maintain centerline with rudder while maintaining symmetrical braking
(Don’t land with a tailwind)

97
Q

What is the difference between a pretakeoff check and a pretakeoff contamination check?

A

Whether the HOT has expired or not.
Pretakeoff check is WITHIN HOT and can be accomplished from the Flight deck or whatever vantage point the PIC deems a good representative view
Contamination check utilizes the out of FD protocol and the surfaces are viewed from within the cabin