Before Landing Checklist / Landing Flashcards

1
Q

At what point is the Before Landing Checklist called for?

A

After the landing gear is down and Flaps 3 is called

(excluding circle to land manever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What guidance should be used for extending flaps

A

Green Dot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What guidance shold be used to extend flaps in icing conditions?

A

Green dot + 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In the event of IAS information loss, slat/flap position loss or slat/flap lever position disagreement what shold be referenced in regards to extending flaps?

A

QRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In general, when shold the final landing configuation be established for visual and IAP landings?

A

Early on the final approach in VMC and by the FAF in IMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the recommended flare procedure for a touchdown in the landing zone?

A

Flare approximately 30 - 20 ft HAT

(normally a 2* to 3* pitch change will be enough for the flare)

and slowly reduce thrust levers to idle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

On landing is aerodynamic braking allowed?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If reverse thrust is used, at 80kts smoothly _____ reverse thrust to___________by______and __________by _______?

A
  • reduce
  • MIN REV
  • 60 kts
  • idle thrust
  • 30 kts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what runway conditions warrant the use of maximum reverse thrust?

A

On wet, slippery and contaminated runways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Below 60KIAS the risk of FOD ingestion due to the use of reverse thrust____________?

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When can reverse thrust be used (below60/30kts) until the aircraft has come to a complete stop?

A

Only when necessary to provide full stopping authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At what speed does the rudder lose aerodynamic effectiveness?

A

60kias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Does the use of the autobrakes system relieve the flight crew from the responsibility of stopping the aircraft on the runway with brake pedals?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long should the aurtobrakes system be allowd to remain engaged, upon landing?

A

As long as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the normal autobrakes settings for takeoff and landing?

A

RTO for takeoff

Low for landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should transition to manual braking take place?

A

80kias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when can the transition to manual braking take place, and how is this accomplished?

A

anytime

any suitable speed after touchdown by pressing the brake pedals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If landing on a runway with degraded braking conditions, at what point shold the transition to manual braking occur?

A

Until a safe taxi speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_______the tendancy to _____ braking when transitioning from autobraking to manual braking and avoid_______ braking to make a convienient turnoff?

A
  • avoid
  • increase
  • excessive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For optimum manual braking on all runway conditons when should the brakes be applied?

A

With no delay after the main landing gear wheels have touched down

21
Q

During some abnormal/emergency conditions it is required the emergency/paking brake must be used to stop the aircraft, in these cases what braking protections are not available?

A
  • locked wheel protection
  • antiskid protection
  • touchdown protection
22
Q

If the emergency/parking brake must be used to stop the aircraft upon landing what will happen to the deflection/position of the handle as the aircraft slows?

A

The handle will continue to increase deflection to maintain continuous braking

23
Q

If a tire bursts upon landing while using the emergency/parking brake what should not be done until the aircraft comes to a complete stop?

A

The braking handle should continue to be applied (do not release the handle)

24
Q

Describe the maximum landing performance techniques

A
  • Full flaps
  • cross threshold at screen height (50ft) and VREF
  • avoid extended flare
  • apply maximum reverse thrust (if nec max rev thrust until complete stop
  • after main wheel touchdown apply firm and steady maximum steady brake pressure
  • lower nose wheel immediately
25
Q

When is the use of the MED autobrake setting reccommended?

A

On wet, slippery or contaminated runways

26
Q

At what bank angle will the engine nacelle stike the ground at normal and compressed strut positions?

A
  • 16* compressed
  • 18* normal strut extension
27
Q

Crossing threshold at 100 ft , VREF +10 and with 3 seconds of extra flare can increase landing distance by apprx how much?

A

80%

28
Q

What is the most important/safest way to deal with windshear?

A

avoid it

29
Q

What is the defination of severe windshear?

A

Rapid change in wind direction or velocity resuling in airspeed changes greater than 15kias or vertical speed changes greater than 500fpm

30
Q

What flap setting, unless otherwise precluded due to landing performance limitations, is preferred for landing in areas of possible windshear?

A

Flaps 5

31
Q

When should windshear escape maneuver be performed?

A
  • windsherar WARNING
  • windshear CAUTION with PICs discretion and at PICs discretion in the absecce of any WARNING/CAUTION due to perf cues
32
Q

After escaping a windshear encounter how is the windshear escape guidance mode cleared?

A

selecting another mode

33
Q

What is the primary difference between a windshear escape maneuver with an EGPWS announcement and the escape maneuver without an EGPWS announcement?

A

TO/GA button must be pressed manually without announcement

34
Q

How are the spoilers retracted and autobrake disarmed during a rejected landing?

A

As thrust levers are advanced (after touchdown) automatically

35
Q

Can a rejected landing be performed after reverse thrust has been applied?

A

Never

36
Q

If the airspeed falls below VREF during a rejected landing, what should happen with regards to retracting flaps once the rejected landing is intiated?

A

Accelerate above VREF before retracting flaps

37
Q

What two primary factors can lead to a bounced landing?

A
  • High flare
  • Power on touchdown
38
Q

How is a light bounce, on landing, recovered?

A
  • Maintain or re-establish normal landing attitude,
  • use power to soften the second touchdown,
  • remain aware of landing distance
39
Q

How is a severe bounce recovered?

A

go around

40
Q

By what ratio do tail strikes occur more often on landing than on takeoff?

A

2 to 1

41
Q

What is the leading most common mistake that can result in a tail strike on landing?

A

Flaring too high

42
Q

When the Flare begins to high, airspeed can drop below VREF, putting the aircraft in a postion to strike the tail, how is this situation recovered?

A
  • Lower nose
  • fly aircraft to runway
  • accept firm touchdown
43
Q

Can aircraft be successfully and safely landed overweight?

A

Yes

44
Q

what is the maximum descent rate allowed for touchdown during an overweight landing?

A

300fpm

45
Q

Who performs the overwieght landing and what does the other pilot do during the landing?

A
  • Captain
  • FO monitors vertical speed during touchdown
46
Q

What flap setting will guarantee brake energy will not be exceeded at ALL gross weights?

A
  • Flaps 5
  • Full flaps
47
Q

Do overweight landings require a MX write up?

A

Always

48
Q

What should be monitored during and after an overweight landing, and if necessary used to alert ground crew?

A

Brake temps

49
Q
A