Introduction to Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the central dogma of genetics?

A

The central dogma of genetics describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein.

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2
Q

True or False: The central dogma states that information can flow from protein to DNA.

A

False

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3
Q

What are the three main processes involved in the central dogma?

A

Replication, transcription, and translation.

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4
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of copying DNA to produce a complementary RNA strand is called __________.

A

transcription

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5
Q

During which process is mRNA synthesized?

A

Transcription

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6
Q

What is the role of ribosomes in the central dogma?

A

Ribosomes are the sites of translation where mRNA is decoded to synthesize proteins.

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7
Q

Multiple Choice: Which molecule carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome? A) DNA B) tRNA C) mRNA D) rRNA

A

C) mRNA

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8
Q

What is the process called where DNA is duplicated?

A

Replication

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9
Q

True or False: Transcription occurs in the cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells.

A

False

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10
Q

What is the function of tRNA in the central dogma?

A

tRNA transports amino acids to the ribosome during translation.

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11
Q

Fill in the blank: The sequence of nucleotides in DNA is transcribed into a sequence of __________ in mRNA.

A

nucleotides

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12
Q

What is the end product of translation?

A

Protein

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13
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a part of the central dogma? A) Replication B) Transcription C) Translation D) Mutation

A

D) Mutation

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14
Q

What type of RNA is responsible for bringing amino acids to ribosomes?

A

tRNA (transfer RNA)

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15
Q

True or False: The central dogma applies to all living organisms.

A

True

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16
Q

What is the primary template used during transcription?

A

DNA

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17
Q

Fill in the blank: The enzyme that synthesizes RNA during transcription is called __________.

A

RNA polymerase

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18
Q

What are codons?

A

Codons are sequences of three nucleotides in mRNA that specify a particular amino acid.

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19
Q

Multiple Choice: Which process converts the information in mRNA into a chain of amino acids? A) Replication B) Transcription C) Translation D) Translocation

A

C) Translation

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20
Q

What is the significance of the central dogma in molecular biology?

A

It explains how genetic information is expressed to produce proteins, which perform essential functions in organisms.

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21
Q

True or False: In eukaryotic cells, mRNA undergoes processing before translation.

A

True

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22
Q

What modifications occur to mRNA in eukaryotic cells before it is translated?

A

Capping, polyadenylation, and splicing.

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23
Q

Fill in the blank: The central dogma illustrates the flow of information from __________ to __________ to __________.

A

DNA; RNA; protein

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24
Q

What is reverse transcription?

A

Reverse transcription is the process of synthesizing DNA from an RNA template, which is contrary to the central dogma.

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25
Q

True or False: The central dogma includes the process of translation occurring in the nucleus.

A

False

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26
Q

What is the primary function of the genetic code?

A

To specify the sequence of amino acids in proteins.

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27
Q

Multiple Choice: What is the role of DNA in the central dogma? A) Store genetic information B) Synthesize proteins C) Transmit signals D) None of the above

A

A) Store genetic information

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28
Q

What is the genetic code?

A

The genetic code is the set of rules by which information encoded in genetic material is translated into proteins.

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29
Q

How many codons are there in the genetic code?

A

There are 64 codons in the genetic code.

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30
Q

What is a codon?

A

A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides that corresponds to a specific amino acid or stop signal during protein synthesis.

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31
Q

True or False: Each amino acid is coded by only one codon.

A

False: Most amino acids are coded by multiple codons.

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32
Q

What are start and stop codons?

A

Start codons signal the beginning of protein synthesis, while stop codons signal the termination of the process.

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33
Q

What is the start codon?

A

The start codon is AUG, which codes for the amino acid methionine.

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34
Q

Name one stop codon.

A

UAA, UAG, or UGA are stop codons.

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35
Q

Fill in the blank: The genetic code is described as _______.

A

degenerate, meaning that multiple codons can code for the same amino acid.

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36
Q

What does it mean for the genetic code to be universal?

A

It means that the same codons specify the same amino acids across almost all organisms.

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37
Q

Which molecule is responsible for translating codons into proteins?

A

Transfer RNA (tRNA) is responsible for translating codons into proteins.

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38
Q

What is the role of ribosomes in protein synthesis?

A

Ribosomes facilitate the interaction between mRNA and tRNA to synthesize proteins.

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39
Q

True or False: The genetic code is identical in all living organisms.

A

True, with few exceptions in certain organisms.

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40
Q

What is the significance of the redundancy in the genetic code?

A

Redundancy helps minimize the effects of mutations by allowing some changes in the DNA sequence without altering the protein.

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41
Q

What are the four nucleotide bases of RNA?

A

Adenine (A), Uracil (U), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G).

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42
Q

What does mRNA stand for?

A

Messenger RNA.

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43
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of translating mRNA into protein is called _______.

A

translation.

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44
Q

What does it mean when a codon is described as ‘non-overlapping’?

A

It means that each nucleotide is part of only one codon and is read in sequence without overlap.

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45
Q

Name one amino acid that is encoded by more than one codon.

A

Leucine is one example.

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46
Q

What is the function of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases?

A

They attach the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA.

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47
Q

True or False: The genetic code includes codons for both amino acids and regulatory signals.

A

True.

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48
Q

What is meant by ‘codon usage bias’?

A

It refers to the preference of certain codons over others in the coding sequences of genes.

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49
Q

What is the significance of the anticodon in tRNA?

A

The anticodon pairs with the corresponding codon on mRNA during translation.

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50
Q

What is the primary function of the genetic code?

A

To provide the instructions for synthesizing proteins.

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51
Q

How do mutations in the genetic code affect protein synthesis?

A

Mutations can lead to changes in the amino acid sequence of proteins, potentially altering their function.

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52
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

A frameshift mutation is caused by insertions or deletions of nucleotides that change the reading frame of the codons.

53
Q

What is the role of the genetic code in evolution?

A

The genetic code allows for genetic variation and evolution through mutations and natural selection.

54
Q

What is a mutation?

A

A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence of an organism.

55
Q

What are the two main types of mutations?

A

Point mutations and frameshift mutations.

56
Q

True or False: Point mutations only affect a single nucleotide.

57
Q

What is a point mutation?

A

A point mutation is a change in a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence.

58
Q

What are the three types of point mutations?

A

Silent mutations, missense mutations, and nonsense mutations.

59
Q

Fill in the blank: A __________ mutation results in a change in the amino acid sequence of a protein.

60
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

A frameshift mutation is a mutation that involves the insertion or deletion of nucleotides, altering the reading frame of the gene.

61
Q

How do frameshift mutations affect protein synthesis?

A

Frameshift mutations can lead to completely different amino acid sequences and often result in nonfunctional proteins.

62
Q

True or False: Frameshift mutations can only result from deletions.

63
Q

What is the result of a silent mutation?

A

A silent mutation does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein.

64
Q

Which type of mutation is more likely to cause a significant change in protein function: point mutation or frameshift mutation?

A

Frameshift mutation.

65
Q

Multiple Choice: What type of mutation is characterized by a nucleotide being added or removed? A) Point mutation B) Frameshift mutation

A

B) Frameshift mutation.

66
Q

What can cause mutations?

A

Mutations can be caused by environmental factors, errors during DNA replication, or exposure to certain chemicals or radiation.

67
Q

Fill in the blank: A __________ mutation results in an early stop codon.

68
Q

True or False: Point mutations can lead to frameshift mutations.

69
Q

What is the impact of a nonsense mutation?

A

A nonsense mutation results in a premature stop codon, leading to truncated proteins.

70
Q

What does the term ‘reading frame’ refer to?

A

The reading frame refers to the way nucleotides are grouped into codons during translation.

71
Q

How can mutations be beneficial?

A

Mutations can introduce new traits that may enhance survival and adaptation to environments.

72
Q

What is the role of DNA repair mechanisms?

A

DNA repair mechanisms correct errors in DNA to prevent mutations.

73
Q

True or False: All mutations are harmful.

74
Q

What is the potential outcome of a frameshift mutation on protein synthesis?

A

It can result in a completely different protein or a nonfunctional protein.

75
Q

Multiple Choice: Which mutation type alters the reading frame? A) Silent B) Point C) Frameshift

A

C) Frameshift.

76
Q

What type of mutation might occur if a nucleotide is accidentally inserted during DNA replication?

A

Frameshift mutation.

77
Q

Fill in the blank: Mutations that do not affect the phenotype are known as __________ mutations.

78
Q

How does a missense mutation differ from a silent mutation?

A

A missense mutation changes one amino acid in a protein, while a silent mutation does not change the amino acid sequence.

79
Q

What are trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A

Genetic disorders caused by the expansion of specific trinucleotide sequences in certain genes.

80
Q

True or False: Trinucleotide repeat expansions can lead to neurodegenerative diseases.

81
Q

Fill in the blank: The most common trinucleotide repeat disorder is __________.

A

Huntington’s disease

82
Q

What is the repeat sequence associated with Huntington’s disease?

83
Q

Name one example of a trinucleotide repeat disorder.

A

Fragile X syndrome

84
Q

True or False: Trinucleotide repeat disorders can exhibit anticipation, where symptoms appear earlier in successive generations.

85
Q

What is the repeat sequence associated with Fragile X syndrome?

86
Q

Identify the trinucleotide repeat disorder characterized by a GAA repeat.

A

Friedreich’s ataxia

87
Q

What mechanism leads to the expansion of trinucleotide repeats?

A

DNA replication errors

88
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following disorders is NOT a trinucleotide repeat disorder? A) Myotonic dystrophy B) Cystic fibrosis C) Spinocerebellar ataxia

A

B) Cystic fibrosis

89
Q

What is the primary effect of trinucleotide repeat expansions on gene function?

A

They can lead to the production of abnormal proteins.

90
Q

Fill in the blank: Myotonic dystrophy is associated with the repeat sequence __________.

91
Q

True or False: Trinucleotide repeat disorders can be inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.

92
Q

What type of genetic testing is commonly used to diagnose trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) testing

93
Q

Short Answer: What is the role of the FMR1 gene in Fragile X syndrome?

A

It is responsible for producing a protein important for neural development.

94
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common symptom of Huntington’s disease? A) Muscle weakness B) Cognitive decline C) Mood swings

A

B) Cognitive decline

95
Q

What is the significance of the number of repeats in trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A

The number of repeats correlates with the severity and age of onset of the disorder.

96
Q

True or False: Trinucleotide repeat disorders are exclusively inherited from the mother.

97
Q

Fill in the blank: Repeat expansions can lead to __________, where the gene becomes inactive.

A

gene silencing

98
Q

Short Answer: How does anticipation manifest in trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A

Symptoms appear at an earlier age and with increased severity in successive generations.

99
Q

What are the implications of genetic counseling for families affected by trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A

It helps assess risk and understand inheritance patterns.

100
Q

Multiple Choice: Which disorder is characterized by a GCG repeat? A) Huntington’s disease B) Myotonic dystrophy C) Spinocerebellar ataxia

A

C) Spinocerebellar ataxia

101
Q

True or False: Environmental factors play a significant role in the development of trinucleotide repeat disorders.

102
Q

What is the primary focus of research in trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A

Understanding the mechanisms of repeat expansion and developing potential therapies.

103
Q

Fill in the blank: Trinucleotide repeat disorders are often associated with ___________ changes.

A

neurological

104
Q

What is the definition of anticipation in genetics?

A

Anticipation is a phenomenon where certain genetic disorders manifest at an earlier age or with increased severity in successive generations.

105
Q

True or False: Anticipation is only observed in mitochondrial diseases.

106
Q

Name a genetic disorder associated with anticipation.

A

Huntington’s disease

107
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following disorders is NOT typically associated with anticipation? A) Myotonic dystrophy B) Fragile X syndrome C) Cystic fibrosis

A

C) Cystic fibrosis

108
Q

Fill in the blank: Anticipation is commonly observed in disorders that involve __________ expansions.

A

trinucleotide

109
Q

What is the primary mechanism believed to cause anticipation?

A

Expansion of repeat sequences in the DNA.

110
Q

True or False: Anticipation can lead to milder symptoms in later generations.

111
Q

Name another example of a disorder that exhibits anticipation.

A

Myotonic dystrophy

112
Q

What type of genetic mutation is often responsible for anticipation?

A

Repeat expansions

113
Q

Multiple Choice: In which of the following disorders is anticipation most commonly seen? A) Sickle cell disease B) Huntington’s disease C) Tay-Sachs disease

A

B) Huntington’s disease

114
Q

Fill in the blank: The severity of symptoms in anticipation tends to __________ with each generation.

115
Q

What is the clinical significance of recognizing anticipation in genetic counseling?

A

It helps predict disease onset and progression in affected families.

116
Q

True or False: Anticipation can occur in both autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive disorders.

117
Q

What is the relationship between age of onset and anticipation?

A

In anticipation, the age of onset typically decreases in successive generations.

118
Q

Name a neurological disorder that demonstrates anticipation.

A

Spinocerebellar ataxia

119
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a key feature of anticipation? A) Stable symptom severity B) Earlier onset C) No generational change

A

B) Earlier onset

120
Q

Fill in the blank: Anticipation is most often studied in the context of __________ disorders.

A

neurological

121
Q

What impact does anticipation have on family planning for affected individuals?

A

It may influence decisions regarding testing and risk assessment for future generations.

122
Q

True or False: Anticipation is solely a genetic phenomenon.

123
Q

What role do environmental factors play in anticipation?

A

Environmental factors generally do not influence anticipation; it is primarily genetic.

124
Q

Name a disorder characterized by both anticipation and cognitive decline.

A

Fragile X syndrome

125
Q

Multiple Choice: Which trinucleotide repeat is associated with Huntington’s disease? A) CAG B) CTG C) GAA

126
Q

Fill in the blank: __________ is a common method used to diagnose disorders with anticipation.

A

Genetic testing

127
Q

What is the effect of anticipation on the prognosis of affected individuals?

A

Prognosis may worsen with earlier onset and increased severity.

128
Q

True or False: All genetic disorders exhibit anticipation.