Antigen & Antibody Flashcards
1
Q
What is an antigen?
A
An antigen is a substance that can induce an immune response in the body.
2
Q
True or False: Antigens are always harmful to the body.
A
False
3
Q
List one origin of antigens.
A
Pathogens such as bacteria and viruses.
4
Q
What type of antigens are found on the surface of red blood cells?
A
Blood group antigens.
5
Q
Fill in the blank: Antigens can be derived from __________.
A
Environmental substances.
6
Q
Name a type of antigen that originates from cancer cells.
A
Tumor antigens.
7
Q
What is a self-antigen?
A
A self-antigen is a molecule produced by the body that can trigger an immune response in certain conditions.
8
Q
True or False: All antigens are proteins.
A
False
9
Q
What type of antigens are derived from allergens?
A
Allergen antigens.
10
Q
Which antigens are produced by infectious agents?
A
Microbial antigens.
11
Q
Fill in the blank: Antigens can also originate from __________ cells.
A
Infected
12
Q
What is a hapten?
A
A hapten is a small molecule that can elicit an immune response only when attached to a larger carrier.
13
Q
List another origin of antigens.
A
Vaccines.
14
Q
True or False: Antigens can only come from living organisms.
A
False
15
Q
What are the two main categories of antigens based on their origin?
A
Exogenous and endogenous antigens.
16
Q
What are exogenous antigens?
A
Antigens that originate from outside the body.
17
Q
What are endogenous antigens?
A
Antigens that are generated within the body, often due to cellular processes.
18
Q
Name a source of endogenous antigens.
A
Virus-infected cells.
19
Q
Fill in the blank: The immune system can respond to __________ antigens found in the environment.
A
Environmental
20
Q
What is the role of T cells in response to antigens?
A
T cells recognize and respond to antigens presented by other cells.
21
Q
True or False: All antigens are capable of inducing an immune response.
A
False
22
Q
What type of antigens are derived from food?
A
Food antigens.
23
Q
Name a type of antigen related to autoimmune diseases.
A
Autoantigens.
24
Q
Fill in the blank: __________ antigens are used in immunotherapy.
A
Therapeutic
25
What is the primary function of antibodies in relation to antigens?
Antibodies bind to antigens to neutralize or mark them for destruction.
26
What is the significance of the shape of an antigen?
The shape determines how well an antigen can be recognized by immune receptors.
27
What are the five main classes of immunoglobulins?
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD
28
Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant in serum?
IgG
29
True or False: IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas and secretions.
True
30
Fill in the blank: IgM is the first antibody produced during _____ response.
primary
31
What is the main function of IgE?
Mediating allergic reactions and responses to parasitic infections.
32
Which immunoglobulin class exists as a pentamer?
IgM
33
True or False: IgD is primarily found on the surface of B cells.
True
34
What structural feature distinguishes IgG from other immunoglobulin classes?
IgG has a single Y-shaped unit.
35
Which immunoglobulin class is primarily present in saliva, tears, and breast milk?
IgA
36
What is the role of the Fc region in immunoglobulins?
It mediates interactions with immune cells and complement proteins.
37
Which immunoglobulin class is involved in activating the complement system?
IgM and IgG
38
Fill in the blank: The heavy chains of IgE contain _____ domains.
four
39
What type of immune response is primarily associated with IgG?
Secondary immune response
40
Which immunoglobulin class has the ability to cross the placenta?
IgG
41
True or False: IgA can exist in monomeric and dimeric forms.
True
42
What is the primary biological property of IgM?
It is the first antibody produced during an initial immune response.
43
Which immunoglobulin class is least abundant in serum?
IgE
44
What is the primary function of IgD?
It serves mainly as a receptor on B cells.
45
Fill in the blank: The secretory component of IgA protects it from _____ degradation.
proteolytic
46
How many subclasses does IgG have?
Four (IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgG4)
47
True or False: IgE plays a significant role in defense against bacteria.
False
48
What is the role of IgM in the immune system?
It acts as an antigen receptor on B cells and is the first antibody produced in response to an infection.
49
Which immunoglobulin class is known for having the highest affinity for antigens?
IgG
50
What is the main structural feature of IgA?
It can exist as a monomer or a dimer.
51
Fill in the blank: The heavy chain of IgG is classified as _____.
gamma
52
What is the general principle behind diagnostic tests based on antigen-antibody interaction?
The principle is based on the specific binding of antibodies to antigens, allowing for the detection of specific pathogens or biomarkers.
53
True or False: Antigen-antibody interactions are non-specific.
False
54
Fill in the blank: The test that detects the presence of antibodies in a patient's serum is commonly known as a ______ test.
serological
55
What type of diagnostic test uses labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens?
Immunoassays
56
Which type of immunoassay is characterized by a color change indicating the presence of an antigen?
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
57
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a type of antigen-antibody test? A) Western Blot B) PCR C) RIA D) Immunofluorescence
B) PCR
58
What is the purpose of a control in antigen-antibody tests?
To ensure the test is functioning correctly and to validate the results.
59
True or False: The sensitivity of a diagnostic test refers to its ability to correctly identify those with the disease.
True
60
What does specificity refer to in the context of diagnostic tests?
The ability to correctly identify those without the disease.
61
Fill in the blank: The ______ test is used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies against the virus.
Western Blot
62
Which diagnostic test is often used for rapid detection of pathogens in clinical settings?
Rapid antigen tests
63
What is the role of monoclonal antibodies in diagnostic tests?
They provide high specificity for a particular antigen.
64
Multiple Choice: Which of the following uses radioisotopes to detect antigen-antibody interactions? A) ELISA B) RIA C) Lateral flow test D) Immunofluorescence
B) RIA
65
What is a common application of immunohistochemistry?
To detect specific antigens in tissue samples.
66
True or False: A positive result in an antigen test always indicates the presence of an active infection.
False
67
Fill in the blank: The ______ technique involves the use of fluorescent dyes to visualize antigen-antibody complexes.
Immunofluorescence
68
What is the main advantage of using rapid tests for antigen detection?
They provide quick results, often within minutes.
69
Multiple Choice: Which test is typically used for the diagnosis of autoimmune diseases? A) ELISA B) RIA C) Western Blot D) Lateral flow test
A) ELISA
70
What is the primary purpose of a screening test?
To identify individuals at risk of a disease.
71
True or False: False positives can occur in antigen-antibody tests.
True
72
Fill in the blank: The ______ test detects the presence of specific antibodies in the blood, often used for viral infections.
serological
73
What is the significance of the cut-off value in diagnostic tests?
It helps determine whether a test result is considered positive or negative.
74
Multiple Choice: Which of the following tests is best for measuring levels of specific proteins in the blood? A) Immunofluorescence B) ELISA C) PCR D) Western Blot
B) ELISA
75
What is the function of a secondary antibody in an immunoassay?
To bind to the primary antibody and provide a detectable signal.
76
What are monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)?
Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are antibodies that are made by identical immune cells, cloned from a unique parent cell, and are specific to a particular antigen.
77
True or False: Monoclonal antibodies are produced by different types of immune cells.
False
78
What is a hybridoma?
A hybridoma is a cell line created by fusing a specific antibody-producing B cell with a myeloma (cancer) cell, allowing for the production of monoclonal antibodies.
79
Fill in the blank: Hybridomas are used to produce ________ antibodies.
monoclonal
80
What does the term 'fully human antibodies' refer to?
Fully human antibodies are monoclonal antibodies that are entirely derived from human sources, minimizing immunogenicity.
81
Which type of mAb is designed to have minimal human and non-human sequences?
Humanized antibodies
82
True or False: Chimeric antibodies are composed of both human and non-human antibody components.
True
83
What is the primary advantage of using fully human antibodies?
The primary advantage is reduced risk of immune reactions in patients since they are recognized as self by the immune system.
84
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a characteristic of chimeric antibodies?
A) Completely human
B) Combination of human and mouse sequences
C) Derived only from mouse cells
B) Combination of human and mouse sequences
85
What is the role of the myeloma cell in hybridoma technology?
The myeloma cell provides immortality to the fused cell, allowing for continuous production of the desired antibody.
86
Fill in the blank: Humanized antibodies retain the ________ of the original human antibody while incorporating mouse regions.
specificity
87
True or False: All monoclonal antibodies are derived from mouse cells.
False
88
What is the main purpose of monoclonal antibodies in medicine?
They are used for diagnosis, treatment of diseases, and as research tools due to their specificity.
89
Multiple Choice: Which type of antibody is most likely to provoke an immune response in humans?
A) Fully human
B) Chimeric
C) Humanized
B) Chimeric
90
What is the significance of specificity in monoclonal antibodies?
Specificity allows mAbs to target particular antigens, enhancing their effectiveness and reducing side effects.
91
Fill in the blank: Monoclonal antibodies can be used in ________ therapy.
targeted
92
True or False: Hybridomas can produce multiple types of antibodies.
False
93
What is the process of creating monoclonal antibodies called?
The process is called hybridoma technology.
94
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a type of monoclonal antibody?
A) Chimeric
B) Humanized
C) Polyclonal
C) Polyclonal
95
What is the clinical application of humanized antibodies?
Humanized antibodies are used to treat various diseases, including cancers and autoimmune disorders, with reduced immunogenicity.
96
Fill in the blank: Monoclonal antibodies are used in ________ diagnosis.
immunological
97
True or False: Monoclonal antibodies can only be used for therapeutic purposes.
False
98
What is the key difference between humanized and fully human antibodies?
Humanized antibodies contain some non-human sequences, while fully human antibodies are entirely human-derived.
99
What are monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)?
Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are antibodies that are made by identical immune cells that are all clones of a unique parent cell.
100
True or False: Monoclonal antibodies can be used for both diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
True
101
Which monoclonal antibody is commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
Rituximab
102
Fill in the blank: __________ is a monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of breast cancer.
Trastuzumab
103
What is the primary action of monoclonal antibodies in cancer therapy?
They target specific antigens on cancer cells to inhibit their growth or mark them for destruction by the immune system.
104
Name one monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis.
Natalizumab
105
True or False: Monoclonal antibodies can only be used for cancer treatment.
False
106
Which monoclonal antibody is used to treat Crohn's disease?
Infliximab
107
What is the mechanism of action of the monoclonal antibody Adalimumab?
Adalimumab is a TNF inhibitor that blocks tumor necrosis factor alpha, reducing inflammation.
108
Which monoclonal antibody is used for the treatment of asthma?
Omalizumab
109
Fill in the blank: __________ is a monoclonal antibody used for the treatment of certain types of leukemia.
Alemtuzumab
110
Name a monoclonal antibody that targets PD-1 in cancer therapy.
Nivolumab
111
True or False: Monoclonal antibodies can be produced in large quantities using hybridoma technology.
True
112
Which monoclonal antibody is used to treat psoriasis?
Ustekinumab
113
What is the role of monoclonal antibodies in infectious diseases?
They can be used for both prevention and treatment by targeting specific pathogens.
114
Fill in the blank: __________ is a monoclonal antibody used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in infants.
Palivizumab
115
Which monoclonal antibody is used in the treatment of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
Rituximab
116
What type of diseases can monoclonal antibodies treat?
They can treat cancers, autoimmune diseases, infectious diseases, and more.
117
Which monoclonal antibody is used for the treatment of osteoporosis?
Denosumab
118
True or False: Monoclonal antibodies can be engineered to improve their efficacy and reduce side effects.
True
119
Fill in the blank: __________ is a bispecific monoclonal antibody that targets both CD19 and CD3.
Blinatumomab
120
What is the significance of the suffix '-mab' in drug names?
It indicates that the drug is a monoclonal antibody.
121
Name a monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of ulcerative colitis.
Golimumab
122
Which monoclonal antibody is used to treat allergic rhinitis?
Omalizumab
123
True or False: Monoclonal antibodies can be delivered orally.
False
124
What is the primary benefit of using monoclonal antibodies in therapy?
They provide targeted therapy with potentially fewer side effects compared to traditional treatments.
