Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Sigmoid colon drains to which lymph node

A

Inferior mesenteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Upper rectum drains to which lymph node

A

Pararectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lower rectum (above pectinate line) drains to which lymph node

A

Internal Iliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lower rectum (below pectinate line) drains to which lymph node

A

Superficial inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Arm & Lateral breast drains to which lymph node

A

axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lateral foot drains to which lymph node

A

popliteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Thigh drains to which lymph node

A

superficial inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Stomach drains to which lymph node

A

celiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Duodenum & Jejunum drains to which lymph node

A

superior mesenteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Testes drains to which lymph node

A

para-aortic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Scrotum drains to which lymph node

A

superficial inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Right arm & Right half of head drains to which lymph node

A

Right lymphatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Thoracic duct dumps into

A

junction b/w left subclavian & internal jugular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cells of the adaptive immune system

A

B & T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Components of the innate immune system

A

Macrophages, Dendritic cells, Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils, NK cells, Mast cells
Complement proteins, skin, protective barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Peyer patches location

A

Lamina propria of Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

M-cells of Peyer patches

A

bring Ags across the epithelium to interact w/ immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Germinal Center

A

collection of mature plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lymph node site for B-cells

A

Cortex (follicles of the cortex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lymph node site for T-cells

A

Paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lymph node site for plasma cells

A

Medullary cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lymph node site for Macrophages

A

Medullary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Conditions associated w/ HLA-B27

A

“PAIR” Psoriatic arthritis, Akylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel ds, Reactive Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Conditions associated w/ HLA-DR3 & -DR4

A

Type I Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cell types that present to CD4+ T cells

A

Dendritic cells, Macrophages, B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Molecules on the surface of Dendritic cells

A

CD40, B7, MHC class I & II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Langerhans cells

A

dendritic cells found in the epidermal layers of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Langerhans cell histiocytosis - cell markers

A

S100 & CD1a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Langerhans cell histiocytosis - Histology

A

Birbeck granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CD3

A

Found on lymphocytes, allows for intracellular signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CD4+ T cells bind

A

MHC Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CD8+ T cells bind

A

MHC Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Genes that code for MHC Class II molecules

A

HLA-A, -B, -C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Genes that code for MHC Class I molecules

A

HLA-DR, -DP, -DQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Positive Selection of T cells

A

ability to bind MHC I or II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Negative Selection

A

inability to bind self antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Location of Positive Selection of T cells

A

Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Location of Negative Selection of T cells

A

Corticomedullary junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Th1 cells release

A

IL-2, IFN-gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Th2 cells release

A

IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Th1 cell differentiation is activated by

A

IL-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Th2 cell differentiation is activated by

A

IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Th1 cell differentiation is inhibited by

A

IL-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Th2 cell differentiation is activated by

A

IFN-gamma

45
Q

Th1 stimulates activation and proliferation of

A

Cytotoxic T-cells & Macrophages

46
Q

Th2 stimulates activation and proliferation of

A

Th2, B-cells

47
Q

IL-2 causes

A

proliferation of T cells

48
Q

IL-4 causes

A

proliferation of B-cells & Th0–>Th2

49
Q

IL-5 causes

A

proliferation of B-cells

50
Q

IL-10 causes

A

inhibits Th–>Th1 & macrophages

51
Q

IL-12 causes

A

activates Th0–>Th1

52
Q

IFN-gamma causes

A

activates macrophages & inhibits Th2

53
Q

NK cells are enhanced by

A

IL-12, IL-2, IFN-alpha, IFN-beta

54
Q

NK cells secretes

A

IFN-gamma

55
Q

NK cells surface markers

A

CD16, CD56

56
Q

CD16 –>

A

binds constant region of antibody to induce (ADCC) Antibody-Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity

57
Q

Helper T cell surface marker that binds B7 on APC

A

CD28

58
Q

B cell activation

A

B-cell Ab binds Ag, B-cell acts as APC to Th2 (CD40 binds CD40L); Th2 secretes IL-2, IL-4, IL-5 to activate B-cells

59
Q

Hyperacute transplant rejection

A

type II HSN (Ab-mediated) occurs in min-hrs

60
Q

Acute transplant rejection

A

cell-mediated, Tc cells attack foreign MHC I; occurs over wks-mos

61
Q

Chronic transplant rejection

A

Mediated by Ab & T-cells, cytotoxic T-cells treat transplant cell as self cells presenting foreign antigen

62
Q

Chronic transplant rejection features

A

fibrosis, vascular damage, & irreversible damage

63
Q

Graft-v-Host transplant rejection

A

grafted T-cells attack host –> maculopapular rash, hemolysis/jaundice, HSM, n/v, diarrhea

64
Q

Test for Chronic Granulomatous Ds

A

negative Nitroblue Tetrazolium (NBT) test

65
Q

Anti-endomysial

A

Celiac Disease

66
Q

Anti-tissue transglutaminase

A

Celiac Disease

67
Q

Anti-gliadin

A

Celiac Disease

68
Q

Bruton Agammaglobulinemia - defect?

A

BTK (tyrosine kinase) defect –> no B cell maturation

69
Q

Bruton Agammaglobulinemia - S/S

A

recurrent bacterial & enteroviral infections after 6mo (maternal IgG decreases)

70
Q

Bruton Agammaglobulinemia - Immune findings

A

Normal CD19+ B cell count, low Ig of all classes

71
Q

Selective IgA Deficiency - defect?

A

unknown; most common

72
Q

Selective IgA Deficiency - S/S

A

aSx or airway & GI infections, AI ds, Atopy, Anaphylaxis to IgA-containing products

73
Q

Selective IgA Deficiency - Immune findings

A

Low IgA, normal IgG, IgM

74
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency - defect?

A

defect in B-cell differentiation

75
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency - S/S

A

acquired in 20-30s, risk of AI ds, bronchiectasis, lymphoma

76
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency - Immune findings

A

low plasma cells & low Igs

77
Q

DiGeorge Syndome - Thymic Aplasia - defect

A

22q11 deletion –> failure of the 3-4 pharyngeal pouches to develop

78
Q

DiGeorge Syndome - Thymic Aplasia - S/S

A

Hypocalcemia, recurrent viral/fungal infections, TA or ToF,

79
Q

DiGeorge Syndome - Thymic Aplasia - Findings

A

Low T-cells, Low PTH, Low Ca2+, absent thymic shadow, 22q11 deletion w/ FISH

80
Q

IL-12 Receptor Deficiency - defect

A

AR IL-12 receptor defect –> Low Th1 response

81
Q

IL-12 Receptor Deficiency - S/S

A

Disseminated mycobacterial & fungal infections, may present after BCG vaccine

82
Q

IL-12 Receptor Deficiency - Findings

A

low IFN-gamma (IL-12 –> Th1 –> IFN-gamma –> macrophages)

83
Q

Hyper-IgE Syndrome - defect

A

Deficient Th17 cells d/t STAT3 mutation –> impaired neutrophil chemotaxis

84
Q

Hyper-IgE Syndrome - S/S

A

Coarse facies, cold staphylococcal abscesses, retained primary teeth, high IgE, Eczema

85
Q

Hyper-IgE Syndrome - Findings

A

High IgE, Low IFN-gamma

86
Q

Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis - defect?

A

T-cell dysfunction

87
Q

Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis - S/S

A

C. albicans infections

88
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) - defect?

A

Defective IL-2R gamma chain (X-linked) or Adenosine Deaminase deficiency (AR)

89
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) - S/S

A

failure to thrive, diarrhea, thrush, recurrent viral, fungal, & bacterial infections (bone marrow transplant needed)

90
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) - Findings

A

Low T-cell receptor excision circles (TREC), absent thymic shadow, absent germinal centers in lymph nodes, & absent T cells

91
Q

Ataxia-Telangiectasia - defect

A

ATM gene defect –> dsDNA breaks –> cell cycle arrest

92
Q

Ataxia-Telangiectasia - Sx

A

ataxia, spider angiomas, IgA def

93
Q

Ataxia-Telangiectasia - Findings

A

high AFP, low IgA, IgG & IgE, lymphopenia, cerebellar atrophy

94
Q

Hyper-IgM Syndrome - defect

A

CD40L defect –> class switching defect

95
Q

Hyper-IgM Syndrome - S/S

A

pyogenic infections, pneumocystis, Cryptosporidium, CMV

96
Q

Hyper-IgM Syndrome - Findings

A

High IgM, Low IgG, IgE, IgA

97
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome - defect

A

WAS gene mutation –> unable to rearrange actin cytoskeleton

98
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome - S/S

A

Thrombocytopenia purpura, eczema, recurrent infections

99
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome - findings

A

low IgG, IgM, High IgE, IgA

100
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency - defect

A

LFA-1 integrin (CD18) defect –> impaired migration & chemotaxis

101
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency - S/S

A

recurrent bacterial infections w/ ABSENCE of pus, impaired wound healing, delayed umbilical cord separation

102
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency - Findings

A

high neutrophils, but no neutrophils at infection site

103
Q

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome - defect

A

Defective lysosomal trafficking regulator gene (LYST) –> MT dysfunction inhibiting phagosome & lysosome fusion

104
Q

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome - S/S

A

pyogenic infections, albinism, peripheral neuropathy, neurodegeneration, infiltrative lymphohistiocytosis

105
Q

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome - Findings

A

Giant granules in neutrophils and platelets, pancytopenia, mild coagulation defects

106
Q

Chronic Granulomatous Disease - defect

A

NADPH oxidase defect –> absent respiratory burst

107
Q

Chronic Granulomatous Disease - S/S

A

susceptibility to Catalase + organisms (PLACESS)

108
Q

Chronic Granulomatous Disease - Findings

A

abnormal dihydrorhodamine test, negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye test