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Exit Notecards > Immuno and IDR cards > Flashcards

Immuno and IDR cards Flashcards

1
Q

Pyrrolidonyl arylamidase is a test that is positive for what bacteria?

A

PYR + S. Pyogenus

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2
Q

What types of vaccines are these diseases?

Adenovirus

Typhoid (Oral)

Polio (Sabin)

Measles

Mumps

Rubella

BCG

Varicella (Chickenpox)

Smallpox

Yellow Fever

Influenza (Intranasal)

Rotavirus

A

Live attenuated vaccines

Remember the Pneumonic ATP MMR are BVSY IRresponsible

The capital letters are the disease

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3
Q

What is the following vaccines?

Rabies

Influenza (injection)

Polio (Salk)

Hep A

Typhoid (intramuscular)

A

Non-live toxoid, subunit, conjugate, inactivated vaccines

TRIP Always

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4
Q

What are the vaccines?

Hep B surface antigen

HPV (types 6, 11, 16, 18)

acellular Pertussis

Neisseria Meningitidis

Strept. Pneumoniae

Haemophilus Influenzae type b

A

Non-live toxoid, subunit vaccines

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5
Q

Fulminant Hepatitis is what?

A

Massive Necrosis of liver parenchyma that happens after 8 weeks Hepatitis E

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6
Q

What rodeo is indicative of fatty liver disease?

A

ALT > AST

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7
Q

What lab value shows up with hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

AFP

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8
Q

Cholesterol stones are what visually? Pigment stones are what visually? Infection stones are what visually?

A

Cholesterol Stones are radiolucent

Pigment stones are radiopaque, black, hemolysis, bilirubinate

Brown stones are infection stones, that are radiolucent

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9
Q

Tinea unguium is what location?

Tinea cruris is what location?

A

Onychomycosis, usually in the nails

Inguinal area

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10
Q

Tinea versicolor is what? What is the path finding?

A

Malassezia FurFur, spaghetti and meatballs on path stain, also the Sketchy video “Italian Restaurant”

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11
Q

In the world of shenanigans: High Mg means what?

Low Mg means what?

A

hypocalcemia, via decreased PTH

hypocalcemia/hypokalemia

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12
Q

In the world of sorcery: when there is low potassium, what other low electrolyte must be replenished first in order to allow potassium to replenish itself?

A

Magnesium, magnesium blocks the ROMK (Renal outer Medullary Potassium Channel), found in the collecting duct

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13
Q

Diabetic Ketoacidosis and Refeeding syndrome in alcoholics can cause what?

A

Hypophosphatemia

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14
Q

Low Mg has what happen? Low Low Mg has what happen?

A

Increase PTH release –> increase GI and renal magnesium along with calcium

inhibits PTH release –> hypocalcemia seen with hypomagnesemia

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15
Q

Alcoholics love to show up in patient vignettes having a B1 issue, what other electrolyte abnormality might grace my screen under a(n) uworld question disguise?

A

magnesium

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16
Q

What herpes rash is the hard palate, also can cause diffuse B cell lymphoma? What thing is elevated?

A

Kaposi sarcoma, neoplasm of endothelial cells VEGF

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17
Q

Roseola infantum has what rash characteristics?

A

high fevers for several days that can cause seizures lacy body rash

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18
Q

Vairiola is what?

Varicella is what?

What is the big difference?

A

Variola is smallpox, lesions are at the same stage

Varicella is chicken pox, lesions are at different stages

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19
Q

When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cells are non-functional, where as a 2 of 2 virus allows the virus to become functional is what?

A

Complementation

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20
Q

When two viruses co-infect a cell, the capsule and the surface proteins produce are from a different virus vs. the genetic material, this is called what?

A

Phenotypic mixing

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21
Q

What is recombination of a virus? What is reassortment of a virus?

A

Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes

Exchange of genetic material between two viruses

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22
Q

Genetic shift is due to what? Genetic drift is due to what?

A

Causes pandemics, reassortment of viral components

Cause epidemics, random mutation in hemagglutinin or neuraminidase genes

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23
Q

What is a biochem way of fighting measles?

A

Vitamin A

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24
Q

The envelope gene makes gp160, what else does it make?

A

gp41 and gp120

1) gp120 attachment to host CD4+ T cell
2) gp41 fusion and entry

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25
Q

What does the gag gene make?

A

p24 and p17, this makes the capsid and matrix

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26
Q

CCR5 is on what? CXCR4 is on what?

A

Macrophages (early infection)

T cells (late infection)

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27
Q

What is the traditional ranking estrogen potency of Estradiol, Estriol, and Estrone?

A

1) Estradiol 2) Estrone 3) Estriol

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28
Q

What is the name of the syndrome with low GnRH, anosmia, and Testosterone?

A

Kallman Syndrome

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29
Q

If I have cryptorchidism, what is most likely low in my body?

A

low inhibin level, that comes from the Sertoli Cells, this is supposed to provide negative feed back on FSH

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30
Q

What is the hallmark hormone that screams menopause is here?

A

Increase FSH

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31
Q

What are two things that PCOS may develop as well?

A

Acathosis Nigricans and Endometrial Cancer

32
Q

When there is chocolate agar positive, where/what should I be thinking about?

A

H. Influenza and N. Gonorrhea

33
Q

What B lactam is only for gram negative rods, if a penicillin allergy?

A

Aztreonam

34
Q

What does cilastatin block in the kidney, when given with an imipenem?

A

Renal dehydropeptidase I

35
Q

What two drugs cannot drink with alcohol?

A

Cephalosporin and Metronidazole

36
Q

Aminoglycosides cannot be used against what type of bacteria?

A

anaerobic bacteria

must be aerobic bacteria

37
Q

What two drugs should not be given with antacids?

A

Fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines

Think about the Mg, K, and Ca 2+ ions in sketchy

38
Q

Polymxin B does not attack what two things?

A

Niessera and Proteus

39
Q

What class of drugs beside NRTI can cause central obesity/lipodystrophy?

A

Protease inhibitors Atazanavir, Darunavir, Indinavir

40
Q

What drugs are used to stop the release of viral progeny?

What drug inhibits influenza neuraminidase?

A

Amantidine: blocks uncoating of virus, inside cell, no longer used

Oseltamivir, Zanamivir: blocks neuraminidase

41
Q

What drug can be used in combination with amphotericin B?

A

Flucytisine

42
Q

What drug is an anti-fungal that blocks 14-alpha-demethylase? This also prevents the synthesis of erogsterol

A

Azoles

43
Q

Nystatin can be used only what way?

A

topical

44
Q

What is the glaring difference between MPGN I and MPGN II?

A

MPGN I is adults, C3, C4, IgG, Granular Hep B and C, tram track, PAS+

MPGN II is kids, C3 only positive, dense deposits

45
Q

Where is the damage in MPGN I vs MPGN II located?

A

Subendothelial or BM (Type 1)

BM (Type 2), autoantibody against C3 convertase

46
Q

Besides Coxiella, what else can have a culture negative endocarditis?

A

Bartonella hensela

47
Q

Bartonella and Brucella can both cause what?

A

granulomas

48
Q

Listeria, Schistosomiasis, and syphillis all can cause what?

A

Granulomas

49
Q

What malaria drugs are given in an emergency?

A

Quinidine or artesunate look at G6PD deficiency

50
Q

What is the MOA of permethrin cream?

A

Stops the flow of Na 2+ from flowing through parasite nerves

51
Q

Malathion is an ACHase inhibitor in order to treat what? Lindane treats lice how?

A

lice

over activate GABA chloride channels

52
Q

What is the indirect sympathomimetics that can increase weight loss?

A

Ephedrine

53
Q

What is used for acute asthma problems?

What is used for long term asthma/COPD?

A

Albuterol

Salmeterol, Formoterol

54
Q

Flucytosine inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis via by what enzyme blockage?

A

cytosine deaminase

55
Q

What two drugs are used in an emergency for malaria?

A

Quinidine or artesunate

56
Q

In P vivax, what am I supposed to give in order to stop hypnozoites in the liver?

A

primaquine

57
Q

What are the two drugs used for organophosphate poisoning?

A

atropine and pralidoxime

58
Q

Neostigmine, physostigimine, and pyridostigmine all increase Ach in one way or another, which one crosses the CNS?

A

Physostigmine

59
Q

What is used in autonomic insufficiency and postural hypotension, may make supine hypertension, alpha 1 agonist?

A

Midodrine

60
Q

Makonkey agar there is growth, but no color, it means what? Mackonkey agar there is growth and it is pink, what is it?

A

no color = no lactose fermentation pink color = lactose fermentation

61
Q

In the world of bacteria, chlamydia does not make what?

A

muramic acid is not made

62
Q

Mycobacteria need what special stain?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen

63
Q

Gram negative bacteria have Lipid A and o-polysaccharide. O-polysccharide is the main target of what man made thing?

A

Antibiotics

64
Q

Spores have three layers, what is the innermost layer?

A

Dipicolnic acid

65
Q

What drug, not in sketchy, psych topic, inhibits serotonin reuptake, receptor partial agonist, used for MDD?

A

Vilazodone

66
Q

What psych drug inhibits 5-HT reuptake, 5-HT1a receptor agonist and 5HT3 antagonist, used for MDD?

A

Vortioxetine

67
Q

What type of immunity does Live attenuated vaccine keep up?

A

Cell Mediated and Humoral Response

68
Q

What is the vaccine?

Clostridium tetani

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

Toxoid Vaccine

69
Q

What does the killed or inactivated vaccine stimulate the immune system?

A

Humoral Response

70
Q

Tick vector

mulberry like inclusions

Monocytes with a morulae

what disease is this?

A

Ehrlichiosis

71
Q

Tick vector

granulocytes

morulae in cytoplasm

what disease is this?

A

Anaplasmosis

72
Q

Heat labile E. Coli toxin has an increase in what?

Heat Stable E. Coli toxin has an increase in what?

A

increase cAMP, increase Cl and H20 in gut

increase cGMP, decrease Cl NaCl and H20 in gut

73
Q

What things are in the Thayer-Martin Agar?

Name 4

A

Trimethoprim

Colistin

Nystatin

Vancomycin

74
Q

What does Sabouraud agar stain for?

A

Fungi

75
Q

What kind of mosquito helps with Dengue fever?

A

Aedes

Exit Notecards (29 decks)

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