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Histology > Histology LE1-2024 > Flashcards

Histology LE1-2024 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Accumulates lipid;
    A. Fibroblast
    B. Mast cell
    C. Adipocyte
    D. Eosinophil
    E. Macrophage
A

C. Adipocyte

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2
Q
  1. Higher ratio of matrix to cells and fibers;
    A. Dense regular connective tissue
    B. Dense irregular connective tissue
    C. None of the above
    D. Loose connective tissue
    E. All of the above
A

Loose connective tissue

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3
Q
  1. Reticular fibers are actually this type of collagen fiber;
    A. Type IV
    B. Type V
    C. Type I
    D. Type III
    E. Type II
A

D. Type III

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4
Q
  1. Which one is not true regarding an endocrine gland?
    A. Multicellular
    B. Vascular
    C. Ductless
    D. Secretes hormones
A

A. Multicellular

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5
Q
  1. Which epithelial cells are responsible for absorption?
    A. Intestinal cells
    B. Glandular cells
    C. Epidermal cells
    D. Myoepithelial cells
A

A. Intestinal cells

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6
Q
  1. The distal or proximal end of the bone which increase in length as the individual grows is/are;
    A. Periosteum
    B. Medullary
    C. Diaphysis
    D. Epiphysis
A

D. Epiphysis

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7
Q
  1. Transitional epithelium is not found in which of the following?
    A. Esophagus
    B. Renal calyx
    C. Ureter
    D. Bladder
A

A. Esophagus

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8
Q
  1. Form fenestrated sheets instead of fibrils;
    A. None of the above
    B. All of the above
    C. Elastic fiber
    D. Collagen fiber
    E. Reticular fiber
A

C. Elastic fiber

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9
Q
  1. An intermediate filament protein found in cytoplasm of most epithelial cells is which of the following?
    A. Laminin
    B. Actin
    C. Myosin
    D. Keratin
A

D. Keratin

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following cellular features is used in naming types of epithelia?
    A. Shape of cells in the basal lamina
    B. Number of cell layers
    C. Presence of a basal lamina
    D. Size of the nuclei
A

B. Number of cell layers

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11
Q
  1. Adsorbs metallic silver;
    A. Elastic fiber
    B. All of the above
    C. Reticular fiber
    D. None of the above
    E. Collagen fiber
A

C. Reticular fiber

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12
Q
  1. Bone shaft or body of a bone; the long cylindrical main portion of the bone is;
    A. Ensdosteum
    B. Diaphysis
    C. Epiphysis
    D. Articular cartilage
A

B. Diaphysis

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13
Q
  1. This digest large molecules;
    A. Lysosome
    B. Golgi apparatus
    C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    D. Cytoskeleton
    E. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
A

A. Lysosome

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
    A. Late in prophase, lamins and inner nuclear membrane are phosphorylated, causing the nuclear lamina and nuclear pore complexes to disassemble and disperse in cytoplasmic membrane vesicles
    B. The nucleolus disappears during prophase
    C. The sister chromatids are pulled apart and move toward opposite poles of the cell during anaphase
    D. The replicated chromatin condenses into discrete threadlike chromosomes during metaphase
A

D. The replicated chromatin condenses into discrete threadlike chromosomes during metaphase

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15
Q
  1. A defect in this enzyme can cause a storage disease called “Taysach’s”
    A. Golgi apparatus
    B. Lysosome
    C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    E. Cytoskeleton
A

B. Lysosome

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16
Q
  1. This contains three types of macromolecular fibers namely; actin, intermediate filaments and microtubules.
    A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C. Cytoskeleton
    D. Golgi apparatus
    E. Lysosome
A

C. Cytoskeleton

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17
Q
  1. This type of growth pattern increases the diameter of the tissue.
    A. Endochondral
    B. Intramembranous
    C. Appositional
    D. All of the above
A

C. Appositional

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18
Q
  1. Cell of origin of fibroblast.
    A. Eosinophils
    B. None of the above
    C. Monocyte
    D. Ectoderm
    E. Mesenchyme
A

E. Mesenchyme

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19
Q
  1. The active transport moves substances up its concentration gradient in the same direction as Na+.
    A. Symport
    B. Antiport
    C. Secondary active transport
    D. Primary active transport
A

A. Symport

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20
Q
  1. Thin layer of hyaline cartilage covering the epiphysis where the bone joints another bone is.
    A. Medullary
    B. Periosteum
    C. Articular cartilage
    D. Epiphysis
A

C. Articular cartilage

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21
Q
  1. Capsules of organs.
    A. Dense regular connective tissue
    B. All of the above
    C. Loose connective tissue
    D. Dense irregular connective tissue
    E. None of the above
A

D. Dense irregular connective tissue

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22
Q
  1. Parasitic infections.
    A. Fibroblast
    B. Macrophage
    C. Mast cell
    D. Adipocyte
    E. Eosinophil
A

E. Eosinophil

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23
Q
  1. This structure is the medium where cartilage derives nutrition.
    A. Endochondrium
    B. Periosteum
    C. Endosteum
    D. Perichondrium
A

D. Perichondrium

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24
Q
  1. Attachment of epithelia to supporting layer.
    A. Elastin
    B. Laminin
    C. Fibronectin
    D. Microfibrils
A

B. Laminin

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25
Q
  1. This modifies proteins and lipids.
    A. Golgi apparatus
    B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    D. Lysosome
    E. Cytoskeleton
A

A. Golgi apparatus

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26
Q
  1. Russell bodies
    A. Macrophage
    B. Adipocyte
    C. Fibroblast
    D. Mast cell
    E. Eosinophil
A

D. Mast cell

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27
Q
  1. Principal cell of connective tissue.
    A. Macrophage
    B. Adipocytes
    C. All of the above
    D. Mast cell
    E. Fibroblasts
A

E. Fibroblasts

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28
Q
  1. Small spaces between lamellae which contain osteocytes are.
    A. Osteon
    B. Canaliculi
    C. Central (haversian) canal
    D. Lacunae
A

D. Lacunae

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29
Q
  1. Microscopic structural units of compact bone made up of a central (haversian) canal plus it’s surrounding lamellae, lacunae, canaliculi, and osteocytes are:
    A. Osteon (haversian system)
    B. Concentric lamellae
    C. Lacunae
    D. Central (haversian) canal
A

A. Osteon (haversian system)

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30
Q
  1. This transport process does not require expenditure of cellular energy and facilitates movement of substances down a concentration gradient until equilibrium is reached.
    A. Pinocytosis
    B. Active transport
    C. Vesicular transport
    D. Passive transport
A

D. Passive transport

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31
Q
  1. Functions of the basement membrane include which of the following?
    A. Contractility
    B. Excitability
    C. Active ion transport
    D. Molecular filtering
A

D. Molecular filtering

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32
Q
  1. The cells entering Meiosis I are best described as;
    A. Triploid
    B. None of the above
    C. Haploid
    D. Diploid
A

C. Haploid

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33
Q
  1. Basic structural unit of collagen.
    A. Tropocollagen
    B. Gelatin
    C. Elastin
    D. Reticulin
A

A. Tropocollagen

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34
Q
  1. This is the phase of the cell cycle where the cell grows and makes a copy of its own DNA.
    A. Interphase
    B. Mitosis
    C. Prophase
    D. Metaphase
A

A. Interphase

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35
Q
  1. What one is composed of abundant extracellular material produced by its cells?
    A. Muscular tissue
    B. Connective tissue
    C. Nervous tissue
    D. Epithelial tissue
A

B. Connective tissue

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36
Q
  1. The epithelial lining of the respiratory tract is a derivative of which of the following?
    A. Ectoderm
    B. Endoderm
    C. Neuroectoderm
    D. Mesoderm
A

B. Endoderm

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37
Q
  1. Dermis
    A. Dense regular connective tissue
    B. None of the above
    C. Dense irregular connective tissue
    D. Loose connective tissue
    E. All of the above
A

D. Loose connective tissue

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38
Q
  1. Site of protein synthesis in the cell.
    A. Endoplasmic reticulum
    B. Cytoplasm
    C. Ribosomes
    D. Golgi apparatus
A

C. Ribosomes

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39
Q
  1. Consists of developing blood cells, adipocytes, fibroblasts, and macrophages.
    A. Yellow bone marrow
    B. Red bone marrow
    C. Spongy bone
    D. Osteoblasts
A

B. Red bone marrow

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct?
    A. Phospholipids are the most abundant lipids in the cell membrane
    B. Phospholipids have a head which is hydrophilic
    C. Phospholipids have nonpolar hydrophilic regions
    D. Phospholipids contain hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions
A

C. Phospholipids have nonpolar hydrophilic regions

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41
Q
  1. Exhibits longitudinal striations.
    A. All of the above
    B. Reticular fiber
    C. Collagen fiber
    D. Elastic fiber
    E. None of the above
A

C. Collagen fiber

42
Q
  1. This is a specialized process involving two unique and closely associated cell divisions that involves only sex cells or gametes.
    A. Interphase
    B. Cell division
    C. Mitosis
    D. Meiosis
A

D. Meiosis

43
Q
  1. Lamina propria.
    A. Dense irregular connective tissue
    B. Dense regular connective tissue
    C. All of the above
    D. Loose connective tissue
    E. None of the above
A

D. Loose connective tissue

44
Q
  1. This refers to the process where homologous chromosomes of each pair from the parents come together.
    A. Cell division
    B. Cytokinesis
    C. Synapsis
    D. Cleavage
A

C. Synapsis

45
Q
  1. Which one appears to have multiple cell layers due to various locations of the nuclei?
    A. Stratified
    B. Pseudostratified
    C. Transitional
    D. Simple
A

B. Pseudostratified

46
Q
  1. Glandular epithelial cells may synthesize, store, and secrete proteins, lipids, and complexes of carbohydrates. Which of the following glandular cells secrete all these three substances?
    A. Sebaceous gland
    B. Pancreas
    C. Mammary gland
    D. Salivary gland
A

C. Mammary gland

47
Q
  1. Part of the bone tissue containing few spaces and forms the external layer of all bones of the body and the bulk of the diaphysis of long bones is;
    A. Endosteum
    B. Spongy bone tissue
    C. Osteons
    D. Compact bone tissue
A

D. Compact bone tissue

48
Q
  1. Mature bone cells located within a lacuna are.
    A. Osteocyte
    B. Chrondrocyte
    C. Canaliculi
    D. Osteon (haversian system)
A

A. Osteocyte

49
Q
  1. Rings of hard, calcified matrix are;
    A. Osteocyte
    B. Central canal
    C. Concentric lamellae
    D. Lacunae
A

C. Concentric lamellae

50
Q
  1. Phospholipids are most stable when they form a double or bilayer by;
    A. None of the above
    B. The hydrophobic fatty acid chains located in a middle region away from water and the hydrophilic polar head groups contacting the water
    C. The hydrophilic fatty acid chains located in a middle region away from water and the hydrophilic polar head groups contacting the water
A

B. The hydrophobic fatty acid chains located in a middle region away from water and the hydrophilic polar head groups contacting the water

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is not found in the cell membrane?
    A. Peripheral proteins
    B. Integral proteins
    C. Cholesterol
    D. Ribosomes
A

D. Ribosomes

52
Q
  1. An example of this vesicular transport is a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium.
    A. Exocytosis
    B. Endocytosis
    C. Phagocytosis
    D. Pinocytosis
A

C. Phagocytosis

53
Q
  1. Aponeurosis
    A. All of the above
    B. None of the above
    C. Loose connective tissue
    D. Dense irregular connective tissue
    E. Dense regular connective tissue
A

E. Dense regular connective tissue

54
Q
  1. The epiglottis is composed of what tissue type?
    A. Compact bone
    B. Fibrocartilage
    C. Spongy bone
    D. Hyaline cartilage
    E. Elastic cartilage
A

E. Elastic cartilage

55
Q
  1. An individual genetically unable to synthesize normal occludin is likely to have epithelia with defective regulation in which of the following?
    A. Attachment to the basement membrane
    B. Material crossing the epithelium between the cells (extracellular movement)
    C. Communication between the cells
    D. Strong attachment to neighboring cells
A

B. Material crossing the epithelium between the cells (extracellular movement)

56
Q
  1. What is the lining epithelium of small ducts and tubules that have excretory, secretory and absorptive functions?
    A. Simple cuboidal
    B. Simple columnar
    C. Simple squamous
    D. Transitional
A

A. Simple cuboidal

57
Q
  1. Refers to malignant tumors arising from epithelial cells;
    A. Lymphoma
    B. Carcinoma
    C. Sarcoma
    D. Adenoma
A

B. Carcinoma

58
Q
  1. This is a rapid highly regulated cell activity that shrinks and eliminates defective cells;
    A. Necrosis
    B. Lysosomes
    C. Apoptosis
    D. Phagocytosis
A

C. Apoptosis

59
Q
  1. The olfactory mucosa is unique in that it typically comprises;
    A. Both B and C
    B. Lamina propria containing Bowman’s glands and olfactory nerves formed of unmyelinated axons
    C. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with olfactory, sustentacular and basal cells
    D. A simple columnar epithelium having olfactory and sustentacular cells
    E. Both A and C
A

A. Both B and C

60
Q
  1. Characterized with elongated nucleus, located towards the base, the center or apex of the cytoplasm?
    A. Simple columnar
    B. Simple squamous
    C. Transitional
    D. Simple cuboidal
A

A. Simple columnar

61
Q
  1. Contains the amino acids desmosine and isodesmosine.
    A. Elastin
    B. Laminin
    C. Microfibrils
    D. Fibronectin
A

A. Elastin

62
Q
  1. Sometimes called the “umbrella cells”.
    A. Urothelium
    B. Mesothelium
    C. Lamina propria
    D. Endothelium
A

A. Urothelium

63
Q
  1. Tendon
    A. Dense regular connective tissue
    B. None of the above
    C. All of the above
    D. Loose connective tissue
    E. Dense irregular connective tissue
A

A. Dense regular connective tissue

64
Q
  1. Mostly seen along collagen bundles.
    A. Adipocyte
    B. Macrophage
    C. Fibroblast
    D. Mast cell
    E. Eosinophil
A

C. Fibroblast

65
Q
  1. Isogenous groups of chondrocytes are exhibited by this type of cartilage.
    A. Hyaline
    B. Fibrocartilage
    C. Elastic
    D. All of the above
A

A. Hyaline

66
Q
  1. Fascia
    A. Dense regular connective tissue
    B. Dense irregular connective tissue
    C. Loose connective tissue
    D. None of the above
    E. All of the above
A

A. Dense regular connective tissue

67
Q
  1. Exhibits amoeboid movement
    A. Macrophage
    B. Adipocyte
    C. Fibroblast
    D. Mast cell
    E. Eosinophil
A

A. Macrophage

68
Q
  1. Which one is described as a long and branched apical cell processes that lines the epididymis and ductus deferens?
    A. Cilia
    B. Microvilli
    C. Stereocilia
    D. Keratin
A

C. Stereocilia

69
Q
  1. Using immunohistochemistry, a population of cells is shown to be positive for the protein connexin. From this we can infer that the cells are connected by what type of junction?
    A. Hemidesmosomes
    B. Zonula adherens
    C. Tight (occluding) junctions
    D. Gap junctions
A

D. Gap junctions

70
Q
  1. Choose which of the following is MISMATCHED?
    A. Bronchi – hyaline cartilage as irregular plates
    B. Bronchioles – lacks hyaline cartilage
    C. Trachea – respiratory epithelium
    D. Trachea – hyaline cartilage C-shaped incomplete rings
    E. Bronchi – simple columnar epithelium with Clara cells
A

E. Bronchi – simple columnar epithelium with Clara cells

71
Q
  1. The epiphyseal plate is a thin layer of cartilage covering the epiphysis.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

72
Q
  1. Initial fibers seen in the development of connective tissue.
    A. Elastic fibers
    B. Reticular fibers
    C. None of the above
    D. Cotton fibers
    E. Collagen fibers
A

B. Reticular fibers

73
Q
  1. Endocrine glands in which the acini all produce a secretion of heavily glycosylated, hydrophilic proteins are an example of which type of gland?
    A. Serous gland
    B. Mucous gland
    C. Tubuloacinar gland
    D. Mixed gland
A

B. Mucous gland

74
Q
  1. An irregular latticework of thin columns of bone.
    A. Haversian systems
    B. Trabeculae
    C. Hydroxyapatite
    D. Concentric lamellae
A

B. Trabeculae

75
Q
  1. The process in which fetal cells express sets of genes that mediate specific cytoplasmic activities, becoming very efficient in specialized functions and usually changing their shape accordingly is called;
    A. Cytokinesis
    B. Cell division
    C. Differentiation
    D. Apoptosis
A

C. Differentiation

76
Q
  1. Macrophages are cells specializing in which of the following?
    A. Lipid storage
    B. Synthesis and secretion of steroids
    C. Ion transport
    D. Intracellular digestion
A

D. Intracellular digestion

77
Q
  1. This type of cartilage does not exhibit perichondrium.
    A. Hyaline cartilage
    B. Elastic cartilage
    C. All of the above
    D. Articular cartilage
A

D. Articular cartilage

78
Q
  1. What organic material is laid down by osteoblasts?
    A. Osteon
    B. None of the above
    C. Alkaline phosphatase
    D. Calcium salts
A

A. Osteon

79
Q
  1. Choose the best statement that describes the nucleolus.
    A. It is surrounded by a membrane
    B. Its main function is DNA synthesis
    C. It is a densely stained structure found in the nucleus
    D. None of the above
A

C. It is a densely stained structure found in the nucleus

80
Q
  1. Circular canal of an osteon that runs longitudinally through the bone; the canal contains blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves is a;
    A. Canaliculi
    B. Lacunae
    C. Concentric lamellae
    D. Haversian canal
A

D. Haversian canal

81
Q
  1. What happens in the S phase of the cell cycle?
    A. The cell grows larger and organelles are copied
    B. The cell grows more, makes proteins and organelles, and begins to reorganize its contents in preparation for mitosis
    C. The cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus
    D. There is a production of two new daughter cells
A

C. The cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus

82
Q
  1. A 40 y/o man has history of smoking. He complains of mucus accumulation and constant cough. Biopsy revealed that the epithelial lining of the tracheal lumen is stratified squamous epithelium. Which term describes the process of chance to another tissue type?
    A. Metastasis
    B. Dysplasia
    C. Metaplasia
    D. Neoplasia
A

C. Metaplasia

83
Q
  1. Which one refers to membrane fusions that close the space between cells?
    A. Desmosomes
    B. Gap junction
    C. Occludens
    D. Anchoring junction
A

C. Occludens

84
Q
  1. Which gland involves disruption of cell after filling it with its secretory product?
    A. Holocrine secretion
    B. Endocrine
    C. Merocrine
    D. Apocrine secretion
A

A. Holocrine secretion

85
Q
  1. Intramembranous ossification refers to the formation of bone within hyaline cartilage. In this process, mesenchyme is transformed intro chondroblasts which produce a hyaline cartilage matrix that is gradually replaced by bone. Most bones of the body form by this process.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

86
Q
  1. What are the two major phases of the cell cycle?
    A. Interphase and prophase
    B. Interphase and metaphase
    C. Interphase and mitosis
    D. Interphase and meiosis
A

C. Interphase and mitosis

87
Q
  1. These glycoproteins form proteoglycans EXCEPT.
    A. Keratin sulfate
    B. None of the above
    C. Chondroitin sulfate
    D. Dermatan sulfate
    E. Hyaluronic acid
A

E. Hyaluronic acid

88
Q
  1. Which secretory portion of an exocrine gland is round or globular?
    A. Simple
    B. Acinar
    C. Compound
    D. Tubular
A

B. Acinar

89
Q
  1. The release of lipid droplets from cells is which type of secretion?
    A. Merocrine
    B. Apocrine
    C. Mucous
    D. Serous
A

B. Apocrine

90
Q
  1. Osteons are kind of independent from each other, however, this structure allows for them to communicate with each other.
    A. Sharpeys fibers
    B. Volkmanns canal
    C. Lacunae
    D. Circumferential lamellae
A

B. Volkmanns canal

91
Q
  1. Contains myosin and actin specialized for contraction of the secretory units found in salivary glands.
    A. Goblet cells
    B. Neuroepithelial cells
    C. Myoepithelial cells
    D. Absorptive cells
A

C. Myoepithelial cells

92
Q
  1. This synthesizes lipids and forms transport vesicles.
    A. Lysosomes
    B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C. Cytoskeleton
    D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    E. Golgi apparatus
A

B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

93
Q
  1. A thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity, contains a single layer of bone forming cells, and a small amount of connective tissue is;
    A. Metaphysis
    B. Endosteum
    C. Periosteum
    D. Articular cartilage
A

B. Endosteum

94
Q
  1. Most abundant protein in the body.
    A. All of the above
    B. None of the above
    C. Elastic fiber
    D. Reticular fiber
    E. Collagen fiber
A

E. Collagen fiber

95
Q
  1. Bone tissue with many large spaces, as what may be found in short, flat, and irregularly shaped bones and most of the epiphysis of long bones is;
    A. Compact bone tissue
    B. Osteons
    C. Spongy bone
    D. Endosteum
A

C. Spongy bone

96
Q
  1. This type of development involves cartilage as its origin.
    A. Intramembranous
    B. Interstitial
    C. Appositional
    D. Endochondral
A

D. Endochondral

97
Q
  1. Binds to other fibrous proteins
    A. Laminin
    B. Fibronectin
    C. Elastin
    D. Microfibrils
A

B. Fibronectin

98
Q
  1. What epithelial cell facilitates movement of the viscera, and pinocytosis, and secretion of biologically active molecules?
    A. Simple squamous
    B. Simple columnar
    C. Stratified cuboidal
    D. Pseudostratifed
A

A. Simple squamous

99
Q
  1. This synthesizes proteins
    A. Golgi apparatus
    B. Cytoskeleton
    C. Lysosome
    D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    E. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
A

E. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

100
Q
  1. This cyclin-cyclin dependent kinase complex targets specific phosphatases and cyclin B is involved in the G2/M checkpoint.
    A. Cyclin D-CDK6
    B. Cyclin A-CDK1
    C. Cyclin E-CDK2
    D. Cyclin D-CDK4
A

B. Cyclin A-CDK1

Histology (14 decks)

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