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Histology > [HISTO] LE 6 - Reproductive (2024) > Flashcards

[HISTO] LE 6 - Reproductive (2024) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which stage of the follicle is arrested in the first meiotic prophase?
    A. Mature follicle
    B. Graffian follicle
    C. Primary follicle
    D. Primordial follicle
    E. Secondary follicle
A

Primordial follicle

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2
Q
  1. When a follicle presents with a structure called antrum, at what stage of development is the follicle?
    A. Secondary
    B. Tertiary
    C. Mature Graafian
    D. Primary
A

Secondary

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3
Q
  1. What is the cavity within a secondary follicle?
    A. Granulosa cells
    B. Graffian follicle
    C. Zona pellucida
    D. Theca folliculi
    E. Antrum
A

Antrum

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4
Q
  1. During the first week to 10 days, what is the main hormone which stimulates the growth of the follicles?
    A. Progesterone
    B. LH
    C. Estrogen
    D. FSH
    E. HCG
A

FSH

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5
Q
  1. What hormone triggers ovulation
    A. Estrogen
    B. FSH
    C. LH
    D. HCG
    E. Progesterone
A

LH

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6
Q
  1. What is the female organ called where gametogenesis occurs?
    A. Oogenesis
    B. Ovary
    C. Ovulation
    D. Oocyte
    E. Ova
A

Ovary

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7
Q
  1. Which statement best describes the vagina and its location in the female reproductive system?
    A. It is a distensible muscular tube which extends posterosuperiorly from the external vaginal orifice to the cervix
    B. It is a distensible muscular tube which extends anterosuperiorly from the external vaginal orifice to the cervix
    C. No description is accurate
    D. It is a distensible muscular tube which Is posteriorly apposed to the bladder
    E. It is a distensible muscular tube which Is anteriorly apposed to the rectum
A

It is a distensible muscular tube which extends posterosuperiorly from the external vaginal orifice to the cervix

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8
Q
  1. During a pregnancy, which hormone which maintains the corpus luteum?
    A. Progesterone
    B. Estrogen
    C. FSH
    D. LH
    E. HCG
A

HCG

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9
Q
  1. Which structure contains the oocyte?
    A. Tunica albuginea
    B. Medulla
    C. Follicle
    D. Cortex
    E. Germinal epithelium
A

Follicle

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10
Q
  1. What is the acidophilic glycoprotein coat which surrounds the oocyte?
    A. Graffian follicle
    B. Theca folliculi
    C. Granulosa cells
    D. Zona pellucida
    E. Antrum
A

Zona pellucida

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11
Q
  1. What tissue surrounds the ovary?
    A. Follicle
    B. Cortex
    C. Medulla
    D. Tunica albuginea
    E. Germinal epithelium
A

Germinal epithelium

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12
Q
  1. What tissue lies beneath the outer covering of the ovary
    A. Follicle
    B. Tunica albuginea
    C. Germinal epithelium
    D. Medulla
    E. Cortex
A

Tunica albuginea

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13
Q
  1. Which stage of the follicle is characterized by a surrounding of flattened (squamous) follicular cells?
    A. Primordial follicle
    B. Graffian follicle
    C. Secondary follicle
    D. Primary follicle
    E. Mature follicle
A

Primordial follicle

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14
Q
  1. What is the connective tissue layer around the primary follicle?
    A. Zona pellucida
    B. Granulosa cells
    C. Theca folliculi
    D. Graffian follicle
A

Theca folliculi

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15
Q
  1. Ovulation is triggered by a dramatic increase in which hormone?
    A. Progesterone
    B. Estrogen
    C. HG
    D. FSH
    E. LH
A

LH

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16
Q
  1. When HPV gains access to the cervix, it induces specific cellular changes such as anisocytosis or perinuclear cytoplasmic vacuolization. This is referred to as___?
    A. Hypertrophic changes
    B. None of the choices is correct
    C. Cytopathic changes
    D. Atypical changes
    E. Hyperplastic changes
A

Cytopathic changes

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17
Q
  1. What are the follicular cells?
    A. Graffian follicle
    B. Granulosa cells
    C. Theca folliculi
    D. Antrum
    E. Zona pellucida
A

Granulosa cells

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18
Q
  1. The maternal endometrium response to trophoblast invasion is called the decidual reaction.
    A. FALSE
    B. TRUE
A

TRUE

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19
Q
  1. The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy:
    A. Pelvic adhesions
    B. Using OCPs
    C. Congenital anomalies of the tube
    D. Uterine abnormalities
    E. Inflammation of the tubes
A

Inflammation of the tubes

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20
Q
  1. The development of cervical cancer has risk factors. Which among the following is/are considered risk factors?
    A. Practice safe sex and don’t smoke
    B. Engage in sexual activities at an early age
    C. Have multiple sex partners
    D. Delay on sexual activities
    E. Have multiple sex partners and engage in sexual activities at an early age
A

Have multiple sex partners and engage in sexual activities at an early age

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21
Q
  1. During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, the functional layer of the endometrium undergoes which of the following changes?
    A. The stroma swells due to edema.
    B. Glands become coiled.
    C. Blood vessels become ischemic.
    D. The epithelium is renewed.
    E. The epithelium is sloughed off
A

The epithelium is renewed.

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22
Q
  1. Vaginal mucosa: possesses no elastic fibers.
    A. is lined by stratified cuboidal epithelium.
    B. is lubricated by glands located in the cervix.
    C. contains cells which secrete lactic acid.
    D. is lined by stratified columnar epithelium.
A

is lubricated by glands located in the cervix.

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23
Q
  1. This condition is defined as the abnormal positioning or placement of the placenta in the uterus.
    A. Placenta Increta
    B. Placenta Percreta
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Placenta Accreta
    E. Placenta Previa.
A

Placenta Previa.

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24
Q
  1. Bleeding in the first half of pregnancy may be attributed to Placenta Previa
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

FALSE

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25
Q
  1. Placenta Previa totalis is described as a condition when:
    A. The placenta encroaches on the opening of the endocervix
    B. The placenta totally covers the opening of the endocervix
    C. None of the choices is correct
    D. The placenta invades the myometrium
    E. The placenta is located near the opening of the endocervix
A

The placenta totally covers the opening of the endocervix

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26
Q
  1. Peau d’ orange is a term to describe this type of malignancy in what organ?
    A. Vagina
    B. Breast
    C. None of the choices is correct
    D. Placenta
    E. Cervix
A

Breast

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27
Q
  1. The transition zone between the vagina and cervix is a common site of cervical dysplasia and cancer.What epithelial transition is seen in this zone?
    A. Vaginal simple columnar to cervical simple squamous
    B. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical stratified columnar
    C. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical stratified columnar
    D. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical simple columnar
    E. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar
A

Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar

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28
Q
  1. The functional layer of the endometrium is composed of:
    A. simple columnar epithelium
    B. stratified squamous epithelium
    C. simple squamous epithelium
    D. simple ciliated columnar epithelium
    E. simple cuboidal epithelium
A

simple ciliated columnar epithelium

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29
Q
  1. Which layer of the vaginal wall contains glands, such as lubrication mucus?
    A. submucosal layer
    B. mucosal layer
    C. adventitial layer
    D. muscular layer
    E. there are no glands in the vaginal wall
A

there are no glands in the vaginal wall

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30
Q
  1. Basal zone of the endometrium is characterized by:
    A. undergoes cyclic changes
    B. contains the necks of uterine glands
    C. contains spiral arteries
    D. reserve part of the endometrium
    E. sheds at the menstrual phase
A

reserve part of the endometrium

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31
Q
  1. One of the followings is characteristic for the secretory phase of the endometrium:
    A. Constriction of the spiral vessels
    B. Glands accumulate glycogen.
    C. Glands are straight with narrow lumen
    D. Controlled by estrogen secreted by ovarian follicles.
    E. Endometrium is about 2 mm thick
A

Glands accumulate glycogen.

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32
Q
  1. Hofbauer cells are:
    A. present in the intervillous spaces
    B. macrophage cells originating from the fetal part of the placenta
    C. stromal cells in the endometrium after fertilization.
    D. located in the cytotrophoblast layer.
    E. endocrine cells in the chorionic villi
A

macrophage cells originating from the fetal part of the placenta

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33
Q
  1. Syncytiotrophoblast is:
    A. Thin multinucleated layer covering the chorionic villi.
    B. Inner layer of the chorionic villi
    C. Disappear at the end of the 4th month of pregnancy.
    D. Has microvilli to invade the decidua parietalis.
    E. Has pale staining cytoplasm.
A

Thin multinucleated layer covering the chorionic villi.

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning the vaginal mucosa is true?
    A. It possesses many glands.
    B. It possesses many elastic fibers.
    C. Its cells secrete lactic acid.
    D. It is lined by stratified cuboidal epithelium.
    E. It is lined by stratified columnar epithelium.
A

It possesses many elastic fibers.

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35
Q
  1. Each tubuloalveolar gland of the breast ends in which one of the following ducts?
    A. Areola.
    B. Lactiferous duct.
    C. Lactiferous sinus.
    D. Intercalary duct.
    E. Striated duct.
A

Lactiferous duct.

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36
Q
  1. One of the following changes takes place in the pregnant and lactating mammary glands:
    A. appearance of acini lined by pseudostratified columnar cells.
    B. Milk appears as basophilic vacuolated material inside the alveoli.
    C. Increase thickness of the connective tissue septa.
    D. Decreased fat cells.
    E. secretion of milk by holocrine mode of secretion.
A

Decreased fat cells.

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37
Q
  1. The lipid component of the milk from the mammary glands is secreted by which of the following processes?
    A. Apocrine
    B. Eccrine
    C. Holocrine
    D. Merocrine
    E. Lacticrine
A

Apocrine

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are characteristic of the mammary glands?
    A. All of the choices are correct
    B. Each mammary gland consists of 15- 20 glandular units, each having a duct that drains into the nipple region.
    C. They are modified apocrine sweat glands.
    D. They secrete casein and Ca+2 via a merocrine mechanism and neutral lipids via an apocrine mechanism.
    E. They are branched tubuloalveolar glands
A

All of the choices are correct

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39
Q
  1. What cells may be found to reside in between the lining epithelium of an alveoli and the basement membrane?
    A. Myoepithelial cells
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Phagocytic cells
    D. Neutrophils
    E. Plasma cells
A

Myoepithelial cells

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40
Q
  1. Consider the human term placenta and umbilical cord. Which of the following is/are TRUE?
    A. nucleated fetal RBCs are contained within capillaries within chorionic villi
    B. None of the choices is correct
    C. the umbilical cord has two veins and a single artery
    D. Mother’s blood flows through the intervillous spaces
    E. the placenta now has only two trophoblastic cell layers (thecytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast) interposed between the fetal and maternal circulation
A

Mother’s blood flows through the intervillous spaces

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41
Q
  1. What type / s of HPV is é are considered low risk in the development of cervical cancer?
    A. 33
    B. 11
    C. 16
    D. 18
    E. 31
A

11

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42
Q
  1. At the time of parturition a patient reports that her”water broke”, meaning that the amniotic fluid has escaped into the vaginal canal. Assuming that the placenta is attached to its usual location on the posterior wall of the uterus, and that development has proceeded normally, escape of the amniotic fluid requires rupture of which of the following?
    A. Amnion, chorion laeve, and decidua capsularis
    B. Amnion only
    C. Chorion laeve only
    D. Amnion and chorion laeve only
A

Amnion, chorion laeve, and decidua capsularis

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43
Q
  1. During implantation of the blastocyst, which layer of cells secretes hydrolytic enzymes:
    A. Epiblast
    B. Syncytiotrophoblast
    C. Hypoblast
    D. Cytotrophoblast
A

Syncytiotrophoblast

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44
Q
  1. The 4 cellular layers separating maternal and fetal blood in sequence are:
    A. Spiral artery wall, Nichbaur layer, cytotrophoblast and Hofbaur layer
    B. Maternal lacuna, trophoblast layer, endothelial and fetal red blood cell
    C. Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium
    D. Fetal capillary endothelium, villi connective tissue, cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast.
A

Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium

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45
Q
  1. The transition zone between the vagina and cervix is a common site of cervical dysplasia and cancer.What epithelial transition is seen in this zone?
    A. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical stratified columnar
    B. Vaginal simple columnar to cervical simple squamous
    C. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical simple columnar
    D. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical stratified columnar
    E. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar
A

Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar

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46
Q
  1. Which layer of the vaginal wall contains glands, such as lubrication mucus?
    A. muscular layer
    B. there are no glands in the vaginal wall
    C. mucosal layer
    D. submucosal layer
    E. adventitial layer
A

there are no glands in the vaginal wall

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47
Q
  1. One of the following changes takes place in the pregnant and lactating mammary glands:
    A. appearance of acini lined by pseudostratified columnar cells.
    B. Milk appears as basophilic vacuolated material inside the alveoli.
    C. Decreased fat cells.
    D. Increase thickness of the connective tissue septa.
    E. secretion of milk by holocrine mode of secretion.
A

Decreased fat cells.

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48
Q
  1. The 4 cellular layers separating maternal and fetal blood in sequence are:
    A. Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium
    B. Spiral artery wall, Nichbaur layer, cytotrophoblast and Hofbaur layer
    C. Maternal lacuna, trophoblast layer, endothelial and fetal red blood cell
    D. Fetal capillary endothelium, villi connective tissue, cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast.
A

Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium

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49
Q
  1. Consider the human term placenta and umbilical cord. Which of the following is/are TRUE?
    A. the umbilical cord has two veins and a single artery
    B. the placenta now has only two trophoblastic cell layers (thecytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast) interposed between the fetal and maternal circulation
    C.  Mother’s blood flows through the intervillous spaces
    D. None of the above are true
    E. nucleated fetal RBCs are contained within capillaries within chorionic villi
A

Mother’s blood flows through the intervillous spaces

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50
Q
  1. At the time of parturition a patient reports that her”water broke”, meaning that the amniotic fluid has escaped into the vaginal canal. Assuming that the placenta is attached to its usual location on the posterior wall of the uterus, and that development has proceeded normally, escape of the amniotic fluid requires rupture of which of the following?
    A. Chorion laeve only
    B. Amnion only
    C. Amnion and chorion laeve only
    D. Amnion, chorion laeve, and decidua capsularis
A

Amnion, chorion laeve, and decidua capsularis

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51
Q
  1. The following statement/s is/are TRUE regardingSpermatogenesis:
    A. Spermatid undergoes transformation to become spermatozoa in Spermiogenesis
    B. Type A spermatogonia divides meiotically to form Primary Spermatocytes
    C. All the choices are correct
    D. Maturation of Sperm begins before Puberty
A

Maturation of Sperm begins before Puberty

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52
Q
  1. Increase incidence of Achondroplasia is associated with:
    A. Early Paternal age
    B. Advance Maternal age
    C. Early Maternal age
    D. Advance Paternal age
A

Advance Paternal age

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53
Q
  1. Which of the following cells contains Diploid number of Chromosomes?
    A. Spermatid
    B. Primary Spermatocyte
    C. Spermatozoa
    D. Secondary Spermatocyte
A

Primary Spermatocyte

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54
Q
  1. In males, the First meiotic division begins during which of the following?
    A. Adult life
    B. Infancy
    C. Fetal life
    D. Early Puberty (onset of sexual maturation)
A

Early Puberty (onset of sexual maturation)

55
Q
  1. Increase incidence of trisomy 21 is associatedwith:
    A. Advance Paternal age
    B. Advance Maternal age
    C. Early Maternal age
    D. Early Paternal age
A

Advance Maternal age

56
Q
  1. Monosomy is a result of fertilization between two gametes having and number of chromosomes:
    A. 23 and 22
    B. 23 and 23
    C. 22 and 22
    D. 23 and 24
A

23 and 22

57
Q
  1. Tall statue with slightly feminized physique, gynecomastia and testicular atrophy are features of what syndrome?
    A. Turner syndrome
    B. Klinefelter syndrome
    C. Down syndrome
    D. Trisomy 18
A

Klinefelter syndrome

58
Q
  1. What is the largest developing cell in the seminiferous tubules?
    A. Primary spermatocyte
    B. Spermatid
    C. Secondary spermatocyte
    D. Spermatogonium B
A

Primary spermatocyte

59
Q
  1. What cell is responsible for producing the androgen-binding protein in the testes?
    A. Spermatocytes
    B. Leydig
    C. Spermatids
    D. Sertoli
A

Sertoli

60
Q
  1. Spermiogenesis involves what type of cell division?
    A. Neither mitosis nor meiosis
    B. Meiosis
    C. Both mitosis and meiosis
    D. Mitosis
A

Neither mitosis nor meiosis

61
Q
  1. Which type of spermatogonium will develop into a primary spermatocyte?
    A. D
    B. B
    C. A
    D. C
A

B

62
Q
  1. What tubules are lined by Simple cuboidal epithelium?
    A. Rete testis
    B. Ejaculatory duct
    C. Vas deferens
    D. Epididymis
A

Rete testis

63
Q
  1. Corpora amylacea is a characteristic feature of this organ?
    A. Cowper’s
    B. Prostate
    C. Seminal vesicle
    D. Epididymis
A

Prostate

64
Q
  1. What organ secretes yellow, viscous alkaline fluid rich in fructose?
    A. Littre
    B. Seminal vesicle
    C. Prostate
    D. Bulbourethral
A

E. Seminal vesicle

65
Q
  1. The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of the excretory duct of the seminal vesicle and what structure?
    A. Ampulla of the vas deferens
    B. Bladder
    C. Ureter
    D. Prostatic urethra
A

Ampulla of the vas deferens

66
Q
  1. The tunica muscularis of the vas deferens is made up of the following smooth muscles.
    A. Inner circular, outer longitudinal
    B. Inner longitudinal. outer longitudinal
    C. Inner circular, middle longitudinal. outer circular
    D. Inner longitudinal, middle circular.outer longitudinal
A

Inner longitudinal, middle circular.outer longitudinal

IL MC OL

67
Q
  1. What is the subtype of connective tissue is the tunica albuginea in the penis?
    A. Adipose
    B. Embryonal
    C. Fibrous
    D. Mucous
A

Fibrous

68
Q
  1. Which is the correct sequence of flow of the developing sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis?
    A. Efferent ductules - Rete testis - Straight ductules
    B. Straight tubules - Rete testis - Efferent ductules
    C. Rete testis - Straight tubules - Efferent ductules
    D. Efferent ductules - Straight ductules -Rete testis
A

Straight tubules - Rete testis - Efferent ductules

69
Q
  1. What is the lining epithelium of the organ wherein sperms further mature and are temporarily stored?
    A. Specialized stratified epithelium
    B. Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia
    C. Alternate simple cuboidal and simple columnar with stereocilia
    D. Simple columnar ciliated
A

Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia

70
Q
  1. What male accessory organ produces a secretion that lubricates the urethra before ejaculation?
    A. Seminal vesicles
    B. All choices are correct
    C. Bulbourethral glands
    D. Prostate gland
A

Bulbourethral glands

71
Q
  1. A digital rectal exam reveals a hard palpable mass in the prostate that was considered malignant.What zone of the prostate is most likely affected?
    A. Transitional
    B. All choices are correct
    C. Peripheral
    D. Central
A

Peripheral

72
Q
  1. A 48-year-old male consulted you because of erectile dysfunction. What will you initially do as the attending physician?
    A. All choices are correct
    B. Do a fasting blood sugar test.
    C. Refer to a urologist for surgical intervention.
    D. Advise that he will no longer produce an offspring.
A

Do a fasting blood sugar test.

73
Q
  1. As to morphology, the glands of prostate are classified as?
    A. Simple acinar
    B. Compound tubular
    C. Tubulo-acinar
    D. Simple tubular
A

Tubulo-acinar

74
Q
  1. In male sterilization, surgical ligation of this organ is usually done:
    A. Penis
    B. Ductus deferens
    C. Ejaculatory duct
    D. Epididymis
A

Ductus deferens

75
Q
  1. What tubules are provided with flat smooth muscle like cells called as Myoid that allows weak contractions of the organ?
    A. Ejaculatory duct
    B. Seminiferous tubule
    C. Vas deferens
    D. Epididymis
A

Seminiferous tubule

76
Q
  1. The Tunica albuginea of the testis is thickened on the posterior side to form this structure which will further penetrate the organ to separate it into compartments:
    A. Rete testis
    B. Straight tubule
    C. Mediastinum testis
    D. Seminiferous tubule
A

Mediastinum testis

77
Q
  1. Principal cell is seen in what organ of the male reproductive system?
    A. Epididymis
    B. Testis
    C. Penis
    D. Vas deferens
A

Epididymis

78
Q
  1. Which of the following describes Spermiogenesis?
    A. It occurs in diploid cells
    B. It involves transformation of spermatid to sperm cell
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. It occurs before puberty
A

It involves transformation of spermatid to sperm cell

79
Q
  1. Which cell forms the tight junction in the blood testis barrier?
    A. Interstitial cell
    B. Sperm cell
    C. Sertoli cell
    D. Spermatogonia
A

Sertoli cell

80
Q
  1. Which among the developing spermatogenic cells undergoes meiotic division?
    A. Spermatid
    B. Spermatocyte
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Spermatogonia
A

Spermatocyte

81
Q
  1. What organ of the male reproductive system is characterized with irregular folded mucosa lined by pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia and star shaped lumen?
    A. Epididymis
    B. Seminal vesicle
    C. Vas deferens
    D. Prostate gland
A

Vas deferens

82
Q
  1. Which accessory gland of male reproduction is responsible for the milky appearance of the semen?
    A. Prostate gland
    B. Seminal vesicle
    C. Littre’s gland
    D. Cowper’s gland
A

Prostate gland

83
Q
  1. The mucous secreting Littre’s gland is seen in what portion of the male urethra?
    A. Prostatic
    B. Membranous
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Penile
A

Penile

84
Q
  1. Effects of Parasympathetic stimulation to the penis:
    A. Relaxation of the trabecular smooth muscles
    B. Blood filling in the cavernous spaces
    C. Dilatation of Helicine arteries
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

All of the choices are correct

85
Q
  1. It is characterized by shedding of the excess or residual cytoplasm of the spermatid.
    A. Acrosomal and maturation phase
    B. Acrosomal phase
    C. Maturation phase
    D. Golgi phase
A

Maturation phase

86
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is derived from the peritoneum, carried by testis when it migrates from the abdominal cavity?
    A. mediastinum testis
    B. tunica vaginalis
    C. tunica albuginea
    D. testicular lobules
A

tunica vaginalis

87
Q
  1. Which of the following factors does not influence the testicular temperature to regulate spermatogenesis?
    A. cremasteric muscle contraction
    B. rich pampiniform plexus
    C. scrotal sweat evaporation
    D. presence of tunica albugenia
A

presence of tunica albugenia

88
Q
  1. Identify which one is not true regarding the seminal vesicle?
    A. produce 70% percent of human ejaculate
    B. secretes fructose for sperm motility
    C. lined with cuboidal epithelium
    D. acts as reservoirs for spermatozoa
A

acts as reservoirs for spermatozoa

89
Q
  1. It is a calcified glycoproteins observed in the lumen of prostatic glands.
    A. corpora amylacea
    B. fructose
    C. prostatic ejaculate
    D. spermatozoa
A

corpora amylacea

90
Q
  1. Which one secretes a pre-ejaculatory clear mucus as a lubricant during copulation?
    A. prostate gland
    B. seminal vesicle
    C. bulbourethral glands
    D. Epididymis
A

bulbourethral glands

91
Q
  1. The arterial supply of the penis derives from which of the following:
    A. internal pudendal artery
    B. testicular artery
    C. external pudendal artery
    D. inferior epigastric artery
A

internal pudendal artery

92
Q
  1. The main source of energy for sperm motility secreted by the seminal vesicles.
    A. inositol
    B. glucose
    C. citric acid
    D. fructose
A

fructose

93
Q
  1. It is very useful for the diagnosis of prostatic cancer.
    A. prostatic acid phosphatase
    B. fibrinolysin
    C. prostate-specific antigen
    D. prostatic amylase
A

prostate-specific antigen

94
Q
  1. Which one is the progenitor cell in spermatogenesis?
    A. Secondary Spermatocyte
    B. Type A Spermatogonia
    C. Type B Spermatogonia
    D. Primary Spermatocyte
A

Type B Spermatogonia

95
Q
  1. Formation of a single acrosomal granule within a membrane-limited acrosomal vesicle during spermiogenesis?
    A. Golgi phase
    B. Acrosomal phase
    C. Maturation phase
A

Golgi phase

96
Q
  1. Cryptorchidism
    A. does not affect spermatogenesis
    B. has effect in the synthesis of testosterone
    C. Neither is correct
    D. Both are correct
A

Neither is correct

97
Q
  1. Which one is the final differentiation of spermatozoids
    A. spermiogenesis
    B. Both are correct
    C. spermatogenesis
    D. Neither is correct
A

Spermiogenesis

98
Q
  1. Which of the following is the site for accumulation, storage, and maturation of sperm?
    A. prostate gland
    B. ductus epididymis
    C. ductuli efferentes
    D. testis
A

ductus epididymis

99
Q
  1. Which of the following event does not occur during penile erection?
    A. declined parasympathetic activity
    B. increase blood flow into the cavernous spaces
    C. neural input to the smooth muscle in the penis
    D. relaxation of the penile vessels and cavernous smooth muscle
A

declined parasympathetic activity

100
Q
  1. This artery to the penis empties directly into the cavernous spaces?
    A. testicular artery
    B. dorsal artery of the penis
    C. helicine arteries
    D. nutritive arteries
A

helicine arteries

101
Q
  1. During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, the functional layer of the endometrium undergoes which of the following changes?
    A. Glands become coiled.
    B. The epithelium is sloughed off
    C. The epithelium is renewed.
    D. Blood vessels become ischemic.
    E. The stroma swells due to edema.
A

The epithelium is renewed.

102
Q
  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the vaginal mucosa:
    A. contains cells which secrete lactic acid.
    B. where parabasal cells are found.
    C. is lubricated by glands located in the cervix.
    D. is lined by stratified columnar epithelium.
    E. is lined by stratified cuboidal epithelium.
A

is lubricated by glands located in the cervix.

103
Q
  1. Peau d’ orange is a term to describe this type of malignancy of the breast
    A. Intraductal carcinoma
    B. Inflammatory carcinoma
    C. Metastatic carcinoma
    D. Adenomyosis
    E. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

104
Q
  1. The transition zone between the vagina and cervix is a common site of cervical dysplasia and cancer.What epithelial transition is seen in this zone?
    A. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical stratified columnar
    B. Vaginal simple columnar to cervical simple squamous
    C. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar
    D. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical simple columnar
    E. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical stratified columnar
A

Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar

105
Q
  1. The functional layer of the endometrium is composed of:
    A. simple cuboidal epithelium
    B. stratified squamous epithelium
    C. simple ciliated columnar epithelium
    D. simple columnar epithelium
    E. simple squamous epithelium
A

simple ciliated columnar epithelium

106
Q
  1. Which layer of the vaginal wall contains glands, such as lubrication mucus?
    A. submucosal layer
    B. there are no glands in the vaginal wall
    C. mucosal layer
    D. adventitial layer
    E. muscular layer
A

there are no glands in the vaginal wall

107
Q
  1. One of the followings is characteristic for the secretory phase of the endometrium:
    A. Disintegration of the spiral vessels
    B. Glands are straight with narrow lumen
    C. Endometrium is about 2 mm thick
    D. Glands accumulate glycogen.
    E. Controlled by estrogen secreted by ovarian follicles.
A

Glands accumulate glycogen.

108
Q
  1. Syncytiotrophoblast is:
    A. Thin multinucleated layer covering the chorionic villi.
    B. Has microvilli to invade the decidua parietalis.
    C. Has pale staining cytoplasm.
    D. Inner layer of the chorionic villi
    E. Disappear at the end of the 4th month of pregnancy.
A

Thin multinucleated layer covering the chorionic villi.

109
Q
  1. When the blastocyst forms, there are cells that encircle the ball like structure. What are these cells
    A. Epiblast
    B. Cytotrophoblast
    C. Trophoblast
    D. Hypoblast
    E. Syncitiotrophoblast
A

Trophoblast

110
Q
  1. Which of the following changes takes place in the pregnant and lactating mammary glands:
    A. Appearance of acini lined by pseudostratified columnar cells.
    B. Milk appears as basophilic vacuolated material inside the alveoli.
    C. Increase thickness of the connective tissue septa.
    D. Decreased fat cells.
    E. Secretion of milk by holocrine mode of secretion.
A

Decreased fat cells.

111
Q
  1. At the time of parturition a patient reports that her”water broke”’, meaning that the amniotic fluid hasescaped into the vaginal canal. Assuming that the placenta is attached to its usual location on the posterior wall of the uterus, and that development has proceeded normally, escape of the amniotic fluid requires rupture of which of the following?
    A. Amnion, chorion laeve, and decidua capsularis
    B. Chorion laeve only
    C. Amnion and chorion laeve only
    D. Amnion only
A

Amnion, chorion laeve, and decidua capsularis

112
Q
  1. The 4 cellular layers separating maternal and fetal blood in sequence are:
    A. Fetal capillary endothelium, villi connective tissue, cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast.
    B. Spiral artery wall, Nichbaur layer, cytotrophoblast and Hofbaur layer
    C. Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium
    D. Maternal lacuna, trophoblast layer, endothelial and fetal red blood cell
A

Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium

113
Q
  1. One of the following changes takes place in the pregnant and lactating mammary glands:
    A. Secretion of milk by holocrine mode of secretion.
    B. Milk appears as basophilic vacuolated material inside the alveoli.
    C. Increase thickness of the connective tissue septa.
    D. Decreased fat cells.
    E. Appearance of acini lined by pseudostratified columnar cells.
A

Decreased fat cells.

114
Q
  1. What is the largest developing cell in the seminiferous tubules?
    A. Secondary spermatocyte
    B. Spermatid
    C. Spermatogonium B
    D. Primary spermatocyte
A

Primary spermatocyte

115
Q
  1. What cell is responsible for producing the androgen-binding protein in the testes?
    A. Spermatocytes
    B. Leydig
    C. Sertoli
    D. Spermatids
A

Sertoli

116
Q
  1. Spermiogenesis involves what type of cell division?
    A. Mitosis
    B. Meiosis
    C. Both mitosis and meiosis
    D. Neither mitosis nor meiosis
A

Neither mitosis nor meiosis

117
Q
  1. Which type of spermatogonium will develop into a primary spermatocyte?
    A. C
    B. A
    C. D
    D. B
A

B

118
Q
  1. What tubules are lined by Simple cuboidal epithelium?
    A. Rete testis
    B. Vas deferens
    C. Ejaculatory duct
    D. Epididymis
A

Rete testis

119
Q
  1. Corpora amylacea is a characteristic feature of this organ?
    A. Prostate
    B. Epididymis
    C. Seminal vesicle
    D. Cowper’s
A

Prostate

120
Q
  1. What organ secretes a yellow, viscous alkaline fluid rich in fructose?
    A. Littre
    B. Bulbourethral
    C. Seminal vesicle
    D. Prostate
A

Seminal vesicle

121
Q
  1. The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of the excretory duct of the seminal vesicle and what structure?
    A. Prostatic urethra
    B. Ampulla of the vas deferens
    C. Ureter
    D. Bladder
A

Ampulla of the vas deferens

122
Q
  1. The tunica muscularis of the vas deferens is made up of the following smooth muscles.
    A. Inner circular, middle longitudinal. outer circular
    B. Inner circular, outer longitudinal
    C. Inner longitudinal, middle circular. outer longitudinal
    D. Inner longitudinal. outer longitudinal
A

Inner longitudinal, middle circular. outer longitudinal

123
Q
  1. What is the subtype of connective tissue is the tunica albuginea in the penis?
    A. Adipose
    B. Embryonal
    C. Fibrous
    D. Mucous
A

Fibrous

124
Q
  1. Which is the correct sequence of flow of the developing sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis?
    A. Efferent ductules - Rete testis - Straight ductules
    B. Efferent ductules - Straight ductules - Rete testis
    C. Rete testis - Straight tubules - Efferent ductules
    D. Straight tubules - Rete testis - Efferent ductules
A

Straight tubules - Rete testis - Efferent ductules

125
Q
  1. What is the lining epithelium of the organ wherein sperms further mature and are temporarily stored?
    A. Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia
    B. Alternate simple cuboidal and simple columnar with stereocilia
    C. Simple columnar ciliated
    D. Specialized stratified epithelium
A

Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia

126
Q
  1. What male accessory organ produces a secretion that lubricates the urethra before ejaculation?
    A. Bulbourethral glands
    B. All choices are correct
    C. Seminal vesicles
    D. Prostate gland
A

Bulbourethral glands

127
Q
  1. A digital rectal exam reveals a hard palpable mass in the prostate that was considered malignant. What zone of the prostate is most likely affected?
    A. All choices are correct
    B. Peripheral
    C. Central
    D. Transitional
A

Peripheral

128
Q
  1. A 48-year-old male consulted you because of erectile dysfunction. What will you initially do as the attending physician?
    A. Do a fasting blood sugar test.
    B. All choices are correct
    C. Advise that he will no longer produce an offspring.
    D. Refer to a urologist for surgical intervention.
A

Do a fasting blood sugar test.

129
Q
  1. As to morphology, the glands of prostate are
    A. Simple acinar
    B. Simple tubular
    C. Tubulo-acinar
    D. Compound tubular
A

Tubulo-acinar

130
Q
  1. In male sterilization, surgical ligation of this organ is usually done:
    A. Penis
    B. Ductus deferens
    C. Epididymis
    D. Ejaculatory duct
A

Ductus deferens

131
Q
  1. What tubules are provided with flat smooth muscle like cells called as Myoid that allows weak contractions of the organ?
    A. Seminiferous tubule
    B. Epididymis
    C. Vas deferens
    D. Ejaculatory duct
A

Seminiferous tubule

132
Q
  1. The Tunica albuginea of the testis is thickened on the posterior side to form this structure which will further penetrate the organ to separate it into compartments:
    A. Mediastinum testis
    B. Straight tubule
    C. Seminiferous tubule
    D. Rete testis
A

Mediastinum testis

133
Q
  1. Principal cell is seen in what organ of the male reproductive system?
    A. Vas deferens
    B. Epididymis
    C. Penis
    D. Testis
A

Epididymis

Histology (14 decks)

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