HISTO-LEC-LE-2 (2024/5) Flashcards by

1.Which biochemical component of the red blood cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type?
A.Nucleic acid
B.Fatty acid
C.Protein
D.Carbohydrate

D.Carbohydrate

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2.What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to most antigen-presenting cells?
A.Monocyte
B.Eosinophil
C.Lymphocyte
D.Basophil

A.Monocyte

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3.What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte?
A.4 months
B.120 hours
C.4 weeks
D.20 days

A.4 months/ 120 days

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4.Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and histamine?
A.Eosinophil
B.Lymphocytes
C.Neutrophils
D.Monocytes
E.Basophils

Basophils

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5.A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type?
A.Basophils
B.Monocytes
C.Lymphocytes
D.Eosinophils
E.Neutrophils

D.Eosinophils

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6.Which of the following blood cells differentiate outside of the bone marrow?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. T lymphocytes

D.T lymphocytes

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7.Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidney- shaped nucleus. These cells are <10% of the total leukocytes. Which of the following cell types is being described?
A.Eosinophils
B.Basophils
C.Neutrophils
D.Monocyte

D.Monocyte

Neutrophils : 50-70%
Lymphocytes: 20-40%
Monocytes: 2-8%
Eosinophils: 1-4%
Basophils: 0.5-1%

P238-Junquiera

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8.A gardener tending to rose accidentally deeply pricked his finger. The next day the area has become infected. He removed the tip of the horn but there is still pus remaining at the wound site. Which of the following cells function in the formation of pus?
A.Biconcave cells with no nuclei
B.Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei
C.Cells with spherical nuclei and scant cytoplasm
D.Cells with bilobed nuclei and many acidophilic cytoplasmic granules

B.Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei

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9.Fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a haematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following?
A.Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes
B.Fibrinogen, platelets, buffy coat and erythrocytes
C.Serum, packed erythrocytes and leukocytes
D.Leukocytes, erythrocytes and serum proteins

A.Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes

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10.A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytic purpura (ITP). Which of the following symptoms/characteristics would one expect in this patient?
A.Abnormal bruising
B.Hypercoagulation
C.Normal blood count
D.Decreased clotting time

A.Abnormal bruising

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11.Which of the following blood cells is involved in anaphylaxis and type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
A.Lymphocyte
B.Neutrophil
C.Monocyte
D.Basophil

D.Basophil

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12.Mature lymphocytes can be distinguished by their;
A.Glycosylated protein
B.Amount of cytoplasm
C.CD markers
D.Size of the nucleus

C.CD markers

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13.The amount of oxygen carried by the hemoglobin in erythrocytes is lowest in the;
A.Arterial blood
B.Capillaries
C.Lung capillaries
D.Venous blood

D.Venous blood

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14.The attraction of white blood cells to bacteria which leads to their rapid accumulation in the site of injury is called.
A.Migration
B.Chemotaxis
C.Diapedesis
D.Granulocytosis

B.Chemotaxis

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15.On the fifth month of gestation, hemopoiesis occurs primarily at the.
A.Kidneys
B.Liver
C.Bone marrow
D.Mesoderm

C.Bone marrow

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16.In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does haemoglobin synthesis begin?
A.Orthochromic erythroblast
B.Basophilic erythroblast
C.Polychromatophilic erythroblast
D.Reticulocyte

B.Basophilic erythroblast

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17.Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not during erythropoiesis?
A.Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated
B.Cells lose their capacity for mitosis
C.Overall cell diameter decreases
D.Euchromatin content increases

A.Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated

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18.A smear of blood from a 70-year-old leukemia patient reveals a larger than normal population of cells that have large, round nuclei with 1 or 2 nuceloli. The cytoplasm of these cells shows azurophilic granules. Which of the following forms of leukemia would you suspect?
A.Lymphoblastic leukemia
B.Promyelocytic leukemia
C.Basophilic leukemia
D.Stem cell leukemia

B.Promyelocytic leukemia

Granulopoiesis

Promyelocyte: azuro non-sp
Myelo: azuro non-sp, lilac sp
Metamyelo: lilac sp
Band: lilac sp (Horse-shoe nucleus)
Granulo: nucleus segmented into lobes

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19.Which of the following blood cell is capable of further mitosis after leaving the bone marrow?
A.Eosinophil
B.Neutrophil
C.Monocyte
D.Lymphocyte

D.Lymphocyte

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20.A 30-year-old patient diagnosed with end-stage renal disease is noted to be very anemic. Which of the following can be given to stimulate erythropoiesis in this patient?
A.Thrombopoietin
B.GM-CSF
C.G-CSF
D.Erythropoietin

D.Erythropoietin

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21.A 30-year-old patient was noted to have severe bacterial sepsis. Clinically, he has temperatures of 40’C with chills, tachypnea and tachycardia. As the attending physician, you requested for a complete blood count. The result will show a shift to the left which means;
A.Increase in lymphocytes
B.Increase in RBCs
C.Increase in reticulocytes
D.Increase in band cells

D.Increase in band cells

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22.This neutrophilic compartment acts as a buffer system where the cells stay and is capable of releasing a large amount of neutrophils when needed;
A.Granulopoietic
B.Storage
C.Marginating
D.Circulating

B.Storage

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23.This stage in granulopoiesis is where the initial production of specific granules appear;
A.Myeloblast
B.Metamyelocyte
C.Promyelocyte
D.Myelocyte

D.Myelocyte

Promyelocyte: azuro non-sp
Myelo: azuro non-sp, lilac sp
Metamyelo: lilac sp
Band: lilac sp (Horse-shoe nucleus)
Granulo: nucleus segmented into lobes

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24.A 3-year-old patient was admitted due to abdominal distention. In the morning, he defecated bolus of ascaris worms. If CBC was requested, what cells will predominate?
A.Plasma cells
B.Neutrophils
C.Lymphocytes
D.Eosinophils

D.Eosinophils

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25.A chef was slicing meat to cook, but he accidentally cut his finger. Which one releases serotonin to vasoconstrict and reduce blood flow to clot the injured area? A.Basophil B.Lymph C.Thrombocytes D.Lymphocyte

C.Thrombocytes

26.What are the supporting cells in the central nervous system called? A.Satellite cells B.Basket cells C.Neuroglia D.Ganglion E.Schwann cells

C.Neuroglia

27.Which of the following is an element of the peripheral nervous system? A.All of the above B.Brachial plexus C.Receptors D.Ganglia E.Sciatic nerve

A.All of the above

28.What are most neurons in the body? A.Multipolar B.Pseudounipolar C.Both A and B D.Bipolar E.Unipolar

A.Multipolar

29.What is the cell body of a neuron called? A.Terminal bouton B.Astrocyte C.Ganglion D.Perikaryon E.Nissl

D.Perikaryon

30.Which cell is a macrophage found in the central nervous system? A.Kupffer cells B.Langerhans cell C.Microglia D.Dust cell E.Histiocyte

C.Microglia

31.Which type of neuron is multipolar? A.Interneurons B.Motor neurons C.Sensory neurons D.Both a and b E.All of the above

D.Both a and b ## Footnote Sensory neurons only occur as unipolar and bipolar neurons.

32.What provides tensile strength to a neuron? A.Cell bodies B.Meninges C.Myelinated nerve fibers D.Nodes of Ranvier E.Neurofilaments

E.Neurofilaments

33.Which meninx is made of a delicate web like connective tissue? A.Dura mater B.Pia mater C.All of the above D.Arachnoid E.Both a and b

D.Arachnoid

34.What are the conglomerations of gray matter deep within the cerebrum and cerebellum called? A.Nuclei B.Islets C.Cortex D.Soma E.Tracts

A.Nuclei

35.Which of the following is involved in the blood brain barrier? A.Astrocytes B.Ependymal cells C.Microglia D.Schwann cells E.Oligodendrocytes

A.Astrocytes

36.Which of the following forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system? A.Schwann cells B.Ganglion C.Basket cells D.Neuroglia E.Satellite cells

A.Schwann cells

37.What is a group of fibers traveling together? A.Cortex B.Soma C.Nuclei D.Tracts E.Islets

D.Tracts

38.What are motor neurons? A.Multipolar B.Unipolar C.Pseudounipolar D.Bipolar E.Both a and b

A.Multipolar

39.What is a collection of cell bodies outside the CNS called? A.Ganglion B.Astrocyte C.Nissl D.Perikaryon E.Terminal bouton

A.Ganglion

40.What is tissue which surrounds a nerve fascicle? A.Perimysium B.Periosteum C.Endosteum D.Perineurium E.Perichondrium

D.Perineurium

41.What percentage of neurons are interneurons? A.99.9% B.20% C.80% D.1% E.0.1%

A.99.9%

42.Where is the cerebrospinal fluid found? A.Between the pia mater and brain B.Subarachnoid space C.Subdural space D.None of the above E.Between the dura mater and bone

B.Subarachnoid space

43.Which of the following are considered to be part of the meninges? A.Arachnoid B.All of the above C.Dura mater D.Both a and c E.Pia mater

B.All of the above

44.What is the outer gray matter of the brain called? A.Nuclei B.Tracts C.Islets D.Soma E.Cortex

E.Cortex

45.Which of the following is a supporting cell found in the ganglia? A.Neuroglia B.Ganglion C.Satellite cells D.Schwann cells E.Basket cells

C.Satellite cells

46.How many neurons are in the body of man? A.10,000,000 (10 to the 7th) B.10,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 13th) C.10,000,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 16th D.10,000 (10 to the 4th) E.10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)

E.10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)

47.What are the gaps that occur within the myelin sheath? A.Myelinated nerve fibers B.Cell bodies C.Meninges D.Neurofilaments E.Nodes of Ranvier

E.Nodes of Ranvier

48.What is the dura mater composed of? A.Nervous tissue B.Dense irregular connective tissue C.Loose irregular connective tissue D.Dense regular connective tissue E.Simple squamous epithelium

B.Dense irregular connective tissue

49.Where is gray matter located in the CNS? A.Both a and c B.Both c and d C.Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum D.Inner portion of the spinal cord E.Outer surface of the spinal cord

B.Both c and d

50.What surrounds a nerve? A.Epineurium B.Neurium C.Perineurium D.Endoneurium E.None of the above

A.Epineurium

51.Which one is secreted by plasma cells arising from proliferation of B lymphocytes? A.Helper cells B.Antigen C.Cytokine D.Antibody

D.Antibody

52.What immunoglobulin crosses the placental barrier and is produced in large amounts during immune responses? A.IgG B.IgA C.IgD D.IgE

A.IgG

53.Where is the origin of precursors of all types of lymphocyte? A.Spleen B.Blood C.Liver D.Bone marrow

D.Bone marrow

54.Which type of T cells act directly against foreign cells or virus-infected cells? A.Regulatory cells B.Helper cells C.Cytotoxic cells D.Memory cells

C.Cytotoxic cells

55.In a patient with AIDS, which one is killed by the infecting retrovirus? A.Antigen-presenting cells B.Macrophages C.β lymphocytes D.Helper T cells

D.Helper T cells

56.Which one is not a mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)? A.Spleen B.Payer’s patch C.Tonsils D.Appendix

A.Spleen

57.Which of the following statements is true regarding the lymphatic system? A.Lymphatic nodules surround a vessel called central artery B.Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles C.The bone marrow is not a part of the lymphoid system D.Splenic cords are interconnected blood channels that drain blood

B. Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles.

58.Identify which of the following cells carry out an immune response? A.Lymphocytes B.Macrophage C.Plasma cells D.Red blood cells

A.Lymphocytes | Adaptive Immunity

59.Recognition and destruction of antigenically virus-infected and malignant cells are functions of which of the following? A.Suppressor T cells B.Memory T cells C.Cytotoxic T cells D.Helper T cells

C.Cytotoxic T cells

60.Which cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system and function to phagocytose and process antigens? A.Antigen-presenting cells B.Plasma cells C.Natural killer cells D.Suppressor T cells

A.Antigen-presenting cells

61.Which statement regarding the cell-mediated immune response is not correct? A.Cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign cells and induce apoptosis B.Antigen induces transformation of the B cells into plasma cells C.Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells D.Stimulation of T cell is due to the surface of antigen-presenting cells

C.Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells

62.Which of the following is not a feature of a lymph node? A.Associated with afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels B.Presence of high endothelial venules in its paracortical zone C.The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes D.Contains dendritic cells, which are antigen-presenting cells

C.The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes The organ that has an outer cortex populated by T lymphocytes is the thymus.

63.The physical blood-thymus barrier is not formed by which of the following? A.macrophages B.endothelial cells C.epithelial reticular cells D.plasma cells

D.plasma cells

64.This organ filters blood and is the site of immune responses to blood borne antigens. A.thymus B.lymph node C.tonsil D.spleen

D.spleen

65.Which one of the following does not reside in the splenic white pulp? A.Antigen-presenting cells B.T cells C.Macrophages D.Erythrocytes

D.Erythrocytes

66.Identify which one of the following populates the periarterial sheath of the central arteries in the white pulp? A.Macrophages B.lymphocytes C.T lymphocytes D.Plasma cells

C.T lymphocytes

67.What is the protective epithelial lining that covers the palatine tonsil? A.Simple cuboidal epithelium B.Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium C.Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium D.Stratified columnar epithelium

C.Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium

68.Which of the following surrounds and promotes proliferation, and maturation of lymphocytes in the thymus? A.dendritic cells B.stellate reticular cells C.epithelial reticular cells D.macrophages

C.epithelial reticular cells

69.Which of the following is not found in the splenic red pulp? A.cords of Billroth B.germinal center C.reticular fiber networks D.venous sinusoids

B.germinal center

70.The peripheral white pulp and germinal center of the spleen is highly populated with: A.Macrophage B.B lymphocytes C.Plasma cells D.T lymphocytes

D.T lymphocytes

71.In the lymph nodes, the dendritic cells are the: A.antigen presenting cells B.reticular cells C.nurse cells D.lymphocytes

A.antigen presenting cells

72.What stimulate B cells to differentiate into plasma cells and to secrete antibodies? A.Cytokines B.Langerhans cells C.Bone marrow D.Macrophage

A.Cytokines

73.Which of the following is not found in the medullary cords of the lymph node? A.lymphocytes B.red blood cells C.macrophages D.plasma cells

B.red blood cells

74.Lymph enters the lymph node via: A.Efferent lymphatic vessels B.Medullary cords C.Bloodstream D.Afferent lymphatic vessels

D.Afferent lymphatic vessels

75.Which of the following cells inhibit the functions of helper T cells and modulate the immune response? A.Memory T cells B.Kupffer cells C.Suppressor T cells D.Cytotoxic T cells

C.Suppressor T cells

76.This basic tissue has the ability to convert chemical energy into mechanical work. A.Epithelium B.Nervous tissue C.Bone D.Muscle tissue E.Connective tissue

D.Muscle tissue

77.The following are functions of smooth muscles except: A.expel glandular products B.peristalsis C.flexes hip D.changes caliber of lumen E.mixing dense bodies

C.flexes hip

78.These are widely spaced, ill-defined fusiform densities within the cytoplasm of smooth muscles: A.Endoplasmic reticulum B.Golgi complex C.Cytoplasmic dense bodies D.Mitochondria E.Ribosomes

C.Cytoplasmic dense bodies

79.Vesicular invaginations of plasmalemma of smooth muscles A.Caveolae B.Subplasmalemmal dense plaques C.Intermediate filaments D.Actin E.Myosin

A.Caveolae

80.This connective tissue layer intimately covers each muscle fiber: A.Endomysium B.Elysium C.Epimysium D.Perimysium E.Paramysium

A.Endomysium

81.Made up of a single motor neuron, its terminal axonal branches, and a muscle fiber: A.Motor unit B.Synaptic clefts C.Motor end plate D.Neuromuscular junction E.Nerve endings

A.Motor unit

82.A sarcomere is the basic contractile unit of skeletal muscles and is defines as a/an: A.segment between 2 Z-lines B.segment between 2 M-lines C.I – band D.A – band E.segment between 2 H-zones

A.segment between 2 Z-lines

83.Site of sequestration of calcium during muscle relaxation: A.Sarcoplasmic reticulum B.Mitochondria C.Sarcolemma D.Transverse (T) tubule E.Sarcoplasm

A.Sarcoplasmic reticulum

84.TRUE of cardiac muscles, EXCEPT: A.Centrally placed nuclei B.Presence of branching of fibers C.Indistinct longitudinal striations D.more abundant sarcoplasm E.Exhibits cross striations

D.more abundant sarcoplasm

85.What muscle type is in the Inferior Vena Cava?

Cardiac Muscle

86.What muscle type is in the Gastric glands?

Smooth Muscle

87.What muscle type is in the Biceps brachii?

Skeletal Muscle

89.What muscle type is in the Gastric glands?

Smooth Muscle

90.What muscle type/s exhibit/s cross striations?

Skeletal and Cardiac Muscle

91.What muscle type/s function/s through myogenic contractions?

Cardiac Muscle

92.What muscle type/s is/are in the Terminal cisternae?

Skeletal and Cardiac Muscle

93.What muscle type/s is/are in the transverse axial tubular system?

Skeletal and Cardiac Muscle

94.What muscle type/s has/have filaments occur in longitudinally oblique bundles?

Smooth and Skeletal Muscle

95.What muscle type exhibits branching of fibers?

Cardiac Muscle

96.What muscle fiber type are in the Red fibers?

Type 1 slow oxidative

97.What muscle fiber type are in the White fibers?

Type 2 B fast glycolytic

98.What muscle fiber type is abundant in 400- 800-meter sprinters?

Type 2 A fast oxidative glycolytic

99.What muscle fiber type has the Highest resistance to fatigue?

Type 2 A fast oxidative glycolytic

1. Which biochemical component of the red blood cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type? A. Carbohydrate B. Protein C. Fatty acid D. Nucleic Acid

Carbohydrate

2. What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to most antigen-presenting cells? A. Lymphocyte B. Basophil C. Eosinophil D. Monocyte

Monocyte

3. What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte? A. 120 hours B. 20 days C. 4 weeks D. 4 months

4 months

4. Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and histamine? A. Basophils B. Monocytes C. Eosinophils D. Lymphocytes E. Neutrophils

Basophils

5. A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type? A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes D. Basophils

Eosinophils

6. Which of the following blood cells differentiate outside of the bone marrow? A. Basophils B. T lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Eosinophils

T lymphocytes

7. Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidney-shaped nucleus. These cells are < 10% of the total leukocytes. Which of the following cell types is being described? A. Eosinophils B. Monocyte C. Neutrophil D. Basophils

Monocyte N 50-70% L 20-40% M 2-8% E 1-4% B 0.5-1%

8. A gardener tending to roses accidentally deeply pricked his finger. The next day the area has become infected. He removed the tip of the thorn but there is still pus remaining at the wound site. Which of the following cells function in the formation of pus? A. Cells with spherical nuclei and scant cytoplasm B. Biconcave cells with no nuclei C. Cells with bilobed nuclei and many acidophilic cytoplasmic granules D. Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei

Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei

9. Fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following? (1/1 Point) A. Serum, packed erythrocytes, and leukocytes B. Leukocytes, erythrocytes, and serum proteins C. Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes D. Fibrinogen, platelets, buffy coat, and erythrocytes

Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes

10. A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytic purpura (ITP). Which of the following symptoms/ characteristics would one expect in this patient? A. Hypercoagulation B. Normal blood count C. Decreased clotting time D. Abnormal bruising

Abnormal bruising

11. Which of the following blood cells is involved in anaphylaxis and type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? A. Neutrophil B. Basophil C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte

Basophil

12. Which of the following cells is most likely affected in a patient with chronic kidney disease? A. Platelets B. Erythrocyte C. Monocyte D. Lymphocyte

Erythrocyte

13. The amount of oxygen carried by the hemoglobin in erythrocytes is lowest in the: A. Capillaries B. Venous blood C. Lung capillaries D. Arterial blood

Venous blood

14. The attraction of white blood cells to bacteria which leads to their rapid accumulation in the site of injury is called: A. Migration B. Granulocytosis C. Diapedesis D. Chemotaxis

Chemotaxis

15. The differentiation of eosinophils is called? A. Erythropoiesis B. Granulopoiesis C. Both D. Not mentioned

Granulopoiesis

16. In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does hemoglobin synthesis begin? A. Orthochromatic erythroblast B. Reticulocyte C. Basophilic erythroblast D. Polychromatophilic erythroblast

Basophilic erythroblast

17. Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not during erythropoiesis? A. Euchromatin content increases B. Cells lose their capacity for mitosis C. Overall cell diameter decreases D. Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated

Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated

18. Which of the following cells will significantly change in ALL? A. Monocyte B. Erythrocyte C. Platelet D. Lymphocyte

Lymphocyte

19. T cells mature in which organ? A. Kidneys B. Thymus C. Bone Marrow D. Liver

Thymus

20. A 30 year old patient diagnosed with End Stage Renal Disease is noted to be very anemic. Which of the following can be given to stimulate erythropoiesis in this patient? A. GM-CSF B. G-CSF C. Thrombopoietin D. Erythropoietin

Erythropoietin

21. A 30 year old patient was noted to have severe bacterial sepsis. Clinically, he has temperatures of 40 C with chills, tachypnea and tachycardia. As the attending physician, you requested for a complete blood count. The result will show a shift to the left which means: A. Increase in reticulocytes B. Increase in red blood cells C. Increase in band cells D. Increase in lymphocytes

Increase in band cells ## Footnote The appearance of large numbers of immature neutrophils (band cells) in the blood, sometimes called a “shift to the left,” is clinically significant, usually indicating a bacterial infection. (Junqueira’s 15th edition p. 261)

22. In acute blood loss, there is a sudden increase in which of the following cells? A. Lymphocytes B. Reticulocytes C. Band cells D. Megakaryocyte

Reticulocytes

23. This stage in granulopoiesis is where the initial production of specific granules appear: A. Metamyelocyte B. Myeloblast C. Myelocyte D. Promyelocyte

Myelocyte | PM-MBM

24. This cell is the precursor of macrophages A. Lymphocyte B. Monocyte C. Platelet D. Eosinophil

Monocyte

25. This cell releases histamine during anaphylaxis or an allergic reaction? (1/1 Point) A. Basophil B. Erythrocyte C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte

Basophil

26. This basic tissue has the ability to convert chemical energy into mechanical work. A. Bone B. Connective tissue C. Nervous tissue D. Epithelium E. Muscle tissue

Muscle tissue

27. The following are striated muscles, EXCEPT: pharyngeal muscles A. none B. upper esophagus C. ventricular muscles D. anal sphincter

anal sphincter

28. Which of the following contains cardiac muscles? A. left main bronchus B. lower esophagus C. diaphragm D. inferior vena cava E. pectoralis major

inferior vena cava

29. The following organs contain visceral-striated muscles, EXCEPT: A. upper esophagus B. pharynx C. none D. gastric glands E. tongue

gastric glands

30. Smooth muscles are found in: A. tongue B. lower esophagus C. biceps brachii D. right atrium E. gluteus

lower esophagus

31. In general, glands possess this type of muscle: A. skeletal – striated B. smooth C. cardiac D. All E. skeletal – striated

smooth

32. This/These muscle/muscles exhibit cross-striations: A. smooth muscle and skeletal muscle B. smooth muscle C. skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle D. skeletal muscle E. cardiac muscle

skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle

33. The following are functions of smooth muscles, EXCEPT: A. mixing of gastric contents B. expel glandular products C. peristalsis D. flexes hip E. changes caliber of lumen

flexes hip

34. These are widely-spaced, ill-defined fusiform densities within the cytoplasm of smooth muscles: A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Mitochondria C. Golgi complex D. Ribosomes E. Cytoplasmic dense bodies

Cytoplasmic dense bodies

This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits a sphincter-like appearance A. Parallel B. Fusiform C. convergent D. pennate E. circular

E. circular

This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits an oblique orientation in relation to longitudinal band of connective tissue: A. Parallel B. Fusiform C. convergent D. pennate E. circular

D. pennate

This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits a spindle-shaped that is round and thick: A. Parallel B. Fusiform C. convergent D. pennate E. circular

B. Fusiform

This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits a short, connected with bands: A. Parallel B. Fusiform C. convergent D. pennate E. circular

A. Parallel

35. This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits a fan-like distribution of fibers with a single attachment: A. Parallel B. Fusiform C. convergent D. pennate E. circular

convergent

36. Which of the following muscles demonstrate a parallel arrangement of its fibers? A. rectus abdominis B. pectoralis major C. orbicularis oris D. deltoid E. biceps brachii

rectus abdominis

37. This band / line in skeletal muscle cross-striations, “shortens” during muscle contraction: A. Z line B. A band C. H zone D. M line E. I band

I band

38. This band / line bisects each I band: A. H zone B. A band C. Z line D. M line E. sarcolemma

Z line

39. Actual contractile elements of skeletal muscles: A. myofilaments B. sarcoplasmic reticulum C. transverse tubule D. terminal cisternae E. mitochondria

myofilaments

40. In cardiac muscles, the transverse tubules (T-tubules) are located at the: A. A-I junction B. A band C. M line D. I band E. Z line

Z line | DYAD (T-Tubule & SR)

41. Vesicular invaginations of plasmalemma of smooth muscles: A. Caveolae B. Intermediate filaments C. Myosin D. Subplasmalemmal dense plaques E. Actin

Caveolae

42. Muscles used in competition by 400-meter sprinters belong to this classification: A. Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic B. Type 2B / Fast glycolytic and Type 2B / Fast glycolytic C. Type 2b / Fast glycolytic D. Type 1 / Slow oxidative E. Type 1 / Slow oxidative and Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic

Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic

43. This is the origin of all impulses in cardiac muscles: A. SA node B. nucleus C. endoplasmic reticulum D. intercalated discs E. mitochondria

SA node

44. Regarded as the neuromuscular junction, where the myelin sheath ends: A. Motor end plate B. Endomysium C. Neurotransmitter D. Synaptic clefts E. Motor unit

Motor end plate

45. Terminal end of the cardiac conduction system: A. Bundle of His B. Internodal tracts C. AV node D. Purkinje fibers E. SA node

Purkinje fibers

46. This connective tissue layer intimately covers each muscle fiber: A. Epimysium B. Perimysium C. Elysium D. Paramysium E. Endomysium

Endomysium

47. Made up of a single motor neuron, its terminal axonal branches, and a muscle fiber: A. Motor end plate B. Motor unit C. Neuromuscular junction D. Nerve endings E. Synaptic clefts

Motor unit

48. A sarcomere is the basic contractile unit of skeletal muscles and is defined as a/an: A. segment between 2 M-lines B. A-band C. I-band D. segment between 2 Z-lines E. segment between 2 H-zones

segment between 2 Z-lines

49. Site of sequestration of calcium during muscle relaxation: A. Transverse (T) tubule B. Sarcolemma C. Mitochondria D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum E. Sarcoplasm

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

*50. TRUE of cardiac muscles, EXCEPT: A. Presence of branching of fibers B. Indistinct longitudinal striations C. Exhibits cross striations D. more abundant sarcoplasm E. Centrally placed nuclei

Exhibits cross striations

51. What are the conglomerations of gray matter found deep within the cerebrum and the cerebellum A. Tracts B. Islets C. Soma D. Ganglia E. Nuclei

Nuclei

52. What provides tensile strength to neurons A. Neurofilaments B. Nodes of Ranvier C. Cell bodies D. Myelinated nerve fibers

Neurofilaments

53. What cell is called the macrophage of the CNS A. Dendritic cell B. Histiocyte C. Microglia D. Ependymal cell E. Astrocyte

Microglia

54. In nerve injury, the part close to the soma survives while the distal portion degenerates. The healing process may be evidenced by the following events EXCEPT A. Degeneration of the proximal segment B. Nuclear migration to the periphery C. RER dissolution D. Mitotic activity

Mitotic activity

55. Which of the cell components will NOT undergo dissolution as the distal segment degenerates when injured A. Myelin B. Connective tissue C. Axon D. Not in list

Connective tissue

56. What term is given to this nerve cell feature when new communications are established in newly formed synapses resulting from growth of nerve processes A. Regeneration B. Not in list C. Plasticity D. Myelination E. Reproduction

Plasticity

57. Which of the following contain neuronal bodies and glial cells supported by connective tissue serving as relay station in nerve impulse transport A. Schmidt-Lanterman cleft B. Ganglia C. Not in list D. Node of Ranvier

Ganglia

58. What particular cell is infected by HIV1 manifested as AIDS Dementia A. Neurolemmocyte B. Astrocyte C. Ependyma D. Oligodendrocyte

Neurolemmocyte

59. What autoimmune disease damages myelin sheaths A. Neuropathy B. Myasthenia Gravis C. Guillain Barre D. Multiple Sclerosis

Multiple Sclerosis

60. What peripheral nerve cell is responsible for producing myelin A. Neurolemmocyte B. Astrocyte C. Ependyma D. Oligodendrocyte E. E. Microglia

Neurolemmocyte

61. What are the functional contact sites between neurons or between neurons and effector cells A. Terminal buttons B. Where promotion of impulses are carried out C. All are included D. Where neurotransmitters are contained

All are included

62. What layer in the cerebellar cortex approximates the cerebellar medulla A. Molecular layer B. Granular layer C. Central layer D. Purkinje layer E. Not in list

Granular layer

63. What is the primary component of myelin A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Amino acid

Lipids

64. What innervates an apocrine sweat gland A. Adrenergic parasympathetic B. Cholinergic parasympathetic C. Cholinergic sympathetic D. Adrenergic sympathetic

Adrenergic sympathetic

65. What innervates an eccrine sweat gland A. Cholinergic parasympathetic B. Adrenergic parasympathetic C. Adrenergic sympathetic D. Cholinergic sympathetic

Cholinergic sympathetic

66. Which neuron is the most abundant A. Sensory B. Not in list C. Interneuron D. Motor

Interneuron

67. What composes white matter A. Myelinated nerve fibers B. Cell bodies C. Meninges D. Nodes of Ranvier

Myelinated nerve fibers

68. Where can ependymal cells be found A. Lining the ventricle B. Visceral Lining of the brain C. Covering of the brain D. Covering of the spinal cord

Lining the ventricle

69. Which area in the nervous system can white matter be found A. Inner portion of the spinal cord B. Inner portion of the brain C. Not in list D. Outer portion of the brain

Inner portion of the brain

70. Which type of neuron is multipolar A. Interneuron B. Both C. Sensory neuron

Interneuron

71. What are the support cells in the nervous system called A. Ganglion B. Satellite C. Neuroglia D. Schwann E. Basket

Neuroglia

72. Which of the following is NOT part of the meninges A. Arachnoid B. Dura matter C. Not in list D. Pia matter

Not in list

73. What is the most abundant support cell in nervous tissue A. Ependymal B. Astrocyte C. Not in list D. Microglia E. Oligodendrocyte

Astrocyte

74. What forms the covering of a nerve A. Endoneurium B. Perineurium C. Epineurium D. Mesoneurium

C. Epineurium

75. What are Nissl bodies A. Mitochondria B. Golgi apparatus C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum E. Lysosomes

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

76. How does the lymph enters the lymph node? A. Bloodstream B. Efferent lymphatic vessels C. Afferent lymphatic vessels D. Medullary cords

Afferent lymphatic vessels

77. What cells are highly populated in the germinal center of the spleen? A. T lymphocytes B. Macrophage C. B lymphocytes D. Plasma cells

B lymphocytes

78. What stimulates B cells to secrete antibodies? A. Macrophage B. Cytokines C. Langerhans cells D. T lymphocytes

Cytokines

79. Which are dendritic cells of the lymph nodes? A. Nurse cells B. Lymphocytes C. Antigen presenting cells D. Reticular cells

Antigen presenting cells

80. What is secreted by plasma cells that originate from the proliferation of B lymphocytes? A. Helper cells B. Cytokine C. Antigen D. Antibody

Antibody

81. Which immunoglobulin crosses the placental barrier and is highly secreted in an immune response? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgE

IgG

82. Which organ is NOT a mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)? A. Payers patch B. Tonsils C. Appendix D. Spleen

Spleen

83. Which cells carry out an immune response? A. Red blood cells B. Lymphocytes C. Macrophages D. Plasma cells

Lymphocytes

84. Which cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system and function to phagocytose and process antigens? A. Suppressor T cells B. Antigen-presenting cells C. Plasma cells D. Natural killer cells

Antigen-presenting cells

85. The function of this cell is to recognize and destroy antigenically virus-infected and malignant cells? A. Suppressor T cell B. Cytotoxic T cell C. Memory T cell D. Helper T cell

Cytotoxic T cell

86. The physical blood-thymus barrier is NOT formed by which of the following? A. Macrophages B. Epithelial reticular cells C. Endothelial cells D. Plasma cells

Plasma cells

87. What organ is the site of immune responses to blood borne antigens that filters blood? A. Spleen B. Tonsil C. Thymus D. Lymph node

Spleen

88. Which cells do not reside in the splenic white pulp? A. Antigen-presenting cells B. T cells C. Erythrocytes D. Macrophages

Erythrocytes

89. What cells populate in the periarterial sheath of the central arteries in the white pulp? A. Macrophages B. Lymphocytes C. T lymphocytes D. Plasma cells

T lymphocytes

90. Which structure is NOT found in the splenic red pulp? A. Venous sinusoids B. Reticular fiber networks C. Cords of Billroth D. Germinal center

Germinal center

91. What surrounds and promotes proliferation, and maturation of lymphocytes in the thymus? A. Macrophage B. Epithelial reticular cell C. Stellate reticular cell D. Dendritic cell

Epithelial reticular cell

92. What is the protective epithelial lining that covers the palatine tonsil? A. Simple cuboidal epithelium B. Stratified columnar epithelium C. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium D. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium

Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium

93. Which statement is NOT a feature of a lymph node? A. Presence of high endothelial venules in its paracortical zone B. Contains dendritic cells, which are antigen-presenting cells C. The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes D. Associated with afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels

The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes

94. Which statement regarding the cell-mediated immune response is not correct? A. Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells B. Antigen induces transformation of the B cells into plasma cells C. Stimulation of T cell is due to the surface of antigen-presenting cells D. Cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign cells and induce apoptosis

Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells

95. Which statement is true regarding the lymphatic system? A. Lymphatic nodules surround a vessel called central artery. B. Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles C. Splenic cords are interconnected blood channels that drain blood. D. The bone marrow is not a part of the lymphoid system.

Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles

96. What type of T cells act directly against foreign cells or virus-infected cells? A. Cytotoxic cells B. Memory cells C. Helper cells D. Regulatory cells

Cytotoxic cells

97. Which cell is killed by the infecting retrovirus in a patient with AIDS? A. Macrophage B. Antigen-presenting cell C. Helper T cell D. β lymphocyte

Helper T cell

98. Where is the origin of precursors of all types of lymphocyte? A. Bone marrow B. Spleen C. Liver D. Blood

Bone marrow

99. Which cell is found in the medulla of thymus? A. Reticular B. Hassall’s C. Thymic nurse cell D. Lymphoblast

Hassall’s

100. What cells are found in the germinal centres of lymphatic tissues? A. Plasma B. Suppressor T C. Helper D. Lymphocyte

Helper

1. Which of the following is characteristic of the chromatophilic material called Nissl substance in neural tissue? a. Found throughout neurons b. Site of mRNA translation for proteins of the axolemma c. Most abundant in unipolar neurons d. Becomes more abundant as an individual gets older e. An example of intermediate filament proteins

b. Site of mRNA translation for proteins of the axolemma

2. Which of the following events occurs immediately after an action potential reaches a synapse at an axon terminal? a. Vesicle fusion with the presynaptic terminal membrane b. Calcium ion influx at the presynaptic terminal c. Neurotransmitter binding to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane d. Neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft e. Binding of the neurotransmitter at the presynaptic terminal

b. Calcium ion influx at the presynaptic terminal

3. A report from a hospital pathology laboratory indicates that a microscope slide with a small specimen of neural tissue contains “numerous GFAP-positive” cells. What is the most likely source of this specimen? a. A region of white matter b. A sensory ganglion c. An autonomic ganglion d. A region of gray matter e. Pia mater

d. A region of gray matter

4. In the choroid plexus water from capillaries is transported directly into the cerebrospinal fluid by what structure(s)? a. Ependyma b. Astrocytes c. Cells of the arachnoid mater d. Lining of the central canal e. Microglial cells

a. Ependyma

5. What term applies to collections of neuronal cell bodies (somata) in the central nervous system? a. Ganglia b. Neuroglia c. Nodes d. White matter e. Nuclei

e. Nuclei

6. Which structure contains trabeculae around which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flows? a. Arachnoid mater b. Ependyma c. Dura mater d. Pia mater e. Gray matter

a. Arachnoid mater

7. Which of the following is a characteristic of the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual fascicles in large peripheral nerves? a. A delicate region of connective tissue in contact with Schwann cells b. Called the dura mater c. Important as part of the blood-nerve barrier in the nerve d. Rich in myelin e. The thickest sheath of connective tissue in the nerve

c. Important as part of the blood-nerve barrier in the nerve

8. A 35-year-old woman presents with weakness and spasticity in the lower left extremity, visual impairment and throbbing in the left eye, and difficulties with balance, fatigue, and malaise. There is an increase in CSF protein, elevated gamma globulin, and moderate pleocytosis. MRI confirms areas of demyelination in the anterior corpus callosum. Imaging identifies plaques that are hyperintense on T2-weighted and fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) images, and hypointense on T1-weighted scans. Which of the following cells are specifically targeted in her condition? a. Microglia b. Oligodendrocytes c. Astrocytes d. Schwann cells e. Multipolar neurons

b. Oligodendrocytes

9. A 22-year-old man receives a severe, traumatic compression injury to his radial nerve during a motorcycle crash. He shows an advancing Tinel sign. Which one of the following characterizes regeneration of axons after this nerve injury? a. It occurs in the absence of motor nerve action potentials. b. It occurs at a rate of about 100 mm/d. c. It occurs in the segment distal to the site of axon damage. d. It occurs by a process that involves Schwann cell proliferation. e. It occurs in conjunction with degeneration and phagocytosis of the endoneurium.

d. It occurs by a process that involves Schwann cell proliferation.

10. A 2-year-old boy presents with hearing impairment, poliosis (a white shock of hair), complete heterochromia and sectoral heterochromia, hypertelorism, a low hairline with eyebrows that touch in the middle, white pigmentation of the skin, and suspected neurologic deficits. He is diagnosed with Waardenburg syndrome with a mutation in the PAX-3 gene that affects neural crest differentiation. Which of the following structures would most likely also be affected in this patient? a. Purkinje cells b. Pyramidal neurons c. Ventral horns of the spinal cord d. Astrocytes e. Neurons and satellite cells of the spinal ganglion

e. Neurons and satellite cells of the spinal ganglion

1. The basal lamina of a muscle fiber is part of which structure? a. Perimysium b. Epimysium c. Fascia d. Endomysium e. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

d. Endomysium

2. With the transmission electron microscope skeletal muscle fibers can be seen to contain structures called triads. What do the two lateral components of a triad represent? a. Attachment sites for thick myofilaments b. Sites for calcium sequestration and release c. Sites for impulse conduction into the fiber d. Sites for ATP production e. Sites for synthesis of proteins to be secreted outside the cell

b. Sites for calcium sequestration and release

3. Which characteristic is unique to cardiac muscle? a. Contain centrally located nuclei b. Striated c. Often branched d. Multinucleated e. Lack T-tubules

c. Often branched

4. In smooth muscle calcium released by the smooth ER initiates contraction by binding to what protein? a. Actin b. Calmodulin c. Desmin d. Myosin light chain kinase e. Tropomyosin

b. Calmodulin

5. Which feature typifies T-tubules? a. Evaginations of the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. Sequester calcium during muscle relaxation, releasing it during contraction c. Carry depolarization to the muscle fiber interior d. Overlie the A-I junction in cardiac muscle cells e. Rich supply of acetylcholine receptors

c. Carry depolarization to the muscle fiber interior

6. Which characteristic is unique to smooth muscle? a. T-tubules lie across Z lines b. Each thick filament is surrounded by six thin filaments c. Thin filaments attach to dense bodies d. Cells are multinucleated e. Cells have centrally located nuclei

c. Thin filaments attach to dense bodies

7. In one type of muscle, numerous gap junctions, desmosomes, and adherens junctions are specifically localized in which structures? a. Myofilaments b. Dense bodies c. Sarcomeres d. Neuromuscular spindles e. Intercalated discs

e. Intercalated discs

8. A 66-year-old man who lives alone has a severe myocardial infarction and dies during the night. The medical examiner’s office is called the following morning and describes the man’s body as being in rigor mortis. This state of rigor mortis is due to which one of the following? a. Inhibition of Ca2+ leakage from the extracellular fluid and sarcoplasmic reticulum b. Enhanced retrieval of Ca2+ by the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. Failure to disengage tropomyosin and troponin from the myosin active sites d. Absence of ATP preventing detachment of the myosin heads from actin e. Increased lactic acid production

d. Absence of ATP preventing detachment of the myosin heads from actin

9. A 5-year-old boy sustains a small tear in his gastrocnemius muscle when he is involved in a bicycle accident. Regeneration of the muscle will occur through which of the following mechanisms? a. Dedifferentiation of muscle cells into myoblasts b. Differentiation of muscle satellite cells c. Fusion of damaged myofibers to form new myotubes d. Hyperplasia of existing muscle fibers e. Differentiation of fibroblasts to form myoblasts

b. Differentiation of muscle satellite cells

10. A healthy 32-year-old man lifts weights regularly as part of his workout. In one of his biceps muscle fibers at rest, the length of the I band is 1.0 μm and the A band is 1.5 μm. Contraction of that muscle fiber results in a 10% shortening of the length of the sarcomere. What is the length of the A band after the shortening produced by muscle contraction? a. 1.50 μm b. 1.35 μm c. 1.00 μm d. 1.90 μm e. 0.45 μm

a. 1.50 μm

1. Which biochemical component of the erythrocyte cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type (eg, the A-B-O system). a. Fatty acid b. Carbohydrate c. Nucleic acid d. Protein e. Cholesterol

b. Carbohydrate

2. What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to microglia and most antigen-presenting cells? a. Eosinophil b. Basophil c. Lymphocyte d. Monocyte e. Mast cell

d. Monocyte

3. What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte? a. 8 days b. 20 days c. 5 weeks d. 4 months e. 1 year

d. 4 months

4. Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and histamine? a. Eosinophils b. Basophils c. Lymphocytes d. Monocytes e. Neutrophils

b. Basophils

5. A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type? a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Monocytes d. Basophils e. Eosinophils

e. Eosinophils

6. Which of the following blood cells differentiate outside of the bone marrow? a. Neutrophils b. Basophils c. Eosinophils d. T lymphocytes e. Megakaryocytes

d. T lymphocytes

7. Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidneyshaped nucleus. There cells are less than 10% of the total leukocytes. Which of the following cell types is being described? a. Monocyte b. Basophil c. Eosinophil d. Neutrophil e. Lymphocyte

a. Monocyte

8. A 43-year-old anatomy professor is working in her garden, pruning rose bushes without gloves, when a thorn deeply penetrates her forefinger. The next day the area has become infected. She removes the tip of the thorn, but there is still pus remaining at the wound site. Which of the following cells function in the formation of pus? a. Cells with spherical nuclei and scant cytoplasm b. Biconcave cells with no nuclei c. Cells with bilobed nuclei and many acidophilic cytoplasmic granules d. Very small, cell-like elements with no nuclei but many granules e. Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei

e. Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei

49. A 35-year-old woman’s physician orders laboratory blood tests. Her fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following? a. Serum, packed erythrocytes, and leukocytes b. Leukocytes, erythrocytes, and serum proteins c. Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes d. Fibrinogen, platelets, buffy coat, and erythrocytes e. Albumin, plasma lipoproteins, and erythrocytes

c. Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes

10. A hematologist diagnoses a 34-year-old woman with idiopathic thrombocytic purpura (ITP). Which of the following symptoms/ characteristics would one expect in this patient? a. Normal blood count b. Hypercoagulation c. Decreased clotting time d. Abnormal bruising e. Light menstrual periods

d. Abnormal bruising

1. In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does hemoglobin synthesis begin? a. Orthochromatic erythroblast b. Polychromatophilic erythroblast c. Reticulocyte d. Basophilic erythroblast e. Proerythroblast

d. Basophilic erythroblast | PB-PORE

2. Which of the following can be used to describe megakaryocytes? a. Multinucleated b. Formed by fusion of haploid cells c. Precursors to bone marrow macrophages d. A minor but normal formed element found in the circulation e. Possess dynamic cell projections from which one type of formed element is released

e. Possess dynamic cell projections from which one type of formed element is released

3. Which cytoplasmic components are the main constituents of the dark precipitate that forms in reticulocytes upon staining with the dye cresyl blue? a. Golgi complexes b. Hemoglobin c. Nucleoli d. Nuclear fragments e. Polyribosomes

e. Polyribosomes

4. Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not during erythropoiesis? a. Cells lose their capacity for mitosis b. Euchromatin content increases c. Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated d. Overall cell diameter decreases e. Overall nuclear diameter decreases

c. Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated

5. What fate often awaits granulocytes that have entered the marginating compartment? a. Undergo mitosis b. Crossing the wall of a venule to enter connective tissue c. Cannot reenter the circulation d. Differentiate into functional macrophages e. Begin to release platelets

b. Crossing the wall of a venule to enter connective tissue

6. What is the earliest stage at which specific granulocyte types can be distinguished from one another? a. Myelocyte b. Band form c. Reticulocyte d. Metamyelocyte e. Promyelocyte

a. Myelocyte Pro(non-specific) Myelo(non-sp&sp) Meta(sp) Band(sp)

7. Which cell type is capable of further mitosis after leaving the hemopoietic organ in which it is formed? a. Basophil b. Eosinophil c. Reticulocyte d. Lymphocyte e. Neutrophil

d. Lymphocyte

8. Shortly after her birth a baby is diagnosed with a mutation in the erythropoietin receptor gene which leads to familial erythrocytosis (familial polycythemia). During the seventh to ninth months of fetal development, the primary effect on her red blood cell production was in which of the following? a. Liver b. Yolk sac c. Spleen d. Thymus e. Bone marrow

e. Bone marrow

9. A 54-year-old man presents with recurrent breathlessness and chronic fatigue. After routine tests followed by a bone marrow biopsy he is diagnosed with lymphocytic leukemia. Chemotherapy is administered to remove the cancerous cells, which also destroys the precursor cells of erythrocytes. To reestablish the erythrocytic lineage, which of the following cells should be transplanted? a. Reticulocytes b. Orthochromatophilic erythroblasts c. Megakaryoblasts d. Basophilic erythroblasts e. Metamyelocytes

d. Basophilic erythroblasts | PB-PORE

10. A smear of blood from a 70-year-old leukemia patient reveals a larger than normal population of cells that have large, round nuclei with one or two nucleoli. The cytoplasm of these cells shows azurophilic granules. Which of the following forms of leukemia would you suspect? a. Promyelocytic leukemia b. Basophilic leukemia c. Lymphoblastic leukemia d. Stem cell leukemia e. Eosinophilic leukemia

a. Promyelocytic leukemia