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Histology > HISTO-LEC-LE-2 (2024/5) > Flashcards

HISTO-LEC-LE-2 (2024/5) Flashcards

1
Q

1.Which biochemical component of the red blood cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type?
A.Nucleic acid
B.Fatty acid
C.Protein
D.Carbohydrate

A

D.Carbohydrate

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2
Q

2.What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to most antigen-presenting cells?
A.Monocyte
B.Eosinophil
C.Lymphocyte
D.Basophil

A

A.Monocyte

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3
Q

3.What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte?
A.4 months
B.120 hours
C.4 weeks
D.20 days

A

A.4 months/ 120 days

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4
Q

4.Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and histamine?
A.Eosinophil
B.Lymphocytes
C.Neutrophils
D.Monocytes
E.Basophils

A

Basophils

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5
Q

5.A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type?
A.Basophils
B.Monocytes
C.Lymphocytes
D.Eosinophils
E.Neutrophils

A

D.Eosinophils

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6
Q

6.Which of the following blood cells differentiate outside of the bone marrow?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. T lymphocytes

A

D.T lymphocytes

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7
Q

7.Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidney- shaped nucleus. These cells are <10% of the total leukocytes. Which of the following cell types is being described?
A.Eosinophils
B.Basophils
C.Neutrophils
D.Monocyte

A

D.Monocyte

Neutrophils : 50-70%
Lymphocytes: 20-40%
Monocytes: 2-8%
Eosinophils: 1-4%
Basophils: 0.5-1%

P238-Junquiera

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8
Q

8.A gardener tending to rose accidentally deeply pricked his finger. The next day the area has become infected. He removed the tip of the horn but there is still pus remaining at the wound site. Which of the following cells function in the formation of pus?
A.Biconcave cells with no nuclei
B.Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei
C.Cells with spherical nuclei and scant cytoplasm
D.Cells with bilobed nuclei and many acidophilic cytoplasmic granules

A

B.Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei

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9
Q

9.Fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a haematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following?
A.Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes
B.Fibrinogen, platelets, buffy coat and erythrocytes
C.Serum, packed erythrocytes and leukocytes
D.Leukocytes, erythrocytes and serum proteins

A

A.Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes

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10
Q

10.A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytic purpura (ITP). Which of the following symptoms/characteristics would one expect in this patient?
A.Abnormal bruising
B.Hypercoagulation
C.Normal blood count
D.Decreased clotting time

A

A.Abnormal bruising

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11
Q

11.Which of the following blood cells is involved in anaphylaxis and type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
A.Lymphocyte
B.Neutrophil
C.Monocyte
D.Basophil

A

D.Basophil

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12
Q

12.Mature lymphocytes can be distinguished by their;
A.Glycosylated protein
B.Amount of cytoplasm
C.CD markers
D.Size of the nucleus

A

C.CD markers

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13
Q

13.The amount of oxygen carried by the hemoglobin in erythrocytes is lowest in the;
A.Arterial blood
B.Capillaries
C.Lung capillaries
D.Venous blood

A

D.Venous blood

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14
Q

14.The attraction of white blood cells to bacteria which leads to their rapid accumulation in the site of injury is called.
A.Migration
B.Chemotaxis
C.Diapedesis
D.Granulocytosis

A

B.Chemotaxis

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15
Q

15.On the fifth month of gestation, hemopoiesis occurs primarily at the.
A.Kidneys
B.Liver
C.Bone marrow
D.Mesoderm

A

C.Bone marrow

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16
Q

16.In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does haemoglobin synthesis begin?
A.Orthochromic erythroblast
B.Basophilic erythroblast
C.Polychromatophilic erythroblast
D.Reticulocyte

A

B.Basophilic erythroblast

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17
Q

17.Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not during erythropoiesis?
A.Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated
B.Cells lose their capacity for mitosis
C.Overall cell diameter decreases
D.Euchromatin content increases

A

A.Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated

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18
Q

18.A smear of blood from a 70-year-old leukemia patient reveals a larger than normal population of cells that have large, round nuclei with 1 or 2 nuceloli. The cytoplasm of these cells shows azurophilic granules. Which of the following forms of leukemia would you suspect?
A.Lymphoblastic leukemia
B.Promyelocytic leukemia
C.Basophilic leukemia
D.Stem cell leukemia

A

B.Promyelocytic leukemia

Granulopoiesis

Promyelocyte: azuro non-sp
Myelo: azuro non-sp, lilac sp
Metamyelo: lilac sp
Band: lilac sp (Horse-shoe nucleus)
Granulo: nucleus segmented into lobes

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19
Q

19.Which of the following blood cell is capable of further mitosis after leaving the bone marrow?
A.Eosinophil
B.Neutrophil
C.Monocyte
D.Lymphocyte

A

D.Lymphocyte

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20
Q

20.A 30-year-old patient diagnosed with end-stage renal disease is noted to be very anemic. Which of the following can be given to stimulate erythropoiesis in this patient?
A.Thrombopoietin
B.GM-CSF
C.G-CSF
D.Erythropoietin

A

D.Erythropoietin

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21
Q

21.A 30-year-old patient was noted to have severe bacterial sepsis. Clinically, he has temperatures of 40’C with chills, tachypnea and tachycardia. As the attending physician, you requested for a complete blood count. The result will show a shift to the left which means;
A.Increase in lymphocytes
B.Increase in RBCs
C.Increase in reticulocytes
D.Increase in band cells

A

D.Increase in band cells

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22
Q

22.This neutrophilic compartment acts as a buffer system where the cells stay and is capable of releasing a large amount of neutrophils when needed;
A.Granulopoietic
B.Storage
C.Marginating
D.Circulating

A

B.Storage

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23
Q

23.This stage in granulopoiesis is where the initial production of specific granules appear;
A.Myeloblast
B.Metamyelocyte
C.Promyelocyte
D.Myelocyte

A

D.Myelocyte

Promyelocyte: azuro non-sp
Myelo: azuro non-sp, lilac sp
Metamyelo: lilac sp
Band: lilac sp (Horse-shoe nucleus)
Granulo: nucleus segmented into lobes

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24
Q

24.A 3-year-old patient was admitted due to abdominal distention. In the morning, he defecated bolus of ascaris worms. If CBC was requested, what cells will predominate?
A.Plasma cells
B.Neutrophils
C.Lymphocytes
D.Eosinophils

A

D.Eosinophils

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25
Q

25.A chef was slicing meat to cook, but he accidentally cut his finger. Which one releases serotonin to vasoconstrict and reduce blood flow to clot the injured area?
A.Basophil
B.Lymph
C.Thrombocytes
D.Lymphocyte

A

C.Thrombocytes

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26
Q

26.What are the supporting cells in the central nervous system called?
A.Satellite cells
B.Basket cells
C.Neuroglia
D.Ganglion
E.Schwann cells

A

C.Neuroglia

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27
Q

27.Which of the following is an element of the peripheral nervous system?
A.All of the above
B.Brachial plexus
C.Receptors
D.Ganglia
E.Sciatic nerve

A

A.All of the above

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28
Q

28.What are most neurons in the body?
A.Multipolar
B.Pseudounipolar
C.Both A and B
D.Bipolar
E.Unipolar

A

A.Multipolar

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29
Q

29.What is the cell body of a neuron called?
A.Terminal bouton
B.Astrocyte
C.Ganglion
D.Perikaryon
E.Nissl

A

D.Perikaryon

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30
Q

30.Which cell is a macrophage found in the central nervous system?
A.Kupffer cells
B.Langerhans cell
C.Microglia
D.Dust cell
E.Histiocyte

A

C.Microglia

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31
Q

31.Which type of neuron is multipolar?
A.Interneurons
B.Motor neurons
C.Sensory neurons
D.Both a and b
E.All of the above

A

D.Both a and b

Sensory neurons only occur as unipolar and bipolar neurons.

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32
Q

32.What provides tensile strength to a neuron?
A.Cell bodies
B.Meninges
C.Myelinated nerve fibers
D.Nodes of Ranvier
E.Neurofilaments

A

E.Neurofilaments

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33
Q

33.Which meninx is made of a delicate web like connective tissue?
A.Dura mater
B.Pia mater
C.All of the above
D.Arachnoid
E.Both a and b

A

D.Arachnoid

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34
Q

34.What are the conglomerations of gray matter deep within the cerebrum and cerebellum called?
A.Nuclei
B.Islets
C.Cortex
D.Soma
E.Tracts

A

A.Nuclei

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35
Q

35.Which of the following is involved in the blood brain barrier?
A.Astrocytes
B.Ependymal cells
C.Microglia
D.Schwann cells
E.Oligodendrocytes

A

A.Astrocytes

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36
Q

36.Which of the following forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system?
A.Schwann cells
B.Ganglion
C.Basket cells
D.Neuroglia
E.Satellite cells

A

A.Schwann cells

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37
Q

37.What is a group of fibers traveling together?
A.Cortex
B.Soma
C.Nuclei
D.Tracts
E.Islets

A

D.Tracts

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38
Q

38.What are motor neurons?
A.Multipolar
B.Unipolar
C.Pseudounipolar
D.Bipolar
E.Both a and b

A

A.Multipolar

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39
Q

39.What is a collection of cell bodies outside the CNS called?
A.Ganglion
B.Astrocyte
C.Nissl
D.Perikaryon
E.Terminal bouton

A

A.Ganglion

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40
Q

40.What is tissue which surrounds a nerve fascicle?
A.Perimysium
B.Periosteum
C.Endosteum
D.Perineurium
E.Perichondrium

A

D.Perineurium

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41
Q

41.What percentage of neurons are interneurons?
A.99.9%
B.20%
C.80%
D.1%
E.0.1%

A

A.99.9%

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42
Q

42.Where is the cerebrospinal fluid found?
A.Between the pia mater and brain
B.Subarachnoid space
C.Subdural space
D.None of the above
E.Between the dura mater and bone

A

B.Subarachnoid space

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43
Q

43.Which of the following are considered to be part of the meninges?
A.Arachnoid
B.All of the above
C.Dura mater
D.Both a and c
E.Pia mater

A

B.All of the above

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44
Q

44.What is the outer gray matter of the brain called?
A.Nuclei
B.Tracts
C.Islets
D.Soma
E.Cortex

A

E.Cortex

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45
Q

45.Which of the following is a supporting cell found in the ganglia?
A.Neuroglia
B.Ganglion
C.Satellite cells
D.Schwann cells
E.Basket cells

A

C.Satellite cells

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46
Q

46.How many neurons are in the body of man?
A.10,000,000 (10 to the 7th)
B.10,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 13th)
C.10,000,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 16th
D.10,000 (10 to the 4th)
E.10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)

A

E.10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)

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47
Q

47.What are the gaps that occur within the myelin sheath?
A.Myelinated nerve fibers
B.Cell bodies
C.Meninges
D.Neurofilaments
E.Nodes of Ranvier

A

E.Nodes of Ranvier

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48
Q

48.What is the dura mater composed of?
A.Nervous tissue
B.Dense irregular connective tissue
C.Loose irregular connective tissue
D.Dense regular connective tissue
E.Simple squamous epithelium

A

B.Dense irregular connective tissue

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49
Q

49.Where is gray matter located in the CNS?
A.Both a and c
B.Both c and d
C.Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum
D.Inner portion of the spinal cord
E.Outer surface of the spinal cord

A

B.Both c and d

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50
Q

50.What surrounds a nerve?
A.Epineurium
B.Neurium
C.Perineurium
D.Endoneurium
E.None of the above

A

A.Epineurium

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51
Q

51.Which one is secreted by plasma cells arising from proliferation of B lymphocytes?
A.Helper cells
B.Antigen
C.Cytokine
D.Antibody

A

D.Antibody

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52
Q

52.What immunoglobulin crosses the placental barrier and is produced in large amounts during immune responses?
A.IgG
B.IgA
C.IgD
D.IgE

A

A.IgG

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53
Q

53.Where is the origin of precursors of all types of lymphocyte?
A.Spleen
B.Blood
C.Liver
D.Bone marrow

A

D.Bone marrow

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54
Q

54.Which type of T cells act directly against foreign cells or virus-infected cells?
A.Regulatory cells
B.Helper cells
C.Cytotoxic cells
D.Memory cells

A

C.Cytotoxic cells

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55
Q

55.In a patient with AIDS, which one is killed by the infecting retrovirus?
A.Antigen-presenting cells
B.Macrophages
C.β lymphocytes
D.Helper T cells

A

D.Helper T cells

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56
Q

56.Which one is not a mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
A.Spleen
B.Payer’s patch
C.Tonsils
D.Appendix

A

A.Spleen

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57
Q

57.Which of the following statements is true regarding the lymphatic system?
A.Lymphatic nodules surround a vessel called central artery
B.Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles
C.The bone marrow is not a part of the lymphoid system
D.Splenic cords are interconnected blood channels that drain blood

A

B. Epithelial reticular cells form
whorls called Hassall’s
corpuscles.

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58
Q

58.Identify which of the following cells carry out an immune response?
A.Lymphocytes
B.Macrophage
C.Plasma cells
D.Red blood cells

A

A.Lymphocytes

Adaptive Immunity

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59
Q

59.Recognition and destruction of antigenically virus-infected and malignant cells are functions of which of the following?
A.Suppressor T cells
B.Memory T cells
C.Cytotoxic T cells
D.Helper T cells

A

C.Cytotoxic T cells

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60
Q

60.Which cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system and function to phagocytose and process antigens?
A.Antigen-presenting cells
B.Plasma cells
C.Natural killer cells
D.Suppressor T cells

A

A.Antigen-presenting cells

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61
Q

61.Which statement regarding the cell-mediated immune response is not correct?
A.Cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign cells and induce apoptosis
B.Antigen induces transformation of the B cells into plasma cells
C.Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells
D.Stimulation of T cell is due to the surface of antigen-presenting cells

A

C.Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells

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62
Q

62.Which of the following is not a feature of a lymph node?
A.Associated with afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels
B.Presence of high endothelial venules in its paracortical zone
C.The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes
D.Contains dendritic cells, which are antigen-presenting cells

A

C.The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes

The organ that has an outer cortex populated by T lymphocytes is the thymus.

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63
Q

63.The physical blood-thymus barrier is not formed by which of the following?
A.macrophages
B.endothelial cells
C.epithelial reticular cells
D.plasma cells

A

D.plasma cells

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64
Q

64.This organ filters blood and is the site of immune responses to blood borne antigens.
A.thymus
B.lymph node
C.tonsil
D.spleen

A

D.spleen

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65
Q

65.Which one of the following does not reside in the splenic white pulp?
A.Antigen-presenting cells
B.T cells
C.Macrophages
D.Erythrocytes

A

D.Erythrocytes

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66
Q

66.Identify which one of the following populates the periarterial sheath of the central arteries in the white pulp?
A.Macrophages
B.lymphocytes
C.T lymphocytes
D.Plasma cells

A

C.T lymphocytes

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67
Q

67.What is the protective epithelial lining that covers the palatine tonsil?
A.Simple cuboidal epithelium
B.Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
C.Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
D.Stratified columnar epithelium

A

C.Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium

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68
Q

68.Which of the following surrounds and promotes proliferation, and maturation of lymphocytes in the thymus?
A.dendritic cells
B.stellate reticular cells
C.epithelial reticular cells
D.macrophages

A

C.epithelial reticular cells

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69
Q

69.Which of the following is not found in the splenic red pulp?
A.cords of Billroth
B.germinal center
C.reticular fiber networks
D.venous sinusoids

A

B.germinal center

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70
Q

70.The peripheral white pulp and germinal center of the spleen is highly populated with:
A.Macrophage
B.B lymphocytes
C.Plasma cells
D.T lymphocytes

A

D.T lymphocytes

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71
Q

71.In the lymph nodes, the dendritic cells are the:
A.antigen presenting cells
B.reticular cells
C.nurse cells
D.lymphocytes

A

A.antigen presenting cells

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72
Q

72.What stimulate B cells to differentiate into plasma cells and to secrete antibodies?
A.Cytokines
B.Langerhans cells
C.Bone marrow
D.Macrophage

A

A.Cytokines

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73
Q

73.Which of the following is not found in the medullary cords of the lymph node?
A.lymphocytes
B.red blood cells
C.macrophages
D.plasma cells

A

B.red blood cells

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74
Q

74.Lymph enters the lymph node via:
A.Efferent lymphatic vessels
B.Medullary cords
C.Bloodstream
D.Afferent lymphatic vessels

A

D.Afferent lymphatic vessels

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75
Q

75.Which of the following cells inhibit the functions of helper T cells and modulate the immune response?
A.Memory T cells
B.Kupffer cells
C.Suppressor T cells
D.Cytotoxic T cells

A

C.Suppressor T cells

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76
Q

76.This basic tissue has the ability to convert chemical energy into mechanical work.
A.Epithelium
B.Nervous tissue
C.Bone
D.Muscle tissue
E.Connective tissue

A

D.Muscle tissue

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77
Q

77.The following are functions of smooth muscles except:
A.expel glandular products
B.peristalsis
C.flexes hip
D.changes caliber of lumen
E.mixing dense bodies

A

C.flexes hip

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78
Q

78.These are widely spaced, ill-defined fusiform densities within the cytoplasm of smooth muscles:
A.Endoplasmic reticulum
B.Golgi complex
C.Cytoplasmic dense bodies
D.Mitochondria
E.Ribosomes

A

C.Cytoplasmic dense bodies

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79
Q

79.Vesicular invaginations of plasmalemma of smooth muscles
A.Caveolae
B.Subplasmalemmal dense plaques
C.Intermediate filaments
D.Actin
E.Myosin

A

A.Caveolae

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80
Q

80.This connective tissue layer intimately covers each muscle fiber:
A.Endomysium
B.Elysium
C.Epimysium
D.Perimysium
E.Paramysium

A

A.Endomysium

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81
Q

81.Made up of a single motor neuron, its terminal axonal branches, and a muscle fiber:
A.Motor unit
B.Synaptic clefts
C.Motor end plate
D.Neuromuscular junction
E.Nerve endings

A

A.Motor unit

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82
Q

82.A sarcomere is the basic contractile unit of skeletal muscles and is defines as a/an:
A.segment between 2 Z-lines
B.segment between 2 M-lines
C.I – band
D.A – band
E.segment between 2 H-zones

A

A.segment between 2 Z-lines

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83
Q

83.Site of sequestration of calcium during muscle relaxation:
A.Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B.Mitochondria
C.Sarcolemma
D.Transverse (T) tubule
E.Sarcoplasm

A

A.Sarcoplasmic reticulum

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84
Q

84.TRUE of cardiac muscles, EXCEPT:
A.Centrally placed nuclei
B.Presence of branching of fibers
C.Indistinct longitudinal striations
D.more abundant sarcoplasm
E.Exhibits cross striations

A

D.more abundant sarcoplasm

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85
Q

85.What muscle type is in the Inferior Vena Cava?

A

Cardiac Muscle

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86
Q

86.What muscle type is in the Gastric glands?

A

Smooth Muscle

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87
Q

87.What muscle type is in the Biceps brachii?

A

Skeletal Muscle

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88
Q

89.What muscle type is in the Gastric glands?

A

Smooth Muscle

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89
Q

90.What muscle type/s exhibit/s cross striations?

A

Skeletal and Cardiac Muscle

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90
Q

91.What muscle type/s function/s through myogenic contractions?

A

Cardiac Muscle

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91
Q

92.What muscle type/s is/are in the Terminal cisternae?

A

Skeletal and Cardiac Muscle

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92
Q

93.What muscle type/s is/are in the transverse axial tubular system?

A

Skeletal and Cardiac Muscle

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93
Q

94.What muscle type/s has/have filaments occur in longitudinally oblique bundles?

A

Smooth and Skeletal Muscle

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94
Q

95.What muscle type exhibits branching of fibers?

A

Cardiac Muscle

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95
Q

96.What muscle fiber type are in the Red fibers?

A

Type 1 slow oxidative

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96
Q

97.What muscle fiber type are in the White fibers?

A

Type 2 B fast glycolytic

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97
Q

98.What muscle fiber type is abundant in 400- 800-meter sprinters?

A

Type 2 A fast oxidative glycolytic

98
Q

99.What muscle fiber type has the Highest resistance to fatigue?

A

Type 2 A fast oxidative glycolytic

99
Q
  1. Which biochemical component of the red blood cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type?
    A. Carbohydrate
    B. Protein
    C. Fatty acid
    D. Nucleic Acid
A

Carbohydrate

100
Q
  1. What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to most antigen-presenting cells?
    A. Lymphocyte
    B. Basophil
    C. Eosinophil
    D. Monocyte
A

Monocyte

101
Q
  1. What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte?
    A. 120 hours
    B. 20 days
    C. 4 weeks
    D. 4 months
A

4 months

102
Q
  1. Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and histamine?
    A. Basophils
    B. Monocytes
    C. Eosinophils
    D. Lymphocytes
    E. Neutrophils
A

Basophils

103
Q
  1. A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type?
    A. Neutrophils
    B. Eosinophils
    C. Lymphocytes
    D. Basophils
A

Eosinophils

104
Q
  1. Which of the following blood cells differentiate outside of the bone marrow?
    A. Basophils
    B. T lymphocytes
    C. Neutrophils
    D. Eosinophils
A

T lymphocytes

105
Q
  1. Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidney-shaped nucleus. These cells are < 10% of the total leukocytes. Which of the following cell types is being described?
    A. Eosinophils
    B. Monocyte
    C. Neutrophil
    D. Basophils
A

Monocyte

N 50-70%
L 20-40%
M 2-8%
E 1-4%
B 0.5-1%

106
Q
  1. A gardener tending to roses accidentally deeply pricked his finger. The next day the area has become infected. He removed the tip of the thorn but there is still pus remaining at the wound site. Which of the following cells function in the formation of pus?
    A. Cells with spherical nuclei and scant cytoplasm
    B. Biconcave cells with no nuclei
    C. Cells with bilobed nuclei and many acidophilic cytoplasmic granules
    D. Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei
A

Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei

107
Q
  1. Fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following? (1/1 Point)
    A. Serum, packed erythrocytes, and leukocytes
    B. Leukocytes, erythrocytes, and serum proteins
    C. Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes
    D. Fibrinogen, platelets, buffy coat, and erythrocytes
A

Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes

108
Q
  1. A 34-year-old woman was diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytic purpura (ITP). Which of the following symptoms/ characteristics would one expect in this patient?
    A. Hypercoagulation
    B. Normal blood count
    C. Decreased clotting time
    D. Abnormal bruising
A

Abnormal bruising

109
Q
  1. Which of the following blood cells is involved in anaphylaxis and type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
    A. Neutrophil
    B. Basophil
    C. Lymphocyte
    D. Monocyte
A

Basophil

110
Q
  1. Which of the following cells is most likely affected in a patient with chronic kidney disease?
    A. Platelets
    B. Erythrocyte
    C. Monocyte
    D. Lymphocyte
A

Erythrocyte

111
Q
  1. The amount of oxygen carried by the hemoglobin in erythrocytes is lowest in the:
    A. Capillaries
    B. Venous blood
    C. Lung capillaries
    D. Arterial blood
A

Venous blood

112
Q
  1. The attraction of white blood cells to bacteria which leads to their rapid accumulation in the site of injury is called:
    A. Migration
    B. Granulocytosis
    C. Diapedesis
    D. Chemotaxis
A

Chemotaxis

113
Q
  1. The differentiation of eosinophils is called?
    A. Erythropoiesis
    B. Granulopoiesis
    C. Both
    D. Not mentioned
A

Granulopoiesis

114
Q
  1. In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does hemoglobin synthesis begin?
    A. Orthochromatic erythroblast
    B. Reticulocyte
    C. Basophilic erythroblast
    D. Polychromatophilic erythroblast
A

Basophilic erythroblast

115
Q
  1. Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not during erythropoiesis?
    A. Euchromatin content increases
    B. Cells lose their capacity for mitosis
    C. Overall cell diameter decreases
    D. Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated
A

Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated

116
Q
  1. Which of the following cells will significantly change in ALL?
    A. Monocyte
    B. Erythrocyte
    C. Platelet
    D. Lymphocyte
A

Lymphocyte

117
Q
  1. T cells mature in which organ?
    A. Kidneys
    B. Thymus
    C. Bone Marrow
    D. Liver
A

Thymus

118
Q
  1. A 30 year old patient diagnosed with End Stage Renal Disease is noted to be very anemic. Which of the following can be given to stimulate erythropoiesis in this patient?
    A. GM-CSF
    B. G-CSF
    C. Thrombopoietin
    D. Erythropoietin
A

Erythropoietin

119
Q
  1. A 30 year old patient was noted to have severe bacterial sepsis. Clinically, he has temperatures of 40 C with chills, tachypnea and tachycardia. As the attending physician, you requested for a complete blood count. The result will show a shift to the left which means:
    A. Increase in reticulocytes
    B. Increase in red blood cells
    C. Increase in band cells
    D. Increase in lymphocytes
A

Increase in band cells

The appearance of large numbers of
immature neutrophils (band cells) in the
blood, sometimes called a “shift to the left,”
is clinically significant, usually indicating a
bacterial infection. (Junqueira’s 15th edition
p. 261)

120
Q
  1. In acute blood loss, there is a sudden increase in which of the following cells?
    A. Lymphocytes
    B. Reticulocytes
    C. Band cells
    D. Megakaryocyte
A

Reticulocytes

121
Q
  1. This stage in granulopoiesis is where the initial production of specific granules appear:
    A. Metamyelocyte
    B. Myeloblast
    C. Myelocyte
    D. Promyelocyte
A

Myelocyte

PM-MBM

122
Q
  1. This cell is the precursor of macrophages
    A. Lymphocyte
    B. Monocyte
    C. Platelet
    D. Eosinophil
A

Monocyte

123
Q
  1. This cell releases histamine during anaphylaxis or an allergic reaction? (1/1 Point)
    A. Basophil
    B. Erythrocyte
    C. Lymphocyte
    D. Monocyte
A

Basophil

124
Q
  1. This basic tissue has the ability to convert chemical energy into mechanical work.
    A. Bone
    B. Connective tissue
    C. Nervous tissue
    D. Epithelium
    E. Muscle tissue
A

Muscle tissue

125
Q
  1. The following are striated muscles, EXCEPT:
    pharyngeal muscles
    A. none
    B. upper esophagus
    C. ventricular muscles
    D. anal sphincter
A

anal sphincter

126
Q
  1. Which of the following contains cardiac
    muscles?
    A. left main bronchus
    B. lower esophagus
    C. diaphragm
    D. inferior vena cava
    E. pectoralis major
A

inferior vena cava

127
Q
  1. The following organs contain visceral-striated muscles, EXCEPT:
    A. upper esophagus
    B. pharynx
    C. none
    D. gastric glands
    E. tongue
A

gastric glands

128
Q
  1. Smooth muscles are found in:
    A. tongue
    B. lower esophagus
    C. biceps brachii
    D. right atrium
    E. gluteus
A

lower esophagus

129
Q
  1. In general, glands possess this type of muscle:
    A. skeletal – striated
    B. smooth
    C. cardiac
    D. All
    E. skeletal – striated
A

smooth

130
Q
  1. This/These muscle/muscles exhibit cross-striations:
    A. smooth muscle and skeletal muscle
    B. smooth muscle
    C. skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle
    D. skeletal muscle
    E. cardiac muscle
A

skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle

131
Q
  1. The following are functions of smooth muscles, EXCEPT:
    A. mixing of gastric contents
    B. expel glandular products
    C. peristalsis
    D. flexes hip
    E. changes caliber of lumen
A

flexes hip

132
Q
  1. These are widely-spaced, ill-defined fusiform densities within the cytoplasm of smooth muscles:
    A. Endoplasmic reticulum
    B. Mitochondria
    C. Golgi complex
    D. Ribosomes
    E. Cytoplasmic dense bodies
A

Cytoplasmic dense bodies

133
Q

This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits a sphincter-like appearance
A. Parallel
B. Fusiform
C. convergent
D. pennate
E. circular

A

E. circular

134
Q

This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits an oblique orientation in relation to longitudinal band of connective tissue:
A. Parallel
B. Fusiform
C. convergent
D. pennate
E. circular

A

D. pennate

135
Q

This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits a spindle-shaped that is round and thick:
A. Parallel
B. Fusiform
C. convergent
D. pennate
E. circular

A

B. Fusiform

136
Q

This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits a short, connected with bands:
A. Parallel
B. Fusiform
C. convergent
D. pennate
E. circular

A

A. Parallel

137
Q
  1. This skeletal muscle fiber arrangement exhibits a fan-like distribution of fibers with a single attachment:
    A. Parallel
    B. Fusiform
    C. convergent
    D. pennate
    E. circular
A

convergent

138
Q
  1. Which of the following muscles demonstrate a parallel arrangement of its fibers?
    A. rectus abdominis
    B. pectoralis major
    C. orbicularis oris
    D. deltoid
    E. biceps brachii
A

rectus abdominis

139
Q
  1. This band / line in skeletal muscle cross-striations, “shortens” during muscle contraction:
    A. Z line
    B. A band
    C. H zone
    D. M line
    E. I band
A

I band

140
Q
  1. This band / line bisects each I band:
    A. H zone
    B. A band
    C. Z line
    D. M line
    E. sarcolemma
A

Z line

141
Q
  1. Actual contractile elements of skeletal muscles:
    A. myofilaments
    B. sarcoplasmic reticulum
    C. transverse tubule
    D. terminal cisternae
    E. mitochondria
A

myofilaments

142
Q
  1. In cardiac muscles, the transverse tubules (T-tubules) are located at the:
    A. A-I junction
    B. A band
    C. M line
    D. I band
    E. Z line
A

Z line

DYAD (T-Tubule & SR)

143
Q
  1. Vesicular invaginations of plasmalemma of smooth muscles:
    A. Caveolae
    B. Intermediate filaments
    C. Myosin
    D. Subplasmalemmal dense plaques
    E. Actin
A

Caveolae

144
Q
  1. Muscles used in competition by 400-meter sprinters belong to this classification:
    A. Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic
    B. Type 2B / Fast glycolytic and Type 2B / Fast glycolytic
    C. Type 2b / Fast glycolytic
    D. Type 1 / Slow oxidative
    E. Type 1 / Slow oxidative and Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic
A

Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic

145
Q
  1. This is the origin of all impulses in cardiac muscles:
    A. SA node
    B. nucleus
    C. endoplasmic reticulum
    D. intercalated discs
    E. mitochondria
A

SA node

146
Q
  1. Regarded as the neuromuscular junction, where the myelin sheath ends:
    A. Motor end plate
    B. Endomysium
    C. Neurotransmitter
    D. Synaptic clefts
    E. Motor unit
A

Motor end plate

147
Q
  1. Terminal end of the cardiac conduction system:
    A. Bundle of His
    B. Internodal tracts
    C. AV node
    D. Purkinje fibers
    E. SA node
A

Purkinje fibers

148
Q
  1. This connective tissue layer intimately covers each muscle fiber:
    A. Epimysium
    B. Perimysium
    C. Elysium
    D. Paramysium
    E. Endomysium
A

Endomysium

149
Q
  1. Made up of a single motor neuron, its terminal axonal branches, and a muscle fiber:
    A. Motor end plate
    B. Motor unit
    C. Neuromuscular junction
    D. Nerve endings
    E. Synaptic clefts
A

Motor unit

150
Q
  1. A sarcomere is the basic contractile unit of skeletal muscles and is defined as a/an:
    A. segment between 2 M-lines
    B. A-band
    C. I-band
    D. segment between 2 Z-lines
    E. segment between 2 H-zones
A

segment between 2 Z-lines

151
Q
  1. Site of sequestration of calcium during muscle relaxation:
    A. Transverse (T) tubule
    B. Sarcolemma
    C. Mitochondria
    D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
    E. Sarcoplasm
A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

152
Q

*50. TRUE of cardiac muscles, EXCEPT:
A. Presence of branching of fibers
B. Indistinct longitudinal striations
C. Exhibits cross striations
D. more abundant sarcoplasm
E. Centrally placed nuclei

A

Exhibits cross striations

153
Q
  1. What are the conglomerations of gray matter found deep within the cerebrum and the cerebellum
    A. Tracts
    B. Islets
    C. Soma
    D. Ganglia
    E. Nuclei
A

Nuclei

154
Q
  1. What provides tensile strength to neurons
    A. Neurofilaments
    B. Nodes of Ranvier
    C. Cell bodies
    D. Myelinated nerve fibers
A

Neurofilaments

155
Q
  1. What cell is called the macrophage of the CNS
    A. Dendritic cell
    B. Histiocyte
    C. Microglia
    D. Ependymal cell
    E. Astrocyte
A

Microglia

156
Q
  1. In nerve injury, the part close to the soma survives while the distal portion degenerates. The healing process may be evidenced by the following events EXCEPT
    A. Degeneration of the proximal segment
    B. Nuclear migration to the periphery
    C. RER dissolution
    D. Mitotic activity
A

Mitotic activity

157
Q
  1. Which of the cell components will NOT undergo dissolution as the distal segment degenerates when injured
    A. Myelin
    B. Connective tissue
    C. Axon
    D. Not in list
A

Connective tissue

158
Q
  1. What term is given to this nerve cell feature when new communications are established in newly formed synapses resulting from growth of nerve processes
    A. Regeneration
    B. Not in list
    C. Plasticity
    D. Myelination
    E. Reproduction
A

Plasticity

159
Q
  1. Which of the following contain neuronal bodies and glial cells supported by connective tissue serving as relay station in nerve impulse transport
    A. Schmidt-Lanterman cleft
    B. Ganglia
    C. Not in list
    D. Node of Ranvier
A

Ganglia

160
Q
  1. What particular cell is infected by HIV1 manifested as AIDS Dementia
    A. Neurolemmocyte
    B. Astrocyte
    C. Ependyma
    D. Oligodendrocyte
A

Neurolemmocyte

161
Q
  1. What autoimmune disease damages myelin sheaths
    A. Neuropathy
    B. Myasthenia Gravis
    C. Guillain Barre
    D. Multiple Sclerosis
A

Multiple Sclerosis

162
Q
  1. What peripheral nerve cell is responsible for producing myelin
    A. Neurolemmocyte
    B. Astrocyte
    C. Ependyma
    D. Oligodendrocyte
    E. E. Microglia
A

Neurolemmocyte

163
Q
  1. What are the functional contact sites between neurons or between neurons and effector cells
    A. Terminal buttons
    B. Where promotion of impulses are carried out
    C. All are included
    D. Where neurotransmitters are contained
A

All are included

164
Q
  1. What layer in the cerebellar cortex approximates the cerebellar medulla
    A. Molecular layer
    B. Granular layer
    C. Central layer
    D. Purkinje layer
    E. Not in list
A

Granular layer

165
Q
  1. What is the primary component of myelin
    A. Lipids
    B. Carbohydrates
    C. Proteins
    D. Amino acid
A

Lipids

166
Q
  1. What innervates an apocrine sweat gland
    A. Adrenergic parasympathetic
    B. Cholinergic parasympathetic
    C. Cholinergic sympathetic
    D. Adrenergic sympathetic
A

Adrenergic sympathetic

167
Q
  1. What innervates an eccrine sweat gland
    A. Cholinergic parasympathetic
    B. Adrenergic parasympathetic
    C. Adrenergic sympathetic
    D. Cholinergic sympathetic
A

Cholinergic sympathetic

168
Q
  1. Which neuron is the most abundant
    A. Sensory
    B. Not in list
    C. Interneuron
    D. Motor
A

Interneuron

169
Q
  1. What composes white matter
    A. Myelinated nerve fibers
    B. Cell bodies
    C. Meninges
    D. Nodes of Ranvier
A

Myelinated nerve fibers

170
Q
  1. Where can ependymal cells be found
    A. Lining the ventricle
    B. Visceral Lining of the brain
    C. Covering of the brain
    D. Covering of the spinal cord
A

Lining the ventricle

171
Q
  1. Which area in the nervous system can white matter be found
    A. Inner portion of the spinal cord
    B. Inner portion of the brain
    C. Not in list
    D. Outer portion of the brain
A

Inner portion of the brain

172
Q
  1. Which type of neuron is multipolar
    A. Interneuron
    B. Both
    C. Sensory neuron
A

Interneuron

173
Q
  1. What are the support cells in the nervous system called
    A. Ganglion
    B. Satellite
    C. Neuroglia
    D. Schwann
    E. Basket
A

Neuroglia

174
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the meninges
    A. Arachnoid
    B. Dura matter
    C. Not in list
    D. Pia matter
A

Not in list

175
Q
  1. What is the most abundant support cell in nervous tissue
    A. Ependymal
    B. Astrocyte
    C. Not in list
    D. Microglia
    E. Oligodendrocyte
A

Astrocyte

176
Q
  1. What forms the covering of a nerve
    A. Endoneurium
    B. Perineurium
    C. Epineurium
    D. Mesoneurium
A

C. Epineurium

177
Q
  1. What are Nissl bodies
    A. Mitochondria
    B. Golgi apparatus
    C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    E. Lysosomes
A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

178
Q
  1. How does the lymph enters the lymph node?
    A. Bloodstream
    B. Efferent lymphatic vessels
    C. Afferent lymphatic vessels
    D. Medullary cords
A

Afferent lymphatic vessels

179
Q
  1. What cells are highly populated in the germinal center of the spleen?
    A. T lymphocytes
    B. Macrophage
    C. B lymphocytes
    D. Plasma cells
A

B lymphocytes

180
Q
  1. What stimulates B cells to secrete antibodies?
    A. Macrophage
    B. Cytokines
    C. Langerhans cells
    D. T lymphocytes
A

Cytokines

181
Q
  1. Which are dendritic cells of the lymph nodes?
    A. Nurse cells
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Antigen presenting cells
    D. Reticular cells
A

Antigen presenting cells

182
Q
  1. What is secreted by plasma cells that originate from the proliferation of B lymphocytes?
    A. Helper cells
    B. Cytokine
    C. Antigen
    D. Antibody
A

Antibody

183
Q
  1. Which immunoglobulin crosses the placental barrier and is highly secreted in an immune response?
    A. IgA
    B. IgG
    C. IgD
    D. IgE
A

IgG

184
Q
  1. Which organ is NOT a mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
    A. Payers patch
    B. Tonsils
    C. Appendix
    D. Spleen
A

Spleen

185
Q
  1. Which cells carry out an immune response?
    A. Red blood cells
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Macrophages
    D. Plasma cells
A

Lymphocytes

186
Q
  1. Which cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system and function to phagocytose and process antigens?
    A. Suppressor T cells
    B. Antigen-presenting cells
    C. Plasma cells
    D. Natural killer cells
A

Antigen-presenting cells

187
Q
  1. The function of this cell is to recognize and destroy antigenically virus-infected and malignant cells?
    A. Suppressor T cell
    B. Cytotoxic T cell
    C. Memory T cell
    D. Helper T cell
A

Cytotoxic T cell

188
Q
  1. The physical blood-thymus barrier is NOT formed by which of the following?
    A. Macrophages
    B. Epithelial reticular cells
    C. Endothelial cells
    D. Plasma cells
A

Plasma cells

189
Q
  1. What organ is the site of immune responses to blood borne antigens that filters blood?
    A. Spleen
    B. Tonsil
    C. Thymus
    D. Lymph node
A

Spleen

190
Q
  1. Which cells do not reside in the splenic white pulp?
    A. Antigen-presenting cells
    B. T cells
    C. Erythrocytes
    D. Macrophages
A

Erythrocytes

191
Q
  1. What cells populate in the periarterial sheath of the central arteries in the white pulp?
    A. Macrophages
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. T lymphocytes
    D. Plasma cells
A

T lymphocytes

192
Q
  1. Which structure is NOT found in the splenic red pulp?
    A. Venous sinusoids
    B. Reticular fiber networks
    C. Cords of Billroth
    D. Germinal center
A

Germinal center

193
Q
  1. What surrounds and promotes proliferation, and maturation of lymphocytes in the thymus?
    A. Macrophage
    B. Epithelial reticular cell
    C. Stellate reticular cell
    D. Dendritic cell
A

Epithelial reticular cell

194
Q
  1. What is the protective epithelial lining that covers the palatine tonsil?
    A. Simple cuboidal epithelium
    B. Stratified columnar epithelium
    C. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
    D. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
A

Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium

195
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT a feature of a lymph node?
    A. Presence of high endothelial venules in its paracortical zone
    B. Contains dendritic cells, which are antigen-presenting cells
    C. The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes
    D. Associated with afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels
A

The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes

196
Q
  1. Which statement regarding the cell-mediated immune response is not correct?
    A. Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells
    B. Antigen induces transformation of the B cells into plasma cells
    C. Stimulation of T cell is due to the surface of antigen-presenting cells
    D. Cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign cells and induce apoptosis
A

Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells

197
Q
  1. Which statement is true regarding the lymphatic system?
    A. Lymphatic nodules surround a vessel called central artery.
    B. Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles
    C. Splenic cords are interconnected blood channels that drain blood.
    D. The bone marrow is not a part of the lymphoid system.
A

Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles

198
Q
  1. What type of T cells act directly against foreign cells or virus-infected cells?
    A. Cytotoxic cells
    B. Memory cells
    C. Helper cells
    D. Regulatory cells
A

Cytotoxic cells

199
Q
  1. Which cell is killed by the infecting retrovirus in a patient with AIDS?
    A. Macrophage
    B. Antigen-presenting cell
    C. Helper T cell
    D. β lymphocyte
A

Helper T cell

200
Q
  1. Where is the origin of precursors of all types of lymphocyte?
    A. Bone marrow
    B. Spleen
    C. Liver
    D. Blood
A

Bone marrow

201
Q
  1. Which cell is found in the medulla of thymus?
    A. Reticular
    B. Hassall’s
    C. Thymic nurse cell
    D. Lymphoblast
A

Hassall’s

202
Q
  1. What cells are found in the germinal centres of lymphatic tissues?
    A. Plasma
    B. Suppressor T
    C. Helper
    D. Lymphocyte
A

Helper

203
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of the chromatophilic material called Nissl substance in neural tissue?
    a. Found throughout neurons
    b. Site of mRNA translation for proteins of the axolemma
    c. Most abundant in unipolar neurons
    d. Becomes more abundant as an individual gets older
    e. An example of intermediate filament proteins
A

b. Site of mRNA translation for proteins of the axolemma

204
Q
  1. Which of the following events occurs immediately after an action
    potential reaches a synapse at an axon terminal?
    a. Vesicle fusion with the presynaptic terminal membrane
    b. Calcium ion influx at the presynaptic terminal
    c. Neurotransmitter binding to receptors on the postsynaptic
    membrane
    d. Neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft
    e. Binding of the neurotransmitter at the presynaptic terminal
A

b. Calcium ion influx at the presynaptic terminal

205
Q
  1. A report from a hospital pathology laboratory indicates that a
    microscope slide with a small specimen of neural tissue contains “numerous GFAP-positive” cells. What is the most likely source of this specimen?
    a. A region of white matter
    b. A sensory ganglion
    c. An autonomic ganglion
    d. A region of gray matter
    e. Pia mater
A

d. A region of gray matter

206
Q
  1. In the choroid plexus water from capillaries is transported directly into the cerebrospinal fluid by what structure(s)?
    a. Ependyma
    b. Astrocytes
    c. Cells of the arachnoid mater
    d. Lining of the central canal
    e. Microglial cells
A

a. Ependyma

207
Q
  1. What term applies to collections of neuronal cell bodies (somata) in
    the central nervous system?
    a. Ganglia
    b. Neuroglia
    c. Nodes
    d. White matter
    e. Nuclei
A

e. Nuclei

208
Q
  1. Which structure contains trabeculae around which cerebrospinal
    fluid (CSF) flows?
    a. Arachnoid mater
    b. Ependyma
    c. Dura mater
    d. Pia mater
    e. Gray matter
A

a. Arachnoid mater

209
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual fascicles in large peripheral nerves?
    a. A delicate region of connective tissue in contact with Schwann cells
    b. Called the dura mater
    c. Important as part of the blood-nerve barrier in the nerve
    d. Rich in myelin
    e. The thickest sheath of connective tissue in the nerve
A

c. Important as part of the blood-nerve barrier in the nerve

210
Q
  1. A 35-year-old woman presents with weakness and spasticity in the lower left extremity, visual impairment and throbbing in the left eye, and difficulties with balance, fatigue, and malaise. There is an increase in CSF protein, elevated gamma globulin, and moderate pleocytosis. MRI confirms areas of demyelination in the anterior corpus callosum. Imaging identifies plaques that are hyperintense on T2-weighted and fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) images, and hypointense on T1-weighted scans.

Which of the following cells are specifically targeted in her condition?
a. Microglia
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Astrocytes
d. Schwann cells
e. Multipolar neurons

A

b. Oligodendrocytes

211
Q
  1. A 22-year-old man receives a severe, traumatic compression injury
    to his radial nerve during a motorcycle crash. He shows an advancing Tinel sign. Which one of the following characterizes regeneration of axons after this nerve injury?
    a. It occurs in the absence of motor nerve action potentials.
    b. It occurs at a rate of about 100 mm/d.
    c. It occurs in the segment distal to the site of axon damage.
    d. It occurs by a process that involves Schwann cell proliferation.
    e. It occurs in conjunction with degeneration and phagocytosis of
    the endoneurium.
A

d. It occurs by a process that involves Schwann cell proliferation.

212
Q
  1. A 2-year-old boy presents with hearing impairment, poliosis (a white shock of hair), complete heterochromia and sectoral heterochromia, hypertelorism, a low hairline with eyebrows that touch
    in the middle, white pigmentation of the skin, and suspected neurologic deficits. He is diagnosed with Waardenburg syndrome with a mutation in the PAX-3 gene that affects neural crest differentiation.
    Which of the following structures would most likely also be affected in this patient?
    a. Purkinje cells
    b. Pyramidal neurons
    c. Ventral horns of the spinal cord
    d. Astrocytes
    e. Neurons and satellite cells of the spinal ganglion
A

e. Neurons and satellite cells of the spinal ganglion

213
Q
  1. The basal lamina of a muscle fiber is part of which structure?
    a. Perimysium
    b. Epimysium
    c. Fascia
    d. Endomysium
    e. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
A

d. Endomysium

214
Q
  1. With the transmission electron microscope skeletal muscle fibers can be seen to contain structures called triads. What do the two lateral components of a triad represent?
    a. Attachment sites for thick myofilaments
    b. Sites for calcium sequestration and release
    c. Sites for impulse conduction into the fiber
    d. Sites for ATP production
    e. Sites for synthesis of proteins to be secreted outside the cell
A

b. Sites for calcium sequestration and release

215
Q
  1. Which characteristic is unique to cardiac muscle?
    a. Contain centrally located nuclei
    b. Striated
    c. Often branched
    d. Multinucleated
    e. Lack T-tubules
A

c. Often branched

216
Q
  1. In smooth muscle calcium released by the smooth ER initiates contraction by binding to what protein?
    a. Actin
    b. Calmodulin
    c. Desmin
    d. Myosin light chain kinase
    e. Tropomyosin
A

b. Calmodulin

217
Q
  1. Which feature typifies T-tubules?
    a. Evaginations of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    b. Sequester calcium during muscle relaxation, releasing it during
    contraction
    c. Carry depolarization to the muscle fiber interior
    d. Overlie the A-I junction in cardiac muscle cells
    e. Rich supply of acetylcholine receptors
A

c. Carry depolarization to the muscle fiber interior

218
Q
  1. Which characteristic is unique to smooth muscle?
    a. T-tubules lie across Z lines
    b. Each thick filament is surrounded by six thin filaments
    c. Thin filaments attach to dense bodies
    d. Cells are multinucleated
    e. Cells have centrally located nuclei
A

c. Thin filaments attach to dense bodies

219
Q
  1. In one type of muscle, numerous gap junctions, desmosomes, and
    adherens junctions are specifically localized in which structures?
    a. Myofilaments
    b. Dense bodies
    c. Sarcomeres
    d. Neuromuscular spindles
    e. Intercalated discs
A

e. Intercalated discs

220
Q
  1. A 66-year-old man who lives alone has a severe myocardial infarction and dies during the night. The medical examiner’s office is called the following morning and describes the man’s body as being in rigor
    mortis. This state of rigor mortis is due to which one of the following?
    a. Inhibition of Ca2+ leakage from the extracellular fluid and sarcoplasmic reticulum
    b. Enhanced retrieval of Ca2+ by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    c. Failure to disengage tropomyosin and troponin from the myosin
    active sites
    d. Absence of ATP preventing detachment of the myosin heads from actin
    e. Increased lactic acid production
A

d. Absence of ATP preventing detachment of the myosin heads from actin

221
Q
  1. A 5-year-old boy sustains a small tear in his gastrocnemius muscle
    when he is involved in a bicycle accident. Regeneration of the muscle
    will occur through which of the following mechanisms?
    a. Dedifferentiation of muscle cells into myoblasts
    b. Differentiation of muscle satellite cells
    c. Fusion of damaged myofibers to form new myotubes
    d. Hyperplasia of existing muscle fibers
    e. Differentiation of fibroblasts to form myoblasts
A

b. Differentiation of muscle satellite cells

222
Q
  1. A healthy 32-year-old man lifts weights regularly as part of his workout. In one of his biceps muscle fibers at rest, the length of the I band
    is 1.0 μm and the A band is 1.5 μm. Contraction of that muscle fiber
    results in a 10% shortening of the length of the sarcomere. What is
    the length of the A band after the shortening produced by muscle
    contraction?
    a. 1.50 μm
    b. 1.35 μm
    c. 1.00 μm
    d. 1.90 μm
    e. 0.45 μm
A

a. 1.50 μm

223
Q
  1. Which biochemical component of the erythrocyte cell surface is
    primarily responsible for determining blood type (eg, the A-B-O system).
    a. Fatty acid
    b. Carbohydrate
    c. Nucleic acid
    d. Protein
    e. Cholesterol
A

b. Carbohydrate

224
Q
  1. What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to microglia and
    most antigen-presenting cells?
    a. Eosinophil
    b. Basophil
    c. Lymphocyte
    d. Monocyte
    e. Mast cell
A

d. Monocyte

225
Q
  1. What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte?
    a. 8 days
    b. 20 days
    c. 5 weeks
    d. 4 months
    e. 1 year
A

d. 4 months

226
Q
  1. Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and
    histamine?
    a. Eosinophils
    b. Basophils
    c. Lymphocytes
    d. Monocytes
    e. Neutrophils
A

b. Basophils

227
Q
  1. A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type?
    a. Neutrophils
    b. Lymphocytes
    c. Monocytes
    d. Basophils
    e. Eosinophils
A

e. Eosinophils

228
Q
  1. Which of the following blood cells differentiate outside of the bone
    marrow?
    a. Neutrophils
    b. Basophils
    c. Eosinophils
    d. T lymphocytes
    e. Megakaryocytes
A

d. T lymphocytes

229
Q
  1. Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell
    more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidneyshaped nucleus. There cells are less than 10% of the total leukocytes. Which of the following cell types is being described?
    a. Monocyte
    b. Basophil
    c. Eosinophil
    d. Neutrophil
    e. Lymphocyte
A

a. Monocyte

230
Q
  1. A 43-year-old anatomy professor is working in her garden, pruning rose bushes without gloves, when a thorn deeply penetrates her forefinger. The next day the area has become infected. She removes the tip of the thorn, but there is still pus remaining at the wound site. Which of the following cells function in the formation of pus?
    a. Cells with spherical nuclei and scant cytoplasm
    b. Biconcave cells with no nuclei
    c. Cells with bilobed nuclei and many acidophilic cytoplasmic
    granules
    d. Very small, cell-like elements with no nuclei but many granules
    e. Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei
A

e. Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei

231
Q
  1. A 35-year-old woman’s physician orders laboratory blood tests. Her fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following?

a. Serum, packed erythrocytes, and leukocytes
b. Leukocytes, erythrocytes, and serum proteins
c. Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes
d. Fibrinogen, platelets, buffy coat, and erythrocytes
e. Albumin, plasma lipoproteins, and erythrocytes

A

c. Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes

232
Q
  1. A hematologist diagnoses a 34-year-old woman with idiopathic
    thrombocytic purpura (ITP). Which of the following symptoms/
    characteristics would one expect in this patient?
    a. Normal blood count
    b. Hypercoagulation
    c. Decreased clotting time
    d. Abnormal bruising
    e. Light menstrual periods
A

d. Abnormal bruising

233
Q
  1. In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does hemoglobin synthesis begin?
    a. Orthochromatic erythroblast
    b. Polychromatophilic erythroblast
    c. Reticulocyte
    d. Basophilic erythroblast
    e. Proerythroblast
A

d. Basophilic erythroblast

PB-PORE

234
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to describe megakaryocytes?
    a. Multinucleated
    b. Formed by fusion of haploid cells
    c. Precursors to bone marrow macrophages
    d. A minor but normal formed element found in the circulation
    e. Possess dynamic cell projections from which one type of formed element is released
A

e. Possess dynamic cell projections from which one type of formed element is released

235
Q
  1. Which cytoplasmic components are the main constituents of the
    dark precipitate that forms in reticulocytes upon staining with the
    dye cresyl blue?
    a. Golgi complexes
    b. Hemoglobin
    c. Nucleoli
    d. Nuclear fragments
    e. Polyribosomes
A

e. Polyribosomes

236
Q
  1. Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not during
    erythropoiesis?
    a. Cells lose their capacity for mitosis
    b. Euchromatin content increases
    c. Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated
    d. Overall cell diameter decreases
    e. Overall nuclear diameter decreases
A

c. Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated

237
Q
  1. What fate often awaits granulocytes that have entered the marginating compartment?
    a. Undergo mitosis
    b. Crossing the wall of a venule to enter connective tissue
    c. Cannot reenter the circulation
    d. Differentiate into functional macrophages
    e. Begin to release platelets
A

b. Crossing the wall of a venule to enter connective tissue

238
Q
  1. What is the earliest stage at which specific granulocyte types can be
    distinguished from one another?
    a. Myelocyte
    b. Band form
    c. Reticulocyte
    d. Metamyelocyte
    e. Promyelocyte
A

a. Myelocyte

Pro(non-specific)
Myelo(non-sp&sp)
Meta(sp)
Band(sp)

239
Q
  1. Which cell type is capable of further mitosis after leaving the hemopoietic organ in which it is formed?
    a. Basophil
    b. Eosinophil
    c. Reticulocyte
    d. Lymphocyte
    e. Neutrophil
A

d. Lymphocyte

240
Q
  1. Shortly after her birth a baby is diagnosed with a mutation in the
    erythropoietin receptor gene which leads to familial erythrocytosis
    (familial polycythemia). During the seventh to ninth months of fetal
    development, the primary effect on her red blood cell production
    was in which of the following?
    a. Liver
    b. Yolk sac
    c. Spleen
    d. Thymus
    e. Bone marrow
A

e. Bone marrow

241
Q
  1. A 54-year-old man presents with recurrent breathlessness and
    chronic fatigue. After routine tests followed by a bone marrow biopsy he is diagnosed with lymphocytic leukemia. Chemotherapy is administered to remove the cancerous cells, which also destroys
    the precursor cells of erythrocytes. To reestablish the erythrocytic lineage, which of the following cells should be transplanted?
    a. Reticulocytes
    b. Orthochromatophilic erythroblasts
    c. Megakaryoblasts
    d. Basophilic erythroblasts
    e. Metamyelocytes
A

d. Basophilic erythroblasts

PB-PORE

242
Q
  1. A smear of blood from a 70-year-old leukemia patient reveals a
    larger than normal population of cells that have large, round nuclei
    with one or two nucleoli. The cytoplasm of these cells shows azurophilic granules. Which of the following forms of leukemia would you
    suspect?
    a. Promyelocytic leukemia
    b. Basophilic leukemia
    c. Lymphoblastic leukemia
    d. Stem cell leukemia
    e. Eosinophilic leukemia
A

a. Promyelocytic leukemia

Histology (14 decks)

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