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Histology > Finals - Histology (2024) > Flashcards

Finals - Histology (2024) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Compact bone is also known as?
    A. Immature bone
    B. Dense bone
    C. Cancellous bone
    D. Spongy bone
    E. Woven bone
A

Dense bone

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2
Q
  1. Which among the following mineral is found in bone?
    A. Tourmaline
    B. Calcite
    C. Rubellite
    D. Indicolite
    E. Hydroxyapatite
A

Hydroxyapatite

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3
Q
  1. What is the composition of Shareex’s fibers?
    A. Elastic fibers
    B. Collagen fibers
    C. Trabeculae
    D. Reticular fibers
    E. Dense regular connective tissue
A

Collagen fibers

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4
Q
  1. This structure is described as tiny tunnels within the bone that connects a bone cell to another.
    A. Canaliculi
    B. Trabeculae
    C. Sharpex’s fibers
    D. Lacuna
    E. Volkmann’s canal
A

Canaliculi

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5
Q
  1. What is bone formation called when the bone is formed from a cartilage template?
    A. Intramembranous
    A. En bloc
    B. Endosteum
    C. Endochondral
    D. Intraosseous
A

Endochondral

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6
Q
  1. What cell is involved in laying down new bone?
    A. Osteoid
    B. Osteoclast
    C. Osteon
    D. Osteocyte
    E. Osteoblast
A

Osteoblast

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7
Q
  1. What type of basic tissue type is cartilage?
    A. Cartilage
    B. Epithelium
    C. Connective tissue
    D. Nervous
    E. Muscle
A

Connective tissue

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8
Q
  1. Which type of cartilage is highly vascular?
    A. Elastic cartilage
    B. All of the above
    C. Fibrocartilage
    D. None of the above
    E. Hyaline cartilage
A

None of the above

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9
Q
  1. Which type of cartilage forms the articular surface on bones?
    A. Hyaline cartilage
    B. Fibrocartilage
    C. Elastic cartilage
    D. None of the above
    E. All of the above
A

Hyaline cartilage

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10
Q
  1. Which type of cartilage forms the symphysis pubis?
    A. Elastic cartilage
    B. None of the above
    C. All of the above
    D. Fibrocartilage
    E. Hyaline cartilage
A

Fibrocartilage

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11
Q
  1. Which meninx is made of a delicate web like connective tissue?
    A. Dura mater
    B. Both A and B
    C. Arachnoid
    D. Pia mater
    E. All of the above
A

Arachnoid

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system?
    A. Schwann cells
    B. Ganglion
    C. Neuroglia
    D. Satellite cells
    E. Basket cells
A

Schwann cells

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13
Q
  1. What is a collection of cell bodies outside the CNS called?
    A. Nissle
    B. Terminal bouton
    C. Ganglion
    D. Astrocyte
    E. Perikaryon
A

Ganglion

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14
Q
  1. What is the tissue that surrounds a nerve fascicle?
    A. Endosteum
    B. Perineurium
    C. Perimysium
    D. Periosteum
    E. Perichondrium
A

Perineurium

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15
Q
  1. Where is the cerebrospinal fluid?
    A. Subarachnoid space
    B. Between the pia mater and brain
    C. Subdural space
    D. Between the dura mater and bone
    E. None of the above
A

Subarachnoid space

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most abundant neuroglia cell?
    A. Astrocytes
    B. Schwann cells
    C. Oligodendrocytes
    D. Microglia
    E. Ependymal cells
A

Astrocytes

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is a supporting cell found in the ganglia?
    A. Basket cells
    B. Neuroglia
    C. Schwann cells
    D. Satellite cells
    E. Ganglion
A

Satellite cells

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18
Q
  1. What are the gaps that occur within the myelin sheath?
    A. Nodes of Ranvier
    B. Neurofilaments
    C. Meninges
    D. Myelinated nerve fibers
    E. Cell bodies
A

Nodes of Ranvier

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19
Q
  1. How many neurons are in the body of man?
    A. 10,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 13th)
    B. 10,000,000 (10 to the 7th)
    C. 10,000,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 16th)
    D. 10,000 (10 to the 4th)
    E. 10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)
A

10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)

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20
Q
  1. What is the dura mater composed of
    A. Loose irregular connective tissue
    B. Dense irregular connective tissue
    C. Dense regular connective tissue
    D. Simple squamous epithelium
    E. Nervous tissue
A

Dense irregular connective tissue

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21
Q
  1. What are the two major phases of the cell cycle?
    A. Interphase and metaphase
    B. Interphase and meiosis
    C. Interphase and mitosis
    D. Interphase and prophase
A

Interphase and mitosis

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22
Q
  1. What happens in the S phase of the cell cycle?
    A. There is a production of two new daughter cells
    B. The cell grows larger and organelles are copied
    C. The cell grows more, makes proteins and organelles, and begins to reorganize its contents in preparation for mitosis
    D. The cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus
A

The cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus

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23
Q
  1. The process in which fetal cells express sets of genes that mediate specific cytoplasmic activities, becoming very efficient in specialized functions and usually changing their shape accordingly is called;
    A. Apoptosis
    B. Cell division
    C. Cytokines
    D. Differentiation
A

Differentiation

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24
Q
  1. Macrophages are cells specializing in which of the following;
    A. Synthesis and secretion of steroids
    B. Lipid storage
    C. Intracellular digestion
    D. lon transport
A

Intracellular digestion

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25
Q
  1. This is a rapid highly regulated cell activity that shrinks and eliminates defective cells;
    A. Lysosomes
    B. Phagocytosis
    C. Necrosis
    D. Apoptosis
A

Apoptosis

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26
Q
  1. The cells entering Meiosis I are best described as:
    A. Triploid
    B. None of the above
    C. Haploid
    D. Diploid
A

Haploid

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27
Q
  1. The site of protein synthesis in the cell;
    A. Ribosomes
    B. Golgi apparatus
    C. Endoplasmic reticulum
    D. Cytoplasm
A

Ribosomes

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28
Q
  1. This transport process does not require expenditure of cellular energy and facilitates movement of substances down a concentration gradient until equilibrium is reached.
    A. Passive transport
    B. Active transport
    C. Vesicular transport
    D. Pinocytosis
A

Passive transport

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29
Q
  1. An example of this vesicular transport is a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium.
    A. Pinocytosis
    B. Endocytosis
    C. Exocytosis
    D. Phagocytosis
A

Phagocytosis

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30
Q
  1. This is the phase of the cell cycle where the cell grows and makes a copy of its DNA.
    A. Metaphase
    B. Interphase
    C. Mitosis
    D. Prophase
A

Interphase

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following blood cells is involved in anaphylaxis and type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
    A. Basophil
    B. Neutrophil
    C. Monocyte
    D. Lymphocyte
A

Basophil

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32
Q
  1. A 30-year-old patient was noted to have severe bacterial sepsis. Clinically, he has temperatures of 40C with chills, tachypnea and tachycardia. As the attending physician, you requested for a complete blood count. The result will show a shift to the left which means:
    A. Increase in band cells
    B. Increase in lymphocytes
    C. Increase in red blood cells
    D. Increase in reticulocytes
A

Increase in band cells

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33
Q
  1. This stage in granulopoiesis is where the initial production of specific granules appears:
    A. Metamyelocyte
    B. Myelocyte
    C. Myeloblast
    D. Promyelocyte
A

Myelocyte

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34
Q
  1. A 30-year-old patient diagnosed with End Stage Renal Disease is noted to be very anemic. Which of the following can be given to stimulate erythropoiesis in this patient?
    A. Thrombopoietin
    B. GM-CSF
    C. Erythropoietin
    D. G-CSF
A

Erythropoietin

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following blood cell is capable of further mitosis after leaving the bone marrow?
    A. Eosinophil
    B. Monocyte
    C. Neutrophil
    D. Lymphocyte
A

Lymphocyte

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36
Q
  1. The attraction of white blood cells to bacteria which leads to their rapid accumulation in the site of injury is called:
    A. Diapedesis
    B. Migration
    C. Granulocytosis.
    D. Chemotaxis
A

Chemotaxis

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37
Q
  1. Fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following?
    A. Fibrinogen, platelets, buffy coat, and erythrocytes
    B. Leukocytes, erythrocytes, and serum proteins
    C. Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes
    D. Serum, packed erythrocytes, and leukocytes
A

Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes

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38
Q
  1. Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidney-shaped nucleus. Which of the following cell types is being described?
    A. Basophil
    B. Monocyte
    C. Neutrophil
    D. Eosinophil
A

Monocyte

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39
Q
  1. What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte?
    A. 20 days
    B. 120 hours
    C. 4 weeks
    D. 4 months
A

4 months

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40
Q
  1. A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type?
    A. Basophil
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Neutrophils
    D. Eosinophils
A

Eosinophils

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41
Q
  1. The surfactant is made up:
    A. Proteins
    B. Phospholipids
    C. Cholesterol
    D. All of the above
A

All of the above

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42
Q
  1. The respiratory bronchiole epithelium is:
    A. Simple cuboidal
    B. Stratified cuboidal
    C. Stratified squamous
    D. Pseudostratified columnar
A

Simple cuboidal

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43
Q
  1. Which of the following features distinguishes a bronchus within a lung from the primary bronchi?
    A. Irregular plates of cartilage
    B. Glands in the submucosa
    C. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
    D. Smooth muscle in the wall
A

Irregular plates of cartilage

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44
Q
  1. Which structural feature distinguishes between terminal and respiratory bronchioles?
    A. Cilia
    B. Mucous glands in lamina propria
    C. Exocrine bronchiolar cells
    D. Alveoli
A

Alveoli

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following components increases) as a proportion of the respiratory tract wall from trachea to alveoli?
    A. Smooth muscle
    B. Cartilage
    C. Cilia
    D. Elastic fibers
A

Elastic fibers

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following is composed of skeletal muscle and cartilage?
    A. Bronchioles
    B. Larynx
    C. Alveoli
    D. Trachea
A

Larynx

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47
Q
  1. The large number of alveolar macrophages which migrate into the lumen of the alveoli are derived from;
    A. Monocytes circulating in the blood
    B. Fibroblasts in the fibroalveolar septa
    C. Smooth muscles of the pulmonary arteries
    D. Dendritic cells of the lymphoid tissue
A

Monocytes circulating in the blood

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48
Q
  1. Which cell is a respiratory macrophage?
    A. Histiocte
    B. Dust cell
    C. Microglia
    D. Kupffer cell
A

Dust cell

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49
Q
  1. What type of epithelium lines the vestibule?
    A. Transitional epithelium
    B. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
    C. Simple squamous epithelium
    D. Stratified squamous epithelium
A

Stratified squamous epithelium

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50
Q
  1. Which of the following is part of the conducting airway?
    A. Alevioli
    B. Respiratory Bronchioles
    C. Bronchi
    D. Alveolar ducts
A

Bronchi

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51
Q
  1. Which of the following pathways best describes the correct flow of lymph towards the heart?
    A. Blood capillaries > lymphatic capillaries > lymphatic vessels > lymph nodes > lymphatic trunk > lymphatic duct > subclavian vein
    B. Subclavian vein > Iymphatic trunk > lymphatic duct > lymphatic vessels > lymph capillaries
    C. Blood capillaries > lymphatic trunk > lymphatic vessels > lymphatic capillaries > lymph nodes > lymphatic ducts > subclavian vein
    D. Blood capillaries > lymphatic vessels > lymphatic capillaries > lymph node lymphatic trunk > lymphatic duct > subclavian vein
A

Blood capillaries > lymphatic capillaries > lymphatic vessels > lymph nodes > lymphatic trunk > lymphatic duct > subclavian vein

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52
Q
  1. Majority of the body’s lymph drains into:
    A. Right thoracic trunk
    B. Left lymphatic trunk
    C. Right lymphatic duct
    D. Left thoracic duct
A

Left thoracic duct

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53
Q
  1. The following statements are true of lymph node histology, except:
    A. There are more afferent vessels than efferent vessels.
    B. Medullary cords have a larger population of lymphocytes than the sinuses.
    C. A distinct cortex and medullar with cortical germinal centers are present.
    D. High endothelial venules in the medulla regulate the influx of lymphocytes.
A

High endothelial venules in the medulla regulate the influx of lymphocytes.

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54
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is part of the red pulp of the spleen?
    A. Malohigian follicle
    B. Central artery
    C. Bilroth’s cords
    D. Pariarteriolar lymph sheath
A

Bilroth’s cords

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true of the splenic circulation?
    A. Stave cells are found in the splenic cords.
    B. All blood elements including dead and malformed RBCs re-enter the circulation.
    C. Small penicillar arteries directly empty into the splenic cords.
    D. Once in the open circulation, blood can no longer return to the closed circulation.
A

Small penicillar arteries directly empty into the splenic cords.

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56
Q
  1. The following statements are true of the thymus, except:
    A. T cell differentiation and maturation occurs in the thymus
    B. Endothelial cell junctions and reticular cells form the blood-thymic barrier
    C. Hassal’s corpuscles in the cortex are made up of thymic epithelial cells
    D. It has a distinct cortex and medulla with no germinal centers.
A

Hassal’s corpuscles in the cortex are made up of thymic epithelial cells

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57
Q
  1. M cells (microfold cells) are found in:
    A. Peyer’s patches
    B. Lymph node
    C. Appendix
    D. Palatine tonsils
A

Peyer’s patches

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58
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is covered by ciliated columnar epithelium?
    A. Palatine tonsils
    B. Pharyngeal tonsils
    C. Lingual and palatine tonsils
    D. Lingual tonsils
A

Pharyngeal tonsils

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59
Q
  1. Which of the following structures has afferent lymphatic vessels?
    A. Spleen
    B. Thymus
    C. Lymph node
    D. MALT (Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissues)
A

Lymph node

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60
Q
  1. In a patient with AIDS, which one is killed by the infecting retrovirus?
    A. Macrophages
    B. Helper T cells
    C. Antigen-presenting cells
    D. B lymphocytes
A

Helper T cells

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61
Q
  1. Which one contains three types of macromolecular fibers namely: actin, intermediate filaments and microtubules?
    A. Lysosome
    B. Golgi Apparatus
    C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
    D. Cytoskeleton
A

Cytoskeleton

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62
Q
  1. Which one refers to membrane fusions that close the space between cells?
    A. Anchoring junction
    B. Occludens
    C. Gap junction
    D. Desmosomes
A

Occludens

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63
Q
  1. Which one is described as a long and branched apical cell processes that lines the epididymis and ductus deferens?
    A. Cilia
    B. Stereocilia
    C. Keratin
    D. Microvilli
A

Stereocilia

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64
Q
  1. The epithelial lining of the respiratory tract is a derivative of which of the following?
    A. Neuroectoderm
    B. Mesoderm
    C. Endoderm
    D. Ectoderm
A

Endoderm

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65
Q
  1. Which gland involves disruption of cell after filling it with its secretory product?
    A. Endocrine
    B. Holocrine
    C. Merocrine
    D. Apocrine
A

Holocrine

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66
Q
  1. What epithelial cell facilitates movement of the viscera, pinocytosis, and secretion of biologically active molecules?
    A. Pseudostratified
    B. Simple columnar
    C. Stratified cuboidal
    D. Simple squamous
A

Simple squamous

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67
Q
  1. Glandular epithelial cells may synthesize, store and secrete proteins, lipids and complexes of carbohydrates. Which of the following glandular cells secrete all these three substances?
    A. Pancreas
    B. Salivary gland
    C. Mammary gland
    D. Sebaceous gland
A

Mammary gland

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68
Q
  1. What is the lining epithelium of small ducts and tubules that have excretory, secretory or absorptive functions?

    A. Transitional
    B. Simple squamous
    C. Simple columnar
    D. Simple cuboidal
A

Simple cuboidal

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69
Q
  1. Which of the following cellular features is used in naming types of epithelia?
    A. Size of the nuclei
    B. Number of cell layers
    C. Presence of a basal lamina
    D. Shape of cells in the basal layer
A

Number of cell layers

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70
Q
  1. Exocrine glands in which the acini all produce a secretion of heavily glycosylated, hydrophilic proteins are an example of which type of gland?
    A. Mixed gland
    B. Tubuloacinar gland
    C. Serous gland
    D. Mucous gland
A

Mucous gland

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71
Q
  1. Principal cells of connective tissues:
    A. Fibroblast
    B. Adipocytes
    C. Macrophage
    D. Mast cell
A

Fibroblast

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72
Q
  1. This type of connective tissue is found in the dermis:
    A. Loose connective tissue
    B. Dense irregular connective tissue
    C. All of the above
    D. Dense regular connective tissue
A

Dense irregular connective tissue

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73
Q
  1. Basic structural unit of collagen:
    A. Elastin
    B. Gelatin
    C. Reticulin
    D. Tropocollagen
A

Tropocollagen

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74
Q
  1. Reticular fibers are very particular because of this property:
    A. Form fenestrated sheets
    B. Adsorbs metallic silver
    C. Most abundant protein in the body
    D. Exhibits form birefringence
A

Adsorbs metallic silver

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75
Q
  1. The following glycoproteins form proteoglycans, EXCEPT:
    A. Hyaluronic acid
    B. Dermatan sulfate
    C. Keratin sulfate
    D. Chondroitin sulphate
A

Hyaluronic acid

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76
Q
  1. Dense regular connective tissue is seen in the:
    A. Colon
    B. Spleen
    C. Tendon
    D. Skin
A

Tendon

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77
Q
  1. Which of the following contain the amino acids desmosine and isodesmosine?
    A. Elastin
    B. Laminin
    C. Microfibrils
    D. Fibronectin
A

Elastin

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78
Q
  1. This connective tissue type exhibits a higher ratio of matrix to cells and fibers:
    A. Loose connective tissue
    B. Dense irregular connective tissue
    C. All of the above
    D. Dense regular connective tissue
A

Loose connective tissue

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79
Q
  1. Mostly seen during parasitic infestations:
    A. Macrophage
    B. Eosinophil
    C. Neutrophil
    D. Basophil
A

Eosinophil

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80
Q
  1. Exhibits amoeboid movement:
    A. Mast cell
    B. Macrophage
    C. Fibroblast
    D. Adipocyte
A

Macrophage

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81
Q
  1. The following are functions of smooth muscles, EXCEPT:
    A. Peristalsis
    B. Alters luminal caliber
    C. Mix gastric contents
    D. Raise the arms
A

Raise the arms

82
Q
  1. This muscle type exhibits cross-striations:
    A. Cardiac muscle
    B. Smooth muscle
    C. Skeletal muscle
    D. Skeletal and cardiac muscles
A

Skeletal and cardiac muscles

83
Q
  1. Filaments occur in longitudinally oblique bundles in this muscle type:
    A. Cardiac muscle
    B. Skeletal muscle
    C. B & C
    D. Smooth muscle
A

Smooth muscle

84
Q
  1. Exhibits branching:
    A. Skeletal muscle
    B. None of the above
    C. Cardiac muscle
    D. Smooth muscle
A

Cardiac muscle

85
Q
  1. Vesicular invaginations of plasmalemma of smooth muscles:
    A. Intermediate filaments
    B. Myosin
    C. Subplasmalemmal dense plaques
    D. Caveolae
A

Caveolae

86
Q
  1. The muscle type used by sprinters exhibits a high peak of muscle tension but is slow to fatigue. This is the:
    A. Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic
    B. Type 1 Slow oxidative
    C. Type 3 / Fast oxidative
    D. Type 2B / Fast glycolytic
A

Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic

87
Q
  1. Regarded as the “red fibers” in the older classification:
    A. Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic
    B. Type 1 / Slow oxidative
    C. Type 3 / Fast oxidative
    D. Type 2B / Fast glycolytic
A

Type 1 / Slow oxidative

88
Q
  1. Made up of a single motor neuron, its terminal axonal branches, and the supplied muscle fiber:
    A. Motor neuron
    B. Nerve ending
    C. Motor end plate
    D. Neuromuscular junction
A

Motor end plate

89
Q
  1. The basic contractile unit of a muscle is the sarcomere. It is defined as a segment between 2 consecutives:
    A. M lines
    B. A band
    C. Z lines
    D. Hz ones
A

Z lines

90
Q
  1. This layer intimately covers each muscle fiber:
    A. Perimysium
    B. Epimysium
    C. Endomysium
    D. Paramysium
A

Endomysium

91
Q
  1. The innermost layer in the general structural organization of blood vessels:
    A. Internal elastic lamina
    B. Tunica adventia
    C. Tunica media
    D. Tunica intima
A

Tunica intima

92
Q
  1. The following are muscular arteries, EXCEPT:
    A. Brachial
    B. Common carotid
    C. Superior mesenteric
    D. Renal
A

Renal

93
Q
  1. The principal components of peripheral resistance to blood flow:
    A. Capillaries
    B. Muscular arteries
    C. Venules
    D. Arterioles
A

Arterioles

94
Q
  1. This specialized tissue responds to stretch and changes in blood pressure:
    A. Transitional arteries
    B. Carotid body
    C. Metarterioles
    D. Carotid sinus
A

Carotid sinus

95
Q
  1. These structures prevent blood from flowing in the opposite direction:
    A. Pore diaphragm
    B. Valves
    C. Anchoring filaments
    D. Tunica media
A

Valves

96
Q
  1. This segment of the circulatory system has a wider and irregular lumen;
    A. Metarterioles
    B. Lymphatic capillaries
    C. Capillaries
    D. Sinusoids
A

Sinusoids

97
Q
  1. This layer is thickest in the left ventricle:
    A. Myocardium
    B. Epicardium
    C. Subendocardium
    D. Endocardium
A

Myocardium

98
Q
  1. Provides the heart with an automatic rhythmic heartbeat:
    A. Atrio-ventricular node
    B. Bundle of His
    C. Sino-atrial node
    D. Purkinje fiber
A

Sino-atrial node

99
Q
  1. The most prominent feature of distributing arteries:
    A. Weibel-palade bodies
    B. Elastic fibers
    C. Smooth muscles
    D. Fibroblasts
A

Smooth muscles

100
Q
  1. The actual site of exchange of metabolites and waste products occur in the:
    A. Transitional arteries
    B. Capillaries
    C. Arterioles
    D. Post-capillary venule
A

Post-capillary venule

101
Q
  1. An 11-month-old girl is referred to a pediatric gastroenterology clinic due to a history of generalized weakness, slow growth, and refractory diarrhea. For the past month she has been hospitalized regularly to receive parenteral nutrition. Examination of the epithelium lining her small intestine confirms that the failure to absorb nutrients is most likely due to a significant decrease in which of the following?
    a. Cilia
    b. Microvilli
    c. Gap junctions
    d. Cell layers
A

Microvilli

102
Q
  1. Which one is a mixed exocrine-endocrine organ whose function is to continue the digestion of carbohydrates and initiate digestion of proteins?
    a. Esophagus
    b. large intestines
    c. small intestines
    d. Stomach
A

Stomach

103
Q
  1. Which condition is marked by atrophy of the intestinal mucosa caused by infections or nutritional deficiencies?
    a. Atrophic Gastritis
    b. Adenocarcinoma of the colon
    c. Duodenal ulcer
    d. Malabsorption syndrome
A

Malabsorption syndrome

104
Q
  1. A 40 y/o bank manager was admitted because of Pernicious Anemia. Biopsy was taken for diagnostic studies. Which cells are destructed that will result to this condition?
    a. Parietal cells
    b. Chief cells
    c. Goblet cells
    d. Paneth cells
A

Parietal cells

105
Q
  1. Destruction of parietal cells resulting to Pernicious anemia is usually caused by which of the following?
    a. Gastric ulcer
    b. Malabsorption syndrome
    c. Atopic gastritis
    d. Adenocarcinoma
A

Atopic gastritis

106
Q
  1. In the GIT, where are the cells that secrete antibacterial enzyme?
    a. In crypts of Lieberkühn
    b. In the Peyer’s patch
    c. In rugae
    d. In the intestinal villi
A

In crypts of Lieberkühn

107
Q
  1. Which one will produce a reduction in the number of Paneth cells?
    a. Elevated level of undigested proteins
    b. Increased number of intestinal bacteria
    c. Increased level of intestinal fats
    d. Reduced breakdown of sugar
A

Increased number of intestinal bacteria

108
Q
  1. Which one is the primary function of lacteals in the small intestine?
    a. Absorption of amino acids
    b. Absorption of glucose
    c. Absorption of chylomicrons
    d. Absorption of salts
A

Absorption of chylomicrons

109
Q
  1. Brunner’s gland is a feature of which of the following?
    a. Ileum
    b. Duodenum
    c. Gall bladder
    d. Liver
A

Duodenum

110
Q

10.A 10 y/o patient consult a dentist because his teeth become loose in their sockets and fall out.
He has history of scurvy? Which one causes the problem?
a. Lower metabolic activity of cementum
b. Enamel fails to develop
c. Atrophy of periodontal ligament
d. GAG not secreted by odontoblasts

A

Atrophy of periodontal ligament

111
Q

11.A 60 y/o male was admitted because of tongue cancer. Biopsy was done but the pathologist can’t find taste buds. What papilla was the biopsy taken?
a. Filiform
b. Foliate
c. Fungiform
d. Circumvallate

A

Foliate

112
Q

12.A 65 y/o alcoholic was diagnosed to have Barret’s esophagus. Which one is true about this condition?
a. Neither
b. Both
c. Can be due to gastroesophageal reflux
d. It is high risk for esophageal adenocarcinoma

A

Both

113
Q
  1. A 25 y/o female was diagnosed to have Carcinoid tumor. The hormone secreted by this tumor is responsible for which of the following?
    a. Decrease sense of hunger
    b. Gall bladder contraction
    c. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
    d. Increased gut motility
A

Increased gut motility

114
Q

*** MEMORIZE ALL ZONES
14. Which zone of the liver acinus is the most susceptible to ischemic injury?
a. Zone 1 (Peripheral/ Permanent FUNCTION)
b. Zone 2 (Intermediate/ Varying activity)
c. Zone 3 (Central/ Permanent REPOSE)
d. Zone 4

A

Zone 3

115
Q
  1. What is the daily basal secretion of bile?
    a. 1500 mL
    b. 500 mL
    c. 1000 mL
    d. 30-50mL
A

500 mL

116
Q
  1. The portal triad is at the center of what hepatic structural organization?
    a. Zone of permanent function
    b. Classical lobule
    c. Portal lobule
    d. Zone of permanent repose
    e. Hepatic acini
A

Portal lobule

117
Q
  1. What is the site of the primary function of the hepatic circulation?
    a. Portal venules
    b. Capillaries
    c. Sinusoids
    d. Peribiliary plexus
A

Sinusoids

118
Q
  1. Which lobule arrangement is consistent with other exocrine glands?
    a. Classical lobule
    b. Hepatic acini
    c. Portal lobule
    d. Centroacinar
A

Portal lobule

119
Q
  1. What pancreatic endocrine product affects the blood sugar level by decreasing it?
    a. Glucagon
    b. Gastrin
    c. Somatostatin
    d. Pancreatic polypeptide
    e. Insulin
A

Insulin

120
Q
  1. The Functional unit of the endocrine pancreas is which of the following?
    a. Acinar tissue
    b. Beta cell
    c. Islets of Langerhans
    d. Centroacinar cell
    e. Alpha cell
A

Islets of Langerhans

121
Q
  1. The Exocrine product of the liver is which of the following?
    a. Lipase
    b. Secretin
    c. Cholecystokinin
    d. Trypsin
    e. Bile
A

Bile

122
Q
  1. A mixed type of predominantly serous salivary gland is which of the following?
    a. Submandibular gland
    b. Sublingual gland
    c. Accessory gland
    d. Parotid gland
A

Submandibular gland

a. Submandibular gland : mixed, mostly serous
b. Sublingual gland: mixed, mostly mucous
c. Accessory gland
d. Parotid gland: PURE serous

123
Q
  1. During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, the functional layer of the endometrium undergoes which of the following changes?
    a. Glands become coiled.
    b. The epithelium is sloughed off
    c. The epithelium is renewed.
    d. Blood vessels become ischemic.
    e. The stroma swells due to edema.
A

The epithelium is renewed.

124
Q
  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the vaginal mucosa:
    a. contains cells which secrete lactic acid.
    b. where parabasal cells are found.
    c. is lubricated by glands located in the cervix.
    d. is lined by stratified columnar epithelium.
    e. is lined by stratified cuboidal epithelium.
A

is lubricated by glands located in the cervix.

125
Q
  1. Peau d’ orange is a term to describe this type of malignancy of the breast
    a. Intraductal carcinoma
    b. Inflammatory carcinoma
    c. Metastatic carcinoma
    d. Adenomyosis
    e. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

126
Q
  1. The transition zone between the vagina and cervix is a common site of cervical dysplasia and cancer. What epithelial transition is seen in this zone?
    a. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical stratified columnar
    b. Vaginal simple columnar to cervical simple squamous
    c. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar
    d. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical simple columnar
    e. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical stratified columnar
A

Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar

127
Q
  1. The functional layer of the endometrium is composed of:
    a. simple cuboidal epithelium
    b. stratified squamous epithelium
    c. simple ciliated columnar epithelium
    d. simple columnar epithelium
    e. simple squamous epithelium
A

simple ciliated columnar epithelium

128
Q
  1. Which layer of the vaginal wall contains glands, such as lubrication mucus?
    a. submucosal layer
    b. there are no glands in the vaginal wall
    c. mucosal layer
    d. adventitial layer
    e. muscular layer
A

there are no glands in the vaginal wall

129
Q
  1. One of the followings is characteristic for the secretory phase of the endometrium:
    a. Disintegration of the spiral vessels
    b. Glands are straight with narrow lumen
    c. Endometrium is about 2 mm thick
    d. Glands accumulate glycogen.
    e. Controlled by estrogen secreted by ovarian follicles.
A

Glands accumulate glycogen.

130
Q
  1. Syncytiotrophoblast is:
    a. Thin multinucleated layer covering the chorionic villi.
    b. Has microvilli to invade the decidua parietalis.
    c. Has pale staining cytoplasm.
    d. inner aver of the chorionic villi
    e. Disappear at the end of the 4th month of pregnancy.
A

Thin multinucleated layer covering the chorionic villi.

131
Q
  1. When the blastocyst forms, there are cells that encircle the ball like structure. What are these cells
    a. Epiblast
    b. Cytotrophoblast
    c. Trophoblast
    d. Hypoblast
    e. Syncytiotrophoblast
A

Trophoblast

132
Q
  1. Which of the following changes takes place in the pregnant and lactating mammary glands:
    a. Appearance of acini lined by pseudostratified columnar cells.
    b. Milk appears as basophilic vacuolated material inside the alveoli.
    c. Increase thickness of the connective tissue septa.
    d. Decreased fat cells.
    e. Secretion of milk by holocrine mode of secretion.
A

Decreased fat cells.

133
Q
  1. At the time of parturition a patient reports that her “water broke”, meaning that the amniotic fluid has escaped into the vaginal canal. Assuming that the placenta is attached to its usual location on the posterior wall of the uterus, and that development has proceeded normally, escape of the amniotic fluid requires rupture of which of the following?
    a. Amnion, chorion lave, and decidua capsularis
    b. Chorion laeve only
    c. Amnion and chorion laeve only
    d. Amnion only
A

Amnion, chorion lave, and decidua capsularis

134
Q
  1. The 4 cellular layers separating maternal and fetal blood in sequence are:
    a. Fetal capillary endothelium, villi connective tissue, cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast.
    b. Spiral artery wall, Nichbaur layer, cytotrophoblast and Hofbaur layer
    c. Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium
    d. Maternal lacuna, trophoblast layer, endothelial and fetal red blood cell
A

Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium

135
Q
  1. One of the following changes takes place in the pregnant and lactating mammary glands:

    a. Secretion of milk by holocrine mode of secretion.
    b. Milk appears as basophilic vacuolated material inside the alveoli.
    c. Increase thickness of the connective tissue septa.
    d. Decreased fat cells.
    e. Appearance of acini lined by pseudostratified columnar cells.
A

Decreased fat cells.

136
Q
  1. Which of the following cells can be classified as a basophil?
    a. None of the above
    b. Somatotropic cells
    c. Lactotrophic, cells
    d. All of the above
    e. Corticotropic cells
A

Corticotropic cells

137
Q
  1. What is the most common cell in the parathyroid gland?
    a. Principal cell
    b. Parafollicular cells
    c. Chromaffin cells
    d. Follicular cells
    e. Oxyphil cell
A

Principal/Chief cell

138
Q
  1. Where are catecholamines secreted from?

    a. Zona fasciculata

    b. Zona glomerulosa

    c. Zona reticularis
    d. Chromaffin cells
    e. None of the above
A

Chromaffin cells

139
Q
  1. What type of hormone is prolactin?
    a. Protein
    b. Steroid
    c. Peptide
    d. None of the above
    e. Catecholamine
A

Protein

140
Q
  1. Where are trophic hormones secreted from?
    a. Infundibulum
    b. Pars intermedia
    c. Pars tuberalis
    d. Adenohypophysis
    e. Neurohypophysis
A

Adenohypophysis

141
Q
  1. Which of the following is not part of the neurohypophysis?
    a. Pars nervosa
    b. Median eminence
    c. All of the above are part of the neurohypophysis
    d. Pars distalis
    e. Infundibular stalk
A

Pars distalis

142
Q
  1. What cell type secretes MSH?
    a. Gonadotropic cells
    b. Somatotropic cells
    c. Corticotropic cells
    d. Thyrotropic cells
    e. Lactotropic cells
A

Corticotropic cells

143
Q
  1. Which of the following cells can be classified as an acidophil?
    a. Corticotropic cells
    b. Thyrotropic cells
    c. All of the above
    d. Gonadotropic cells
    e. None of the above
A

None of the above

144
Q
  1. Which gland secretes epinephrine?
    a. Pineal gland
    b. Thyroid
    c. Adrenal gland (cortex)
    d. Adrenal gland (medulla)
    e. Pancreas
A

Adrenal gland (medulla)

145
Q
  1. Which gland secretes cortisol?
    a. Pancreas
    b. Adrenal gland (medulla)
    c. Adrenal gland (cortex)
    d. Pineal gland
    e. Thyroid
A

c. Adrenal gland (cortex)

146
Q
  1. Which cell type is found in the adrenal medulla?
    a. Parafollicular cells
    b. Oxyphil cell
    c. Principal cell
    d. Chromaffin cells
    e. Follicular cells
A

Chromaffin cells

147
Q

What is the largest developing cell in the seminiferous tubules?
a. Secondary spermatocyte
b. Spermatid
c. Spermatogonium B
d. Primary spermatocyte

A

Primary spermatocyte

148
Q

What cell is responsible for producing the androgen-binding protein in the testes?
a. Spermatocytes
b. Leydig
c. Sertoli
d. Spermatids

A

Sertoli

149
Q
  1. Spermiogenesis involves what type of cell division?
    a. Mitosis
    b. Meiosis
    c. Both mitosis and meiosis
    d. Neither mitosis nor meiosis
A

Neither mitosis nor meiosis

150
Q
  1. Which type of spermatogonium will develop into a primary spermatocyte?

    a. C
    b. A
    c. D
    d. B
A

B

151
Q
  1. What tubules are lined by Simple cuboidal epithelium?
    a. Rete testis
    b. Vas deferens
    c. Ejaculatory duct
    d. Epididymis
A

Rete testis

152
Q

Corpora amylacea is a characteristic feature of this organ?
a. Prostate
b. Epididymis
c. Seminal vesicle
d. Cowper’s

A

Prostate

153
Q

What organ secretes a yellow, viscous alkaline fluid rich in fructose?
a. Littre
b. Bulbourethral
c. Seminal vesicle
d. Prostate

A

Seminal vesicle

154
Q

The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of the excretory duct of the seminal vesicle and what structure?
a. Prostatic urethra
b. Ampulla of the vas deferens
c. Ureter
d. Bladder

A

Ampulla of the vas deferens

155
Q

The tunica muscularis of the vas deferens is made-up of the following smooth muscles.
a. Inner circular, middle longitudinal. outer circular
b. Inner circular, outer longitudinal
c. Inner longitudinal, middle circular, Outer longitudinal
d. Inner longitudinal. outer longitudinal

A

Inner longitudinal, middle circular, Outer longitudinal

156
Q

What is the subtype of connective tissue is the tunica albuginea in the penis?
a. Adipose
b. Embryonal
c. Fibrous
d. Mucous

A

Fibrous

157
Q

Which is the correct sequence of flow of the developing sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis?
a. Efferent ductules - Rete testis – Straight ductules
b. Efferent ductules - Straight ductules. -
Rete testis
c. Rete testis - Straight tubules – Efferent ductules.
d. Straight tubules - Rete testis – Efferent ductules

A

Straight tubules - Rete testis – Efferent ductules

158
Q

What is the lining epithelium of the organ wherein sperms further mature and are temporarily stored?
a. Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia
b. Alternate simple cuboidal and simple columnar with stereocilia
c. Simple columnar ciliated
d. Specialized stratified epithelium

A

Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia

159
Q

What male accessory organ produces a secretion that lubricates the urethra before ejaculation?
a. Bulbourethral glands
b. All choices are correct
c. Seminal vesicles
d. Prostate gland

A

Bulbourethral glands

160
Q

A digital rectal exam reveals a hard palpable mass in the prostate that was considered malignant. What zone of the prostate is most likely affected?
a. All choices are correct
b. Peripheral
c. Central
d. Transitional

A

Peripheral

161
Q

A 48-year-old male consulted you because of erectile dysfunction. What will you initially do as the attending physician?
a. Do a fasting blood sugar test.
b. All choices are correct
c. Advise that he will no longer produce an offspring.
d. Refer to a urologist for surgical intervention

A

Do a fasting blood sugar test.

162
Q

As to morphology, the glands of prostate are
a. Simple acinar
b. Simple tubular
c. Tubulo-acinar
d. Compound tubular

A

Tubulo-acinar

163
Q

In male sterilization, surgical ligation of this organ is usually done:
a. Penis
b. Ductus deferens
c. Epididymis
d. Ejaculatory duct

A

Ductus deferens

164
Q

What tubules are provided with flat smooth muscle like cells called as Myoid that allows weak contractions of the organ?
a. Seminiferous tubule
b. Epididymis
c. Vas deferens
d. Ejaculatory duct

A

Seminiferous tubule

165
Q

The Tunica albuginea of the testis is thickened on the posterior side to form this structure which will further penetrate the organ to separate it into compartments:
a. Mediastinum testis
b. Straight tubule
c. Seminiferous tubule
d. Rete testis

A

Mediastinum testis

166
Q

Principal cell is seen in what organ of the male reproductive system?
a. Vas deferens
b. Epididymis
c. Penis
d. Testis

A

Epididymis

167
Q

A clinical condition called glaucoma results from an increased intraocular pressure due to which of the following?
a. Neither
b. Excessive secretion of aqueous humor
c. Obstruction of the scleral venous sinus
d. Both

A

Both

168
Q

Retinal detachment involves separation of the neural retina from what structure?
a. Pigment epithelium
b. Descemet membrane
c. Corneal epithelium
d. Bruch membrane

A

Pigment epithelium

169
Q

Hair cells of Organ of Corti is the receptor for which of the following?
a. Vision
b. Hearing
c. Vestibular sense
d. Smell

A

Hearing

170
Q

Which of the following is essential for visual acuity and color vision?
a. Pigment cells
b. Cones of the retina
c. Macula lutea
d. Rods

A

Cones of the retina

171
Q

In the ear, what converts mechanical vibrations into nerve impulses?
a. Spiral ganglia
b. Cochlear nerve
c. Auditory ossicles
d. Hair cells

A

Hair cells

172
Q

In the inner ear, which one receives and transmits sound?
a. Cochlea
b. Vestibule
c. Utricle
d. Semicircular canal

A

Cochlea

173
Q

Which contributes to the stability and strength of the cornea?
a. Substantia propria
b. Descemet’s membrane
c. Bowman’s membrane
d. Inner stratified squamous epithelium

A

Bowman’s membrane

174
Q

Which of the following is responsible for maintaining a state of hydration within the cornea?
a. Corneal endothelium
b. Choriocapillary lamina

c. Bruch’s membrane
d. Suprachoroidal lamina

A

Corneal endothelium

175
Q

Which one secretes a serous solvent for taste provoking substances?
a. Taste bud
b. Sustentacular cells
c. von Ebner gland
d. Salivary gland

A

von Ebner gland

176
Q

A 30 year old female went to an ENT specialist due to vertigo. The specialist examined her and found out that the patient has nystagmus. Lesion of which of the following does not cause nystagmus?
a. Visual system
b. Brain stem
c. Cerebellum
d. Cerebrum

A

Cerebrum

177
Q

Which cells produce erythropoietin in the kidney?
a. J-G cells
b. Mesangial cells
c. Podocytes
d. Macula densa cells

A

Mesangial cells

178
Q

The two kidneys produced 125 ml of filtrate/minute. How much of this amount/minute is released to ureters as urine?
a. 1 ml/min
b. 100 ml/min
c. 10 ml/min
d. 125 ml/min

A

1 ml/min

179
Q

During your practical exam, a slide shows having nephron loop, collecting ducts and the ascending limb. What layer of the kidney is it?
a. Renal medulla
b. Cortical nephron
c. Glomerulus
d. Renal corpuscle

A

Renal medulla

180
Q

In the renal corpuscle, the afferent arteriole enters and the efferent arteriole leaves via the vascular pole while the urinary pole begins with which of the following?
a. Collecting ducts
b. Glomerulus
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Proximal convoluted tubule

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

181
Q

A 45 y/o patient had Glomerulonephritis. In this condition, the glomerular filter is destroyed and more permeable to which of the following substance?
a. Electrolytes
b. Carbohydrates
c. Fats
d. Proteins

A

Proteins

182
Q

What structure of the kidney produced concentrated and hypertonic urine?
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Mesangial cell
c. Renal medulla
d. Juxtamedullary nephron

A

Juxtamedullary nephron

183
Q
  1. A 30 year old man was severely bleeding due to stabbed wound which caused a decrease in blood pressure, and increased renin secretion. Which of the following will help restore blood volume to increase the blood pressure?
    a. Vasopressin
    b. Epinephrine
    c. Aquaporin
    d. Angiotensin II
A

Angiotensin II

184
Q
  1. Which zone of the liver acinus is exposed to blood high in oxygen content and nutrients and is involved in a patient with preeclampsia?
    a. Space of Disse
    b. Periportal
    c. Midzonal
    d. Sinusoids
    e. Centralabular
A

Periportal

185
Q
  1. Regarding the hepatic lobule and function, portal lobules are useful to which of the following?
    a. Lobular anatomy of the liver
    b. Nature of blood supply to the liver
    c. Exocrine function of hepatocytes
    d. Endocrine function of the liver
A

Exocrine function of hepatocytes

186
Q
  1. You were given a slide showing masses of striated muscle fibers that cross one another, separated by connective tissue and has mucous membrane adherent to the muscle. Its posterior part is filled with lymphoid nodules while its body is covered with stratified squamous epithelium. Which part of the GIT is this organ?
    a. Esophagus
    b. Stomach
    c. Tongue
    d. Rectum
A

Tongue

187
Q
  1. Tissue biopsy was done to a 55 y/o patient, which showed branched tubuloacinar glands with secretory portions containing mucous and predominantly serous cells. Serous demilunes were also seen in the biopsy.
Identify what salivary glands has these features?
    a. Sublingual gland
    b. Accessory salivary gland
    c. Submandibular gland
    d. Parotid gland
A

Submandibular gland

188
Q

The parotid gland has similar exocrine features with the pancreas. What histologic characteristics made pancreas different from the parotid gland?
a. Both secretes protease enzymes
b. Presence of striated ducts
c. Presence of Islets
d. Presence of serous cells

A

Presence of Islets

189
Q

A 30 y/o patient was admitted due to Cushing syndrome, a tumor of the adrenal gland. This condition is due to an excessive secretion of which hormone and in what layer of this gland?
a. Aldosterone > adrenal medulla
b. Mineralocorticoids > adrenal cortex
c. Glucocorticoids > adrenal cortex
d. Epinephrine > adrenal medulla

A

Glucocorticoids > adrenal cortex

190
Q
  1. A 5 y/o patient was admitted due to kwashiorkor.
What organ is usually involved in this kind of malnutrition?
    a. Small intestine
    b. Liver
    c. Stomach
    d. Pancreas
A

Pancreas

191
Q
  1. You were shown an organ whose parenchyma consists of numerous rounded epithelial structures with simple epithelium and a lumen filled with gelatinous substance. Identify the organ.
    a. Pancreas
    b. Adrenal gland
    c. Thyroid gland
    d. Pituitary gland
A

Thyroid gland

192
Q
  1. The epidermis is lined by which type of epithelium?
    a. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
    b. Non-keratinized simple squamous epithelium
    c. Stratified columnar epithelium
    d. Simple columnar epithelium
A

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

193
Q
  1. This epidermal layer is seen only in palms and soles
    a. Stratum spinosum
    b. Stratum corneum
    c. Stratum basale
    d. Stratum lucidum
A

Stratum lucidum

194
Q

This layer is composed of cuboidal cells
a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum basale

A

Stratum basale

195
Q
  1. These epidermal cells are mechanoreceptors for light touch
    a. Merkel cells
    b. Melanocytes
    c. Keratinocytes
    d. Langerhan cells
A

Merkel cells

196
Q
  1. Which is not considered as an epidermal appendage?
    a. Sebaceous gland
    b. Hair
    c. Hypodermis
    d. Nail
A

Hypodermis

197
Q
  1. This epidermal layer is composed of numerous cell layers which appears pointy
    a. Stratum germinativum
    b. Stratum spinosum
    c. Stratum basale
    d. Stratum lucidum
A

Stratum spinosum

198
Q
  1. Which layer is on the surface of the skin?
    a. Stratum lucidum
    b. Stratum spinosum
    c. Stratum basale
    d. Stratum corneum
A

Stratum corneum

199
Q
  1. What type of glands are the glands of Moll?
    a. Endocrine gland
    b. Sebaceous gland
    c. Eccrine sweat gland
    d. Apocrine sweat gland
A

Apocrine sweat gland

200
Q
  1. Which is the receptor of fine touch?
    a. Merkel cells
    b. Melanocytes
    c. Keratinocytes
    d. Meissner’s corpuscle
A

Meissner’s corpuscle

Histology (14 decks)

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