Finals - Histology (2024) Flashcards by

Compact bone is also known as?
A. Immature bone
B. Dense bone
C. Cancellous bone
D. Spongy bone
E. Woven bone

Dense bone

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Which among the following mineral is found in bone?
A. Tourmaline
B. Calcite
C. Rubellite
D. Indicolite
E. Hydroxyapatite

Hydroxyapatite

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What is the composition of Shareex’s fibers?
A. Elastic fibers
B. Collagen fibers
C. Trabeculae
D. Reticular fibers
E. Dense regular connective tissue

Collagen fibers

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This structure is described as tiny tunnels within the bone that connects a bone cell to another.
A. Canaliculi
B. Trabeculae
C. Sharpex’s fibers
D. Lacuna
E. Volkmann’s canal

Canaliculi

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What is bone formation called when the bone is formed from a cartilage template?
A. Intramembranous
A. En bloc
B. Endosteum
C. Endochondral
D. Intraosseous

Endochondral

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What cell is involved in laying down new bone?
A. Osteoid
B. Osteoclast
C. Osteon
D. Osteocyte
E. Osteoblast

Osteoblast

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What type of basic tissue type is cartilage?
A. Cartilage
B. Epithelium
C. Connective tissue
D. Nervous
E. Muscle

Connective tissue

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Which type of cartilage is highly vascular?
A. Elastic cartilage
B. All of the above
C. Fibrocartilage
D. None of the above
E. Hyaline cartilage

None of the above

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Which type of cartilage forms the articular surface on bones?
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Fibrocartilage
C. Elastic cartilage
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

Hyaline cartilage

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Which type of cartilage forms the symphysis pubis?
A. Elastic cartilage
B. None of the above
C. All of the above
D. Fibrocartilage
E. Hyaline cartilage

Fibrocartilage

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Which meninx is made of a delicate web like connective tissue?
A. Dura mater
B. Both A and B
C. Arachnoid
D. Pia mater
E. All of the above

Arachnoid

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Which of the following forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system?
A. Schwann cells
B. Ganglion
C. Neuroglia
D. Satellite cells
E. Basket cells

Schwann cells

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What is a collection of cell bodies outside the CNS called?
A. Nissle
B. Terminal bouton
C. Ganglion
D. Astrocyte
E. Perikaryon

Ganglion

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What is the tissue that surrounds a nerve fascicle?
A. Endosteum
B. Perineurium
C. Perimysium
D. Periosteum
E. Perichondrium

Perineurium

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Where is the cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Between the pia mater and brain
C. Subdural space
D. Between the dura mater and bone
E. None of the above

Subarachnoid space

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Which of the following is the most abundant neuroglia cell?
A. Astrocytes
B. Schwann cells
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Microglia
E. Ependymal cells

Astrocytes

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Which of the following is a supporting cell found in the ganglia?
A. Basket cells
B. Neuroglia
C. Schwann cells
D. Satellite cells
E. Ganglion

Satellite cells

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What are the gaps that occur within the myelin sheath?
A. Nodes of Ranvier
B. Neurofilaments
C. Meninges
D. Myelinated nerve fibers
E. Cell bodies

Nodes of Ranvier

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How many neurons are in the body of man?
A. 10,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 13th)
B. 10,000,000 (10 to the 7th)
C. 10,000,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 16th)
D. 10,000 (10 to the 4th)
E. 10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)

10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)

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What is the dura mater composed of
A. Loose irregular connective tissue
B. Dense irregular connective tissue
C. Dense regular connective tissue
D. Simple squamous epithelium
E. Nervous tissue

Dense irregular connective tissue

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What are the two major phases of the cell cycle?
A. Interphase and metaphase
B. Interphase and meiosis
C. Interphase and mitosis
D. Interphase and prophase

Interphase and mitosis

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What happens in the S phase of the cell cycle?
A. There is a production of two new daughter cells
B. The cell grows larger and organelles are copied
C. The cell grows more, makes proteins and organelles, and begins to reorganize its contents in preparation for mitosis
D. The cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus

The cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus

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The process in which fetal cells express sets of genes that mediate specific cytoplasmic activities, becoming very efficient in specialized functions and usually changing their shape accordingly is called;
A. Apoptosis
B. Cell division
C. Cytokines
D. Differentiation

Differentiation

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Macrophages are cells specializing in which of the following;
A. Synthesis and secretion of steroids
B. Lipid storage
C. Intracellular digestion
D. lon transport

Intracellular digestion

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25. This is a rapid highly regulated cell activity that shrinks and eliminates defective cells; A. Lysosomes B. Phagocytosis C. Necrosis D. Apoptosis

Apoptosis

26. The cells entering Meiosis I are best described as: A. Triploid B. None of the above C. Haploid D. Diploid

Haploid

27. The site of protein synthesis in the cell; A. Ribosomes B. Golgi apparatus C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Cytoplasm

Ribosomes

28. This transport process does not require expenditure of cellular energy and facilitates movement of substances down a concentration gradient until equilibrium is reached. A. Passive transport B. Active transport C. Vesicular transport D. Pinocytosis

Passive transport

29. An example of this vesicular transport is a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium. A. Pinocytosis B. Endocytosis C. Exocytosis D. Phagocytosis

Phagocytosis

30. This is the phase of the cell cycle where the cell grows and makes a copy of its DNA. A. Metaphase B. Interphase C. Mitosis D. Prophase

Interphase

31. Which of the following blood cells is involved in anaphylaxis and type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? A. Basophil B. Neutrophil C. Monocyte D. Lymphocyte

Basophil

32. A 30-year-old patient was noted to have severe bacterial sepsis. Clinically, he has temperatures of 40C with chills, tachypnea and tachycardia. As the attending physician, you requested for a complete blood count. The result will show a shift to the left which means: A. Increase in band cells B. Increase in lymphocytes C. Increase in red blood cells D. Increase in reticulocytes

Increase in band cells

33. This stage in granulopoiesis is where the initial production of specific granules appears: A. Metamyelocyte B. Myelocyte C. Myeloblast D. Promyelocyte

Myelocyte

34. A 30-year-old patient diagnosed with End Stage Renal Disease is noted to be very anemic. Which of the following can be given to stimulate erythropoiesis in this patient? A. Thrombopoietin B. GM-CSF C. Erythropoietin D. G-CSF

Erythropoietin

35. Which of the following blood cell is capable of further mitosis after leaving the bone marrow? A. Eosinophil B. Monocyte C. Neutrophil D. Lymphocyte

Lymphocyte

36. The attraction of white blood cells to bacteria which leads to their rapid accumulation in the site of injury is called: A. Diapedesis B. Migration C. Granulocytosis. D. Chemotaxis

Chemotaxis

37. Fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following? A. Fibrinogen, platelets, buffy coat, and erythrocytes B. Leukocytes, erythrocytes, and serum proteins C. Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes D. Serum, packed erythrocytes, and leukocytes

Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes

38. Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidney-shaped nucleus. Which of the following cell types is being described? A. Basophil B. Monocyte C. Neutrophil D. Eosinophil

Monocyte

39. What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte? A. 20 days B. 120 hours C. 4 weeks D. 4 months

4 months

40. A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type? A. Basophil B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Eosinophils

Eosinophils

41. The surfactant is made up: A. Proteins B. Phospholipids C. Cholesterol D. All of the above

All of the above

42. The respiratory bronchiole epithelium is: A. Simple cuboidal B. Stratified cuboidal C. Stratified squamous D. Pseudostratified columnar

Simple cuboidal

43. Which of the following features distinguishes a bronchus within a lung from the primary bronchi? A. Irregular plates of cartilage B. Glands in the submucosa C. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D. Smooth muscle in the wall

Irregular plates of cartilage

44. Which structural feature distinguishes between terminal and respiratory bronchioles? A. Cilia B. Mucous glands in lamina propria C. Exocrine bronchiolar cells D. Alveoli

Alveoli

45. Which of the following components increases) as a proportion of the respiratory tract wall from trachea to alveoli? A. Smooth muscle B. Cartilage C. Cilia D. Elastic fibers

Elastic fibers

46. Which of the following is composed of skeletal muscle and cartilage? A. Bronchioles B. Larynx C. Alveoli D. Trachea

Larynx

47. The large number of alveolar macrophages which migrate into the lumen of the alveoli are derived from; A. Monocytes circulating in the blood B. Fibroblasts in the fibroalveolar septa C. Smooth muscles of the pulmonary arteries D. Dendritic cells of the lymphoid tissue

Monocytes circulating in the blood

48. Which cell is a respiratory macrophage? A. Histiocte B. Dust cell C. Microglia D. Kupffer cell

Dust cell

49. What type of epithelium lines the vestibule? A. Transitional epithelium B. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells C. Simple squamous epithelium D. Stratified squamous epithelium

Stratified squamous epithelium

50. Which of the following is part of the conducting airway? A. Alevioli B. Respiratory Bronchioles C. Bronchi D. Alveolar ducts

Bronchi

51. Which of the following pathways best describes the correct flow of lymph towards the heart? A. Blood capillaries > lymphatic capillaries > lymphatic vessels > lymph nodes > lymphatic trunk > lymphatic duct > subclavian vein B. Subclavian vein > Iymphatic trunk > lymphatic duct > lymphatic vessels > lymph capillaries C. Blood capillaries > lymphatic trunk > lymphatic vessels > lymphatic capillaries > lymph nodes > lymphatic ducts > subclavian vein D. Blood capillaries > lymphatic vessels > lymphatic capillaries > lymph node lymphatic trunk > lymphatic duct > subclavian vein

Blood capillaries > lymphatic capillaries > lymphatic vessels > lymph nodes > lymphatic trunk > lymphatic duct > subclavian vein

52. Majority of the body's lymph drains into: A. Right thoracic trunk B. Left lymphatic trunk C. Right lymphatic duct D. Left thoracic duct

Left thoracic duct

53. The following statements are true of lymph node histology, except: A. There are more afferent vessels than efferent vessels. B. Medullary cords have a larger population of lymphocytes than the sinuses. C. A distinct cortex and medullar with cortical germinal centers are present. D. High endothelial venules in the medulla regulate the influx of lymphocytes.

High endothelial venules in the medulla regulate the influx of lymphocytes.

54. Which of the following structures is part of the red pulp of the spleen? A. Malohigian follicle B. Central artery C. Bilroth's cords D. Pariarteriolar lymph sheath

Bilroth's cords

55. Which of the following statements is true of the splenic circulation? A. Stave cells are found in the splenic cords. B. All blood elements including dead and malformed RBCs re-enter the circulation. C. Small penicillar arteries directly empty into the splenic cords. D. Once in the open circulation, blood can no longer return to the closed circulation.

Small penicillar arteries directly empty into the splenic cords.

56. The following statements are true of the thymus, except: A. T cell differentiation and maturation occurs in the thymus B. Endothelial cell junctions and reticular cells form the blood-thymic barrier C. Hassal's corpuscles in the cortex are made up of thymic epithelial cells D. It has a distinct cortex and medulla with no germinal centers.

Hassal's corpuscles in the cortex are made up of thymic epithelial cells

57. M cells (microfold cells) are found in: A. Peyer's patches B. Lymph node C. Appendix D. Palatine tonsils

Peyer's patches

58. Which of the following structures is covered by ciliated columnar epithelium? A. Palatine tonsils B. Pharyngeal tonsils C. Lingual and palatine tonsils D. Lingual tonsils

Pharyngeal tonsils

59. Which of the following structures has afferent lymphatic vessels? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. Lymph node D. MALT (Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissues)

Lymph node

60. In a patient with AIDS, which one is killed by the infecting retrovirus? A. Macrophages B. Helper T cells C. Antigen-presenting cells D. B lymphocytes

Helper T cells

61. Which one contains three types of macromolecular fibers namely: actin, intermediate filaments and microtubules? A. Lysosome B. Golgi Apparatus C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum D. Cytoskeleton

Cytoskeleton

62. Which one refers to membrane fusions that close the space between cells? A. Anchoring junction B. Occludens C. Gap junction D. Desmosomes

Occludens

63. Which one is described as a long and branched apical cell processes that lines the epididymis and ductus deferens? A. Cilia B. Stereocilia C. Keratin D. Microvilli

Stereocilia

64. The epithelial lining of the respiratory tract is a derivative of which of the following? A. Neuroectoderm B. Mesoderm C. Endoderm D. Ectoderm

Endoderm

65. Which gland involves disruption of cell after filling it with its secretory product? A. Endocrine B. Holocrine C. Merocrine D. Apocrine

Holocrine

66. What epithelial cell facilitates movement of the viscera, pinocytosis, and secretion of biologically active molecules? A. Pseudostratified B. Simple columnar C. Stratified cuboidal D. Simple squamous

Simple squamous

67. Glandular epithelial cells may synthesize, store and secrete proteins, lipids and complexes of carbohydrates. Which of the following glandular cells secrete all these three substances? A. Pancreas B. Salivary gland C. Mammary gland D. Sebaceous gland

Mammary gland

68. What is the lining epithelium of small ducts and tubules that have excretory, secretory or absorptive functions?  A. Transitional B. Simple squamous C. Simple columnar D. Simple cuboidal

Simple cuboidal

69. Which of the following cellular features is used in naming types of epithelia? A. Size of the nuclei B. Number of cell layers C. Presence of a basal lamina D. Shape of cells in the basal layer

Number of cell layers

70. Exocrine glands in which the acini all produce a secretion of heavily glycosylated, hydrophilic proteins are an example of which type of gland? A. Mixed gland B. Tubuloacinar gland C. Serous gland D. Mucous gland

Mucous gland

71. Principal cells of connective tissues: A. Fibroblast B. Adipocytes C. Macrophage D. Mast cell

Fibroblast

72. This type of connective tissue is found in the dermis: A. Loose connective tissue B. Dense irregular connective tissue C. All of the above D. Dense regular connective tissue

Dense irregular connective tissue

73. Basic structural unit of collagen: A. Elastin B. Gelatin C. Reticulin D. Tropocollagen

Tropocollagen

74. Reticular fibers are very particular because of this property: A. Form fenestrated sheets B. Adsorbs metallic silver C. Most abundant protein in the body D. Exhibits form birefringence

Adsorbs metallic silver

75. The following glycoproteins form proteoglycans, EXCEPT: A. Hyaluronic acid B. Dermatan sulfate C. Keratin sulfate D. Chondroitin sulphate

Hyaluronic acid

76. Dense regular connective tissue is seen in the: A. Colon B. Spleen C. Tendon D. Skin

Tendon

77. Which of the following contain the amino acids desmosine and isodesmosine? A. Elastin B. Laminin C. Microfibrils D. Fibronectin

Elastin

78. This connective tissue type exhibits a higher ratio of matrix to cells and fibers: A. Loose connective tissue B. Dense irregular connective tissue C. All of the above D. Dense regular connective tissue

Loose connective tissue

79. Mostly seen during parasitic infestations: A. Macrophage B. Eosinophil C. Neutrophil D. Basophil

Eosinophil

80. Exhibits amoeboid movement: A. Mast cell B. Macrophage C. Fibroblast D. Adipocyte

Macrophage

81. The following are functions of smooth muscles, EXCEPT: A. Peristalsis B. Alters luminal caliber C. Mix gastric contents D. Raise the arms

Raise the arms

82. This muscle type exhibits cross-striations: A. Cardiac muscle B. Smooth muscle C. Skeletal muscle D. Skeletal and cardiac muscles

Skeletal and cardiac muscles

83. Filaments occur in longitudinally oblique bundles in this muscle type: A. Cardiac muscle B. Skeletal muscle C. B & C D. Smooth muscle

Smooth muscle

84. Exhibits branching: A. Skeletal muscle B. None of the above C. Cardiac muscle D. Smooth muscle

Cardiac muscle

85. Vesicular invaginations of plasmalemma of smooth muscles: A. Intermediate filaments B. Myosin C. Subplasmalemmal dense plaques D. Caveolae

Caveolae

86. The muscle type used by sprinters exhibits a high peak of muscle tension but is slow to fatigue. This is the: A. Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic B. Type 1 Slow oxidative C. Type 3 / Fast oxidative D. Type 2B / Fast glycolytic

Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic

87. Regarded as the "red fibers" in the older classification: A. Type 2A / Fast oxidative glycolytic B. Type 1 / Slow oxidative C. Type 3 / Fast oxidative D. Type 2B / Fast glycolytic

Type 1 / Slow oxidative

88. Made up of a single motor neuron, its terminal axonal branches, and the supplied muscle fiber: A. Motor neuron B. Nerve ending C. Motor end plate D. Neuromuscular junction

Motor end plate

89. The basic contractile unit of a muscle is the sarcomere. It is defined as a segment between 2 consecutives: A. M lines B. A band C. Z lines D. Hz ones

Z lines

90. This layer intimately covers each muscle fiber: A. Perimysium B. Epimysium C. Endomysium D. Paramysium

Endomysium

91. The innermost layer in the general structural organization of blood vessels: A. Internal elastic lamina B. Tunica adventia C. Tunica media D. Tunica intima

Tunica intima

92. The following are muscular arteries, EXCEPT: A. Brachial B. Common carotid C. Superior mesenteric D. Renal

Renal

93. The principal components of peripheral resistance to blood flow: A. Capillaries B. Muscular arteries C. Venules D. Arterioles

Arterioles

94. This specialized tissue responds to stretch and changes in blood pressure: A. Transitional arteries B. Carotid body C. Metarterioles D. Carotid sinus

Carotid sinus

95. These structures prevent blood from flowing in the opposite direction: A. Pore diaphragm B. Valves C. Anchoring filaments D. Tunica media

Valves

96. This segment of the circulatory system has a wider and irregular lumen; A. Metarterioles B. Lymphatic capillaries C. Capillaries D. Sinusoids

Sinusoids

97. This layer is thickest in the left ventricle: A. Myocardium B. Epicardium C. Subendocardium D. Endocardium

Myocardium

98. Provides the heart with an automatic rhythmic heartbeat: A. Atrio-ventricular node B. Bundle of His C. Sino-atrial node D. Purkinje fiber

Sino-atrial node

99. The most prominent feature of distributing arteries: A. Weibel-palade bodies B. Elastic fibers C. Smooth muscles D. Fibroblasts

Smooth muscles

100. The actual site of exchange of metabolites and waste products occur in the: A. Transitional arteries B. Capillaries C. Arterioles D. Post-capillary venule

Post-capillary venule

1. An 11-month-old girl is referred to a pediatric gastroenterology clinic due to a history of generalized weakness, slow growth, and refractory diarrhea. For the past month she has been hospitalized regularly to receive parenteral nutrition. Examination of the epithelium lining her small intestine confirms that the failure to absorb nutrients is most likely due to a significant decrease in which of the following? a. Cilia b. Microvilli c. Gap junctions d. Cell layers

Microvilli

2. Which one is a mixed exocrine-endocrine organ whose function is to continue the digestion of carbohydrates and initiate digestion of proteins? a. Esophagus b. large intestines c. small intestines d. Stomach

Stomach

3. Which condition is marked by atrophy of the intestinal mucosa caused by infections or nutritional deficiencies? a. Atrophic Gastritis b. Adenocarcinoma of the colon c. Duodenal ulcer d. Malabsorption syndrome

Malabsorption syndrome

4. A 40 y/o bank manager was admitted because of Pernicious Anemia. Biopsy was taken for diagnostic studies. Which cells are destructed that will result to this condition? a. Parietal cells b. Chief cells c. Goblet cells d. Paneth cells

Parietal cells

5. Destruction of parietal cells resulting to Pernicious anemia is usually caused by which of the following? a. Gastric ulcer b. Malabsorption syndrome c. Atopic gastritis d. Adenocarcinoma

Atopic gastritis

6. In the GIT, where are the cells that secrete antibacterial enzyme? a. In crypts of Lieberkühn b. In the Peyer's patch c. In rugae d. In the intestinal villi

In crypts of Lieberkühn

7. Which one will produce a reduction in the number of Paneth cells? a. Elevated level of undigested proteins b. Increased number of intestinal bacteria c. Increased level of intestinal fats d. Reduced breakdown of sugar

Increased number of intestinal bacteria

8. Which one is the primary function of lacteals in the small intestine? a. Absorption of amino acids b. Absorption of glucose c. Absorption of chylomicrons d. Absorption of salts

Absorption of chylomicrons

9. Brunner's gland is a feature of which of the following? a. Ileum b. Duodenum c. Gall bladder d. Liver

Duodenum

10.A 10 y/o patient consult a dentist because his teeth become loose in their sockets and fall out. He has history of scurvy? Which one causes the problem? a. Lower metabolic activity of cementum b. Enamel fails to develop c. Atrophy of periodontal ligament d. GAG not secreted by odontoblasts

Atrophy of periodontal ligament

11.A 60 y/o male was admitted because of tongue cancer. Biopsy was done but the pathologist can't find taste buds. What papilla was the biopsy taken? a. Filiform b. Foliate c. Fungiform d. Circumvallate

Foliate

12.A 65 y/o alcoholic was diagnosed to have Barret's esophagus. Which one is true about this condition? a. Neither b. Both c. Can be due to gastroesophageal reflux d. It is high risk for esophageal adenocarcinoma

Both

13. A 25 y/o female was diagnosed to have Carcinoid tumor. The hormone secreted by this tumor is responsible for which of the following? a. Decrease sense of hunger b. Gall bladder contraction c. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion d. Increased gut motility

Increased gut motility

*** MEMORIZE ALL ZONES 14. Which zone of the liver acinus is the most susceptible to ischemic injury? a. Zone 1 (Peripheral/ Permanent FUNCTION) b. Zone 2 (Intermediate/ Varying activity) c. Zone 3 (Central/ Permanent REPOSE) d. Zone 4

Zone 3

15. What is the daily basal secretion of bile? a. 1500 mL b. 500 mL c. 1000 mL d. 30-50mL

500 mL

16. The portal triad is at the center of what hepatic structural organization? a. Zone of permanent function b. Classical lobule c. Portal lobule d. Zone of permanent repose e. Hepatic acini

Portal lobule

17. What is the site of the primary function of the hepatic circulation? a. Portal venules b. Capillaries c. Sinusoids d. Peribiliary plexus

Sinusoids

18. Which lobule arrangement is consistent with other exocrine glands? a. Classical lobule b. Hepatic acini c. Portal lobule d. Centroacinar

Portal lobule

19. What pancreatic endocrine product affects the blood sugar level by decreasing it? a. Glucagon b. Gastrin c. Somatostatin d. Pancreatic polypeptide e. Insulin

Insulin

20. The Functional unit of the endocrine pancreas is which of the following? a. Acinar tissue b. Beta cell c. Islets of Langerhans d. Centroacinar cell e. Alpha cell

Islets of Langerhans

21. The Exocrine product of the liver is which of the following? a. Lipase b. Secretin c. Cholecystokinin d. Trypsin e. Bile

Bile

22. A mixed type of predominantly serous salivary gland is which of the following? a. Submandibular gland b. Sublingual gland c. Accessory gland d. Parotid gland

Submandibular gland a. Submandibular gland : mixed, mostly serous b. Sublingual gland: mixed, mostly mucous c. Accessory gland d. Parotid gland: PURE serous

23. During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, the functional layer of the endometrium undergoes which of the following changes? a. Glands become coiled. b. The epithelium is sloughed off c. The epithelium is renewed. d. Blood vessels become ischemic. e. The stroma swells due to edema.

The epithelium is renewed.

24. Which of the following statements accurately describes the vaginal mucosa: a. contains cells which secrete lactic acid. b. where parabasal cells are found. c. is lubricated by glands located in the cervix. d. is lined by stratified columnar epithelium. e. is lined by stratified cuboidal epithelium.

is lubricated by glands located in the cervix.

25. Peau d' orange is a term to describe this type of malignancy of the breast a. Intraductal carcinoma b. Inflammatory carcinoma c. Metastatic carcinoma d. Adenomyosis e. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

26. The transition zone between the vagina and cervix is a common site of cervical dysplasia and cancer. What epithelial transition is seen in this zone? a. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical stratified columnar b. Vaginal simple columnar to cervical simple squamous c. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar d. Vaginal simple squamous to cervical simple columnar e. Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical stratified columnar

Vaginal stratified squamous to cervical simple columnar

27. The functional layer of the endometrium is composed of: a. simple cuboidal epithelium b. stratified squamous epithelium c. simple ciliated columnar epithelium d. simple columnar epithelium e. simple squamous epithelium

simple ciliated columnar epithelium

28. Which layer of the vaginal wall contains glands, such as lubrication mucus? a. submucosal layer b. there are no glands in the vaginal wall c. mucosal layer d. adventitial layer e. muscular layer

there are no glands in the vaginal wall

29. One of the followings is characteristic for the secretory phase of the endometrium: a. Disintegration of the spiral vessels b. Glands are straight with narrow lumen c. Endometrium is about 2 mm thick d. Glands accumulate glycogen. e. Controlled by estrogen secreted by ovarian follicles.

Glands accumulate glycogen.

30. Syncytiotrophoblast is: a. Thin multinucleated layer covering the chorionic villi. b. Has microvilli to invade the decidua parietalis. c. Has pale staining cytoplasm. d. inner aver of the chorionic villi e. Disappear at the end of the 4th month of pregnancy.

Thin multinucleated layer covering the chorionic villi.

31. When the blastocyst forms, there are cells that encircle the ball like structure. What are these cells a. Epiblast b. Cytotrophoblast c. Trophoblast d. Hypoblast e. Syncytiotrophoblast

Trophoblast

32. Which of the following changes takes place in the pregnant and lactating mammary glands: a. Appearance of acini lined by pseudostratified columnar cells. b. Milk appears as basophilic vacuolated material inside the alveoli. c. Increase thickness of the connective tissue septa. d. Decreased fat cells. e. Secretion of milk by holocrine mode of secretion.

Decreased fat cells.

33. At the time of parturition a patient reports that her “water broke", meaning that the amniotic fluid has escaped into the vaginal canal. Assuming that the placenta is attached to its usual location on the posterior wall of the uterus, and that development has proceeded normally, escape of the amniotic fluid requires rupture of which of the following? a. Amnion, chorion lave, and decidua capsularis b. Chorion laeve only c. Amnion and chorion laeve only d. Amnion only

Amnion, chorion lave, and decidua capsularis

34. The 4 cellular layers separating maternal and fetal blood in sequence are: a. Fetal capillary endothelium, villi connective tissue, cytotrophoblast and syncitiotrophoblast. b. Spiral artery wall, Nichbaur layer, cytotrophoblast and Hofbaur layer c. Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium d. Maternal lacuna, trophoblast layer, endothelial and fetal red blood cell

Syncitiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, villi connective tissue and fetal capillary endothelium

35. One of the following changes takes place in the pregnant and lactating mammary glands:  a. Secretion of milk by holocrine mode of secretion. b. Milk appears as basophilic vacuolated material inside the alveoli. c. Increase thickness of the connective tissue septa. d. Decreased fat cells. e. Appearance of acini lined by pseudostratified columnar cells.

Decreased fat cells.

36. Which of the following cells can be classified as a basophil? a. None of the above b. Somatotropic cells c. Lactotrophic, cells d. All of the above e. Corticotropic cells

Corticotropic cells

37. What is the most common cell in the parathyroid gland? a. Principal cell b. Parafollicular cells c. Chromaffin cells d. Follicular cells e. Oxyphil cell

Principal/Chief cell

38. Where are catecholamines secreted from?  a. Zona fasciculata  b. Zona glomerulosa  c. Zona reticularis d. Chromaffin cells e. None of the above

Chromaffin cells

39. What type of hormone is prolactin? a. Protein b. Steroid c. Peptide d. None of the above e. Catecholamine

Protein

40. Where are trophic hormones secreted from? a. Infundibulum b. Pars intermedia c. Pars tuberalis d. Adenohypophysis e. Neurohypophysis

Adenohypophysis

41. Which of the following is not part of the neurohypophysis? a. Pars nervosa b. Median eminence c. All of the above are part of the neurohypophysis d. Pars distalis e. Infundibular stalk

Pars distalis

42. What cell type secretes MSH? a. Gonadotropic cells b. Somatotropic cells c. Corticotropic cells d. Thyrotropic cells e. Lactotropic cells

Corticotropic cells

43. Which of the following cells can be classified as an acidophil? a. Corticotropic cells b. Thyrotropic cells c. All of the above d. Gonadotropic cells e. None of the above

None of the above

44. Which gland secretes epinephrine? a. Pineal gland b. Thyroid c. Adrenal gland (cortex) d. Adrenal gland (medulla) e. Pancreas

Adrenal gland (medulla)

45. Which gland secretes cortisol? a. Pancreas b. Adrenal gland (medulla) c. Adrenal gland (cortex) d. Pineal gland e. Thyroid

c. Adrenal gland (cortex)

46. Which cell type is found in the adrenal medulla? a. Parafollicular cells b. Oxyphil cell c. Principal cell d. Chromaffin cells e. Follicular cells

Chromaffin cells

What is the largest developing cell in the seminiferous tubules? a. Secondary spermatocyte b. Spermatid c. Spermatogonium B d. Primary spermatocyte

Primary spermatocyte

What cell is responsible for producing the androgen-binding protein in the testes? a. Spermatocytes b. Leydig c. Sertoli d. Spermatids

Sertoli

49. Spermiogenesis involves what type of cell division? a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Both mitosis and meiosis d. Neither mitosis nor meiosis

Neither mitosis nor meiosis

50. Which type of spermatogonium will develop into a primary spermatocyte?  a. C b. A c. D d. B

51. What tubules are lined by Simple cuboidal epithelium? a. Rete testis b. Vas deferens c. Ejaculatory duct d. Epididymis

Rete testis

Corpora amylacea is a characteristic feature of this organ? a. Prostate b. Epididymis c. Seminal vesicle d. Cowper's

Prostate

What organ secretes a yellow, viscous alkaline fluid rich in fructose? a. Littre b. Bulbourethral c. Seminal vesicle d. Prostate

Seminal vesicle

The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of the excretory duct of the seminal vesicle and what structure? a. Prostatic urethra b. Ampulla of the vas deferens c. Ureter d. Bladder

Ampulla of the vas deferens

The tunica muscularis of the vas deferens is made-up of the following smooth muscles. a. Inner circular, middle longitudinal. outer circular b. Inner circular, outer longitudinal c. Inner longitudinal, middle circular, Outer longitudinal d. Inner longitudinal. outer longitudinal

Inner longitudinal, middle circular, Outer longitudinal

What is the subtype of connective tissue is the tunica albuginea in the penis? a. Adipose b. Embryonal c. Fibrous d. Mucous

Fibrous

Which is the correct sequence of flow of the developing sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis? a. Efferent ductules - Rete testis – Straight ductules b. Efferent ductules - Straight ductules. - Rete testis c. Rete testis - Straight tubules – Efferent ductules. d. Straight tubules - Rete testis – Efferent ductules

Straight tubules - Rete testis – Efferent ductules

What is the lining epithelium of the organ wherein sperms further mature and are temporarily stored? a. Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia b. Alternate simple cuboidal and simple columnar with stereocilia c. Simple columnar ciliated d. Specialized stratified epithelium

Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia

What male accessory organ produces a secretion that lubricates the urethra before ejaculation? a. Bulbourethral glands b. All choices are correct c. Seminal vesicles d. Prostate gland

Bulbourethral glands

A digital rectal exam reveals a hard palpable mass in the prostate that was considered malignant. What zone of the prostate is most likely affected? a. All choices are correct b. Peripheral c. Central d. Transitional

Peripheral

A 48-year-old male consulted you because of erectile dysfunction. What will you initially do as the attending physician? a. Do a fasting blood sugar test. b. All choices are correct c. Advise that he will no longer produce an offspring. d. Refer to a urologist for surgical intervention

Do a fasting blood sugar test.

As to morphology, the glands of prostate are a. Simple acinar b. Simple tubular c. Tubulo-acinar d. Compound tubular

Tubulo-acinar

In male sterilization, surgical ligation of this organ is usually done: a. Penis b. Ductus deferens c. Epididymis d. Ejaculatory duct

Ductus deferens

What tubules are provided with flat smooth muscle like cells called as Myoid that allows weak contractions of the organ? a. Seminiferous tubule b. Epididymis c. Vas deferens d. Ejaculatory duct

Seminiferous tubule

The Tunica albuginea of the testis is thickened on the posterior side to form this structure which will further penetrate the organ to separate it into compartments: a. Mediastinum testis b. Straight tubule c. Seminiferous tubule d. Rete testis

Mediastinum testis

Principal cell is seen in what organ of the male reproductive system? a. Vas deferens b. Epididymis c. Penis d. Testis

Epididymis

A clinical condition called glaucoma results from an increased intraocular pressure due to which of the following? a. Neither b. Excessive secretion of aqueous humor c. Obstruction of the scleral venous sinus d. Both

Both

Retinal detachment involves separation of the neural retina from what structure? a. Pigment epithelium b. Descemet membrane c. Corneal epithelium d. Bruch membrane

Pigment epithelium

Hair cells of Organ of Corti is the receptor for which of the following? a. Vision b. Hearing c. Vestibular sense d. Smell

Hearing

Which of the following is essential for visual acuity and color vision? a. Pigment cells b. Cones of the retina c. Macula lutea d. Rods

Cones of the retina

In the ear, what converts mechanical vibrations into nerve impulses? a. Spiral ganglia b. Cochlear nerve c. Auditory ossicles d. Hair cells

Hair cells

In the inner ear, which one receives and transmits sound? a. Cochlea b. Vestibule c. Utricle d. Semicircular canal

Cochlea

Which contributes to the stability and strength of the cornea? a. Substantia propria b. Descemet's membrane c. Bowman's membrane d. Inner stratified squamous epithelium

Bowman's membrane

Which of the following is responsible for maintaining a state of hydration within the cornea? a. Corneal endothelium b. Choriocapillary lamina  c. Bruch's membrane d. Suprachoroidal lamina

Corneal endothelium

Which one secretes a serous solvent for taste provoking substances? a. Taste bud b. Sustentacular cells c. von Ebner gland d. Salivary gland

von Ebner gland

A 30 year old female went to an ENT specialist due to vertigo. The specialist examined her and found out that the patient has nystagmus. Lesion of which of the following does not cause nystagmus? a. Visual system b. Brain stem c. Cerebellum d. Cerebrum

Cerebrum

Which cells produce erythropoietin in the kidney? a. J-G cells b. Mesangial cells c. Podocytes d. Macula densa cells

Mesangial cells

The two kidneys produced 125 ml of filtrate/minute. How much of this amount/minute is released to ureters as urine? a. 1 ml/min b. 100 ml/min c. 10 ml/min d. 125 ml/min

1 ml/min

During your practical exam, a slide shows having nephron loop, collecting ducts and the ascending limb. What layer of the kidney is it? a. Renal medulla b. Cortical nephron c. Glomerulus d. Renal corpuscle

Renal medulla

In the renal corpuscle, the afferent arteriole enters and the efferent arteriole leaves via the vascular pole while the urinary pole begins with which of the following? a. Collecting ducts b. Glomerulus c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Proximal convoluted tubule

Proximal convoluted tubule

A 45 y/o patient had Glomerulonephritis. In this condition, the glomerular filter is destroyed and more permeable to which of the following substance? a. Electrolytes b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Proteins

Proteins

What structure of the kidney produced concentrated and hypertonic urine? a. Proximal convoluted tubule b. Mesangial cell c. Renal medulla d. Juxtamedullary nephron

Juxtamedullary nephron

83. A 30 year old man was severely bleeding due to stabbed wound which caused a decrease in blood pressure, and increased renin secretion. Which of the following will help restore blood volume to increase the blood pressure? a. Vasopressin b. Epinephrine c. Aquaporin d. Angiotensin II

Angiotensin II

84. Which zone of the liver acinus is exposed to blood high in oxygen content and nutrients and is involved in a patient with preeclampsia? a. Space of Disse b. Periportal c. Midzonal d. Sinusoids e. Centralabular

Periportal

85. Regarding the hepatic lobule and function, portal lobules are useful to which of the following? a. Lobular anatomy of the liver b. Nature of blood supply to the liver c. Exocrine function of hepatocytes d. Endocrine function of the liver

Exocrine function of hepatocytes

86. You were given a slide showing masses of striated muscle fibers that cross one another, separated by connective tissue and has mucous membrane adherent to the muscle. Its posterior part is filled with lymphoid nodules while its body is covered with stratified squamous epithelium. Which part of the GIT is this organ? a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Tongue d. Rectum

Tongue

87. Tissue biopsy was done to a 55 y/o patient, which showed branched tubuloacinar glands with secretory portions containing mucous and predominantly serous cells. Serous demilunes were also seen in the biopsy. Identify what salivary glands has these features? a. Sublingual gland b. Accessory salivary gland c. Submandibular gland d. Parotid gland

Submandibular gland

The parotid gland has similar exocrine features with the pancreas. What histologic characteristics made pancreas different from the parotid gland? a. Both secretes protease enzymes b. Presence of striated ducts c. Presence of Islets d. Presence of serous cells

Presence of Islets

A 30 y/o patient was admitted due to Cushing syndrome, a tumor of the adrenal gland. This condition is due to an excessive secretion of which hormone and in what layer of this gland? a. Aldosterone > adrenal medulla b. Mineralocorticoids > adrenal cortex c. Glucocorticoids > adrenal cortex d. Epinephrine > adrenal medulla

Glucocorticoids > adrenal cortex

90. A 5 y/o patient was admitted due to kwashiorkor. What organ is usually involved in this kind of malnutrition? a. Small intestine b. Liver c. Stomach d. Pancreas

Pancreas

91. You were shown an organ whose parenchyma consists of numerous rounded epithelial structures with simple epithelium and a lumen filled with gelatinous substance. Identify the organ. a. Pancreas b. Adrenal gland c. Thyroid gland d. Pituitary gland

Thyroid gland

92. The epidermis is lined by which type of epithelium? a. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium b. Non-keratinized simple squamous epithelium c. Stratified columnar epithelium d. Simple columnar epithelium

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

93. This epidermal layer is seen only in palms and soles a. Stratum spinosum b. Stratum corneum c. Stratum basale d. Stratum lucidum

Stratum lucidum

This layer is composed of cuboidal cells a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum spinosum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum basale

Stratum basale

95. These epidermal cells are mechanoreceptors for light touch a. Merkel cells b. Melanocytes c. Keratinocytes d. Langerhan cells

Merkel cells

96. Which is not considered as an epidermal appendage? a. Sebaceous gland b. Hair c. Hypodermis d. Nail

Hypodermis

97. This epidermal layer is composed of numerous cell layers which appears pointy a. Stratum germinativum b. Stratum spinosum c. Stratum basale d. Stratum lucidum

Stratum spinosum

98. Which layer is on the surface of the skin? a. Stratum lucidum b. Stratum spinosum c. Stratum basale d. Stratum corneum

Stratum corneum

99. What type of glands are the glands of Moll? a. Endocrine gland b. Sebaceous gland c. Eccrine sweat gland d. Apocrine sweat gland

Apocrine sweat gland

100. Which is the receptor of fine touch? a. Merkel cells b. Melanocytes c. Keratinocytes d. Meissner's corpuscle

Meissner's corpuscle