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Histology > Histology 3rd Lecture Exam (Batch 2025) > Flashcards

Histology 3rd Lecture Exam (Batch 2025) Flashcards

1
Q

How does the lymph enters the lymph node?

A. Bloodstream

B. Efferent lymphatic vessels

C. Afferent lymphatic vessels

D. Medullary cords

A

Afferent lymphatic vessels

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2
Q

What cells are highly populated in the germinal center of the spleen?

A. T lymphocytes

B. Macrophage

C. B lymphocytes

D. Plasma cells

A

B lymphocytes

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3
Q

What stimulates B cells to secrete antibodies?

A. Macrophage

B. Cytokines

C. Langerhans cells

D. T lymphocytes

A

Cytokines

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4
Q
  1. Which are dendritic cells of the lymph nodes?
    A. Nurse cells

B. Lymphocytes

C. Antigen presenting cells

D. Reticular cells

A

Antigen presenting cells

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5
Q
  1. What is secreted by plasma cells that originate from the proliferation of B lymphocytes?
    A. Helper cells

B. Cytokine

C. Antigen

D. Antibody

A

Antibody

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6
Q
  1. Which immunoglobulin crosses the placental barrier and is highly secreted in an immune response?

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgD

D. IgE

A

IgG

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7
Q
  1. Which organ is NOT a mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
    A. Payers patch

B. Tonsils

C. Appendix

D. Spleen

A

Spleen

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8
Q
  1. Which cells carry out an immune response?
    A. Red blood cells

B. Lymphocytes

C. Macrophages

D. Plasma cells

A

Lymphocytes

Sources of Antibodies (IgGAMDE)
Immunoglobulins: Humoral Immune Response

Source of Cytokines (IL-1, IFN, TNF)
Interleukins, Interferons, TNF: Cellular Immune Response

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9
Q
  1. Which cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system and function to phagocytose and process antigens?
    A. Suppressor T cells

B. Antigen-presenting cells

C. Plasma cells

D. Natural killer cells

A

Antigen-presenting cells

Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS):
Reticulo-Endothelial System

  • Accessory/ Antigen-Presenting Cells (Major histocompatibility complex/T cells/B cells/Dendritic Cells)
  • Kupffer cells (Liver/Hepatic Macrophage),
  • Microglia (CNS/Brain Macrophage),
  • Alveolar/Dust cells (Lung Macrophage),
  • Splenic: White and Red Pulp(Spleen Macrophage),
  • Langerhans cells (Skin Macrophage),
  • Osteoclasts (Bone Macrophage).
  • Monocytes (Blood)
  • Mesanglial Phagocytes (Kidney)
  • Resident & Circulating Macrophage (Lymph Nodes)
  • *Histiocytes (Connective Tissue).
  • GALT (Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue): (Intestinal Macrophage)
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10
Q
  1. The function of this cell is to recognize and destroy antigenically virus-infected and malignant cells?
    A. Suppressor T cell

B. Cytotoxic T cell

C. Memory T cell

D. Helper T cell

A

Cytotoxic T cell

B Lymphocytes (15%) - Humoral Immunity
Generated in the BM; Transformed into plasma cells to Produce Antibodies

T Lymphocytes (70%) - Cell-Mediated Immunity
Differentiate in the Thymus; Releases Cytokines & Lysozyme

Natural Killer (NK) Cells –
Also known as Large Granular Lymphocytes (LGL ) because of their distinctive large size, pale cytoplasm, and prominent granulation. 15% of Circulating Peripheral Blood Lymphocytes.

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11
Q
  1. The physical blood-thymus barrier is NOT formed by which of the following?
    A. Macrophages

B. Epithelial reticular cells

C. Endothelial cells

D. Plasma cells

A

Plasma cells

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12
Q
  1. What organ is the site of immune responses to blood borne antigens that filters blood?
    A. Spleen

B. Tonsil

C. Thymus

D. Lymph node

A

Spleen

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13
Q
  1. Which cells do not reside in the splenic white pulp?
    A. Antigen-presenting cells

B. T cells

C. Erythrocytes

D. Macrophages

A

Erythrocytes

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14
Q
  1. What cells populate in the periarterial sheath of the central arteries in the white pulp?
    A. Macrophages

B. Lymphocytes

C. T lymphocytes

D. Plasma cells

A

T lymphocytes

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15
Q
  1. Which structure is NOT found in the splenic red pulp?
    A. Venous sinusoids

B. Reticular fiber networks

C. Cords of Billroth

D. Germinal center

A

Germinal center

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16
Q
  1. What surrounds and promotes proliferation, and maturation of lymphocytes in the thymus?
    A. Macrophage

B. Epithelial reticular cell

C. Stellate reticular cell

D. Dendritic cell

A

Epithelial reticular cell

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17
Q
  1. What is the protective epithelial lining that covers the palatine tonsil?

A. Simple cuboidal epithelium

B. Stratified columnar epithelium

C. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
D. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium

A

Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium

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18
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT a feature of a lymph node?
    A. Presence of high endothelial venules in its paracortical zone

B. Contains dendritic cells, which are antigen-presenting cells
C. The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes
D. Associated with afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels

A

The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes

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19
Q
  1. Which statement regarding the

cell-mediated immune response is not correct?

A. Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells

B. Antigen induces transformation of the B cells into plasma cells

C. Stimulation of T cell is due to the surface of antigen-presenting cells
D. Cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign cells and induce apoptosis

A

Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells

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20
Q
  1. Which statement is true regarding the lymphatic system?
    A. Lymphatic nodules surround a vessel called central artery.
    B. Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles.

C. Splenic cords are interconnected blood channels that drain blood.
D. The bone marrow is not a part of the lymphoid system

A

Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles.

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21
Q

What type of T cells act directly against foreign cells or virus-infected cells?
A. Cytotoxic cells
B. Memory cell
C. Helper cells
D. Regulatory cells

A

Cytotoxic cells

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22
Q
  1. Which cell is killed by the infecting retrovirus in a patient with AIDS?
    A. Macrophage
    B. Antigen-presenting cell
    C. Helper T cell
    D. β lymphocyte
A

Helper T cell

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23
Q
  1. Where is the origin of precursors of all types of lymphocyte?
    A. Bone marrow

B. Spleen

C. Liver

D. Blood

A

Bone marrow

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24
Q

Which cell is found in the medulla of thymus?

A. Reticular

B. Hassall’s

C. Thymic nurse cell
D. Lymphoblast

A

Hassall’s

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25
Q

What cells are found in the germinal centres of lymphatic tissues?

A. Plasma

B. Suppressor T

C. Helper

D. Lymphocyte

A

Helper

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26
Q

Which function is carried out by all lymphoid tissues and organs?

A. Filtration of lymph
B. Filtration of blood
C. Extramedullary hemopoiesis
D. Production of lymphocytes
E. Destruction of old erythrocytes

A

Production of lymphocytes

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27
Q

Which structure is partly encapsulated and covered by nonkera- tinized stratified squamous epithelium?
A. Appendix
B. Lymph node
C. Palatine tonsil
D. Peyer’s patch
E. Thymic (Hassal’s) corpuscle

A

Palatine tonsil

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28
Q

Which cell type gives rise to both memory and effector cells and is primarily associated with humoral immunity?
A. B lymphocyte
B. NK cell
C. Macrophage
D. T lymphocyte
E. Reticular cell

A

B lymphocyte

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29
Q

Recycling of iron and heme, the major complex containing iron, occurs most actively in which lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s)?

A. Lymph nodes
B. Peyer’s patches
C. Tonsils
D. Spleen
E. Lymphatic vessels

A

Spleen

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30
Q

Which description is true of all secondary (peripheral) lymphoid organs?
A. Capable of antigen-independent lymphopoiesis
B. Contain crypts
C. Contain epithelial-reticular cells
D. Lack connective tissue capsules
E. Contain lymphoid nodules

A

Contain lymphoid nodules

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31
Q

Which structure would be most heavily labeled by an immunohitochemical method targeting the CD8 surface antigen?
A. Germinal centers
B. Paracortex
C. Peyer’s patch
D. Sheathed arterioles
E. Splenic cords

A

Paracortex

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32
Q

A baby is born with a cleft palate and a condition called DiGeorge syn- drome, which involves failure of third and fourth pharyngeal pouch derivatives to develop properly. The palate defect is corrected surgically, but regarding the pharyngeal pouch defect the parents are advised that the growing child may expect which of the following health problems?
A. Insufficient B-cell production by lymph nodes in the head and neck
B. Inability to secrete IgA
C. Excessive numbers of circulating but defective erythrocytes
D. Increased oral infections due lack of palatine and pharyngeal tonsils
E. Conditions related to autoimmunity

A

Conditions related to autoimmunity

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33
Q

Many immune-related cellular activities are often impaired in aged patients. Which lymphoid organ(s) normally develop less function- ality and increasing amounts of adipose tissue with age?
A. Axillary lymph nodes
B. Lingual tonsils
C. Thymus
D. Splenic white pulp
E. Splenic red pulp

A

Thymus

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34
Q

A 12-year-old girl of African descent presents with anemia and a large percentage of her peripheral erythrocytes appear sickle-shaped. Genetic testing reveals homozygosity for sickle cell disease. In which of the fol- lowing sites will the abnormal RBCs be removed from the circulation?
A. Thymic cortex
B. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheathes of splenic white pulp
C. Medullary sinuses of lymph nodes
D. Thymic medulla
E. Splenic cords (of Billroth)

A

Splenic cords (of Billroth)

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35
Q

A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic where his mother reports that he was bitten by a neighbor’s dog two days earlier. The child’s right hand is lacerated between the thumb and index finger and this area is inflamed but healing. The doctor’s examination reveals small but pain- less swellings beneath the skin inside the right elbow and arm pit and he explains to the mother that these are active lymph nodes enlarged in response to the infection in the hand. What has produced the swelling?
A. Increased flow of lymph through the nodes’ afferent lymphatics
B. Formation of germinal centers for B-cell proliferation in each node’s cortex
C. Arrival of antigen-presenting cells in each node’s medulla
D. Enlargement and increased activity of the nodes’ high endothelial venules
E. Increased thickness of each node’s paracortex

A

Formation of germinal centers for B-cell proliferation in each node’s cortex

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36
Q
  1. Which epithelial cell surface specialization is used to move mucous and particles along the surface?
    A. stereocilia

B. villi

C. desmosomes

D. microvilli

E. Cilia

A

E. Cilia

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37
Q
  1. Pseudostratified columnar, ciliated epithelium is found lining the:
    A. nasal cavities

B. crypts of pharyngeal tonsils

C. bronchi

D. trachea

E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

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38
Q
  1. The cell type in the olfactory epithelium whose nuclei are positioned most apically is the:
    A. olfactory receptor cell

B. sustentacular cell

C. basal cell

D. clara cell

E. goblet cell

A

B. sustentacular cell

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39
Q
  1. The most numerous cell type in the olfactory epithelium, whose nuclei are positioned at several levels in the lower portion of the epithelium, is the:
    A. sustentacular cell

B. basal cell

C. olfactory receptor cell

D. clara cell

E. goblet cell

A

C. olfactory receptor cell

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40
Q
  1. Olfactory receptor cells:

A. have several extremely long cilia for extensive exposure of receptor surface membrane
B. can be replaced by cell division when worn out or damaged
C. are supported by sustentacular cells
D. are nerve cells with axons extending through the cribriform plate into the olfactory bulb of the brain
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

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41
Q
  1. In which of the following are goblet cells most frequent?
    A. bronchus
    B. alveolus
    C. bronchiole
    D. trachea
A

D. trachea

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42
Q
  1. As respiratory passages branch from trachea to bronchioles, the epithelium gradually changes from:
    A. simple cuboidal to simple columnar
    B. ciliated pseudostratified columnar to simple cuboidal
    C. simple squamous to ciliated pseudostratified columnar
    D. simple columnar to simple squamous
    E. stratified squamous to simple squamous
A

B. ciliated pseudostratified columnar to simple cuboidal

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43
Q
  1. Simple squamous epithelium lines the:

A. Alveoli

B. Trachea

C. nasal cavities

D. bronchi

A

A. Alveoli

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44
Q

Alveolar type 1 cells are:
A. cuboidal cells that secrete surfactant
B. squamous cells involved in gas exchange
C. ciliated cells that move mucous

D. columnar cells that secrete mucous

A

B. squamous cells involved in gas exchange

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45
Q
  1. The entire alveolar wall or septum (separating adjacent alveoli) consists of:

A. surface epithelium

B. blood vessels

C. connective tissue

D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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46
Q
  1. Non-ciliated cuboidal cells in bronchiole epithelium that are thought to be involved in absorption or secretion are called:

A. chief cells
B. basal cells
C. goblet cells
D. club cells

A

D. club cells

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47
Q
  1. The thickness of interalveolar septa separating adjacent alveoli is typically:

A. 1 micron or less

B. 50 to 100 microns

C. 500 to 1000 microns

D. 5 to 10 microns

A

D. 5 to 10 microns

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48
Q
  1. The lining of the pleural cavity is:

A. mesothelium

B. pseudostratified columnar epithelium

C. endolthelium

D. type 1 pneumocytes

A

A. mesothelium

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49
Q
  1. C-shaped rings that form the framework of the trachea and help keep it open are composed of:

A. trachealis muscle

B. fibroelastic tissue

C. hyaline cartilage

D. skeletal muscle

A

C. hyaline cartilage

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50
Q

What type of tissue makes up the epiglottis?

A. Spongy bone
B. Fibrocartilage
C. Elastic cartilage
D. Hyaline cartilage

A

C. Elastic cartilage

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51
Q
  1. Which of the following is part of the conducting airway?

A. Respiratory Bronchioles

B. Alveoli

C. Bronchi

D. Alveolar ducts

A

C. Bronchi

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52
Q
  1. What type of epithelium lines the vestibule?

A. Transitional epithelium

B. Simple squamous epithelium

C. Stratified squamous epithelium
D. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells

A

C. Stratified squamous epithelium

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53
Q
  1. Which cartilage of the larynx is made of hyaline cartilage

A. Thyroid cartilage

B. Cricoid cartilage

C. Arytenoid cartilage

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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54
Q
  1. Which cell is also called a septal cell?

A. Type 2 pneumocyte

B. Type 1 pneumocyte

C. Dust cell

D. Clara cell

A

A. Type 2 pneumocyte

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55
Q
  1. Which cell is a respiratory macrophage?

A. Microglia

B. Dust cell

C. Kupffer cell

D. Histiocyte

A

B. Dust cell

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56
Q
  1. Which of the following is devoid of hyaline cartilage?

A. trachea

B. bronchus

C. bronchiole

D. larynx

A

D. larynx

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57
Q
  1. Small sero-mucous glands may be found in the mucosa of the:
    A. nasal cavity

B. nasal sinuses

C. trachea

D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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58
Q
  1. Intrapulmonary bronchi and bronchioles same which of the following properties?

A. Association with pulmonary arteries
B. Association with glands

C. Amount of cartilage

D. Type of epithelium

A

A. Association with pulmonary arteries

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59
Q
  1. The following statements are correct except?
    A. The larynx contains hyaline cartilage and smooth muscle
    B. Clara cells are found only in the bronchioles

C. None of the above

D. Surfactant is produced by Type II pneumocytes

A

A. The larynx contains hyaline cartilage and smooth muscle

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60
Q
  1. All of the following statements about the respiratory epithelium is correct except?

A. Most of the inside of the alveoli is lined with type I pneumocytes
B. Trachealis muscle contracts during inhalation
C. Vocal folds contain elastic fibers, skeletal muscle, and stratified epithelium

D. Mucociliary clearance involves goblet cells, ciliated cells and submucosal glands

A

B. Trachealis muscle contracts during inhalation

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61
Q
  1. The large number of alveolar macrophages which migrate into the lumen of the alveoli are derived from
    A. Smooth muscles of the pulmonary arteries
    B. Fibroblasts in the fibroalveolar septa
    C. Dendritic cells of the lymphoid tissue
    D. Monocytes circulating in the blood
A

D. Monocytes circulating in the blood

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62
Q
  1. Both goblet cells and ciliated cells are found in the following except?

A. Nasal cavity

B. Bronchi

C. Alveoli

D. Trachea

A

C. Alveoli

63
Q
  1. Capillaries of alveoli are:

A. Larger in diameter than average systemic capillaries
B. Fenestrated to enhance uptake of air from the alveolar lumen
C. Typically surrounded by dense concentrations of lymphocytes
D. Separated from air solely by their own epithelium and basal lamina

A

A. Larger in diameter than average systemic capillaries

64
Q
  1. Which of the following is composed of skeletal muscle and cartilage?
    A. Trachea

B. Larynx

C. Alveoli

D. Bronchioles

65
Q
  1. Bronchioles is differentiated from bronchi by the following except?

A. Absence of cartilage

B. Type of epithelium

C. Presence of smooth muscle

D. Presence of Clara cells

A

C. Presence of smooth muscle

66
Q
  1. Which of the following does not contain smooth muscle?
    A. Alveolar ducts

B. Bronchioles

C. Trachea

D. Bronchi

A

A. Alveolar ducts

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of capillaries found in the alveolar septa?
    A. There is transport across the capillary wall using membrane vesicles
    B. They have larger diameters than most capillaries
    C. They lack basement membrane

D. They have lower pressure than most capillaries

A

C. They lack basement membrane

68
Q
  1. A unique feature of the olfactory epithelium is
    A. Presence of goblet cells

B. Presence of hair cells

C. Continuous replacement of neurons
D. Presence of taste receptors

A

C. Continuous replacement of neurons

69
Q
  1. Which of the following features is found in both respiratory and olfactory epithelium?

A. They have bipolar sensory neurons

B. They are both pseudostratified

C. They both have motile cilia

D. They both contain goblet cells

A

B. They are both pseudostratified

70
Q
  1. The following are characteristics of Type II Pneumocytes except:
    A. They phagocytose particulates in the alveoli
    B. They divide to produce both Type I and Type II cells

C. They contain lamellar bodies and organelles
D. They secrete surfactant

A

A. They phagocytose particulates in the alveoli

71
Q
  1. For oxygen to reach hemoglobin, it must diffuse across all the following structures except?
    A. Type I pneumocyte

B. Smooth muscle cells

C. Endothelial cell

D. Layer of surfactant

A

B. Smooth muscle cells

72
Q
  1. Which of the following components increase(s) as a proportion of the respiratory tract wall from trachea to alveoli?
    A. Smooth muscle

B. Cilia

C. Elastic fibers

D. Cartilage

E. Goblet cells

A

C. Elastic fibers

73
Q

Air moving rapidly across the vocal cords and causing them to vibrate and produce sound is contacting what type of epithelium?
A. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
B. Pseudostratified ciliated
C. Simple squamous
D. Stratified squamous keratinized

A

A. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized

74
Q
  1. Which structural feature distinguishes between terminal and respiratory bronchioles?
    A. Alveoli

B. Cilia

C. Mucous glands in lamina propria

D. Exocrine bronchiolar cells

A

A. Alveoli

75
Q
  1. Which of the following features distinguishes a bronchus within a lung from the primary bronchi?
    A. Irregular plates of cartilage

B. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
C. Glands in the submucosa

D. Smooth muscle in the wall

A

A. Irregular plates of cartilage

76
Q
  1. Which feature involved in protection of the respiratory tract is absent from the digestive tract?

A. Secretory IgA

B. Cilia

C. Goblet cells

D. Lymphoid nodules

77
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of pulmonary surfactant?
    A. Is secreted by goblet cells

B. Forms layer rich in phospholipid overlying a thin aqueous phase
C. Does not affect bacterial survival
D. Secreted by type I pneumocytes
E. Prevents alveolar collapse by increasing surface tension

A

E. Prevents alveolar collapse by increasing surface tension

78
Q
  1. The pulmonary (functional) and bronchial (nutritive) arterial systems enter the lungs separately at the hilus but anastomose into a single system at which level?

A. Terminal bronchioles

B. Segmental bronchioles

C. Bronchi

D. Respiratory bronchiole

A

Respiratory bronchiole

79
Q
  1. After 35 weeks of gestation, a 5 lb 5 oz girl is born to a 30-year-old gravid 2, para (G2P2) woman. The infant has rapid and labored breathing that is viewed as transient tachypnea of the newborn. She has respiratory distress, with a normal pulse and no heart murmurs. She is transported to the neonatal intensive care unit with worsening tachypnea. In this infant which of the following is likely to be involved?

A. Failure of the type I pneumocytes to form complete blood-air

B. Absence of elastic fibers from the bronchiolar walls and interal-
C. Failure of type II pneumocytes to complete differentiation and
D. Failure of type II pneumocyte progenitors to proliferate ade-

A

Failure of type II pneumocytes to complete differentiation and

80
Q
  1. A thirteen year old girl presents at the ER with paroxysms of dyspnea, cough, and wheezing. Her parents indicate that she had these “attacks” during the past winter and that they have worsened and become more frequent during the spring. Which of the following cell types and their location is correctly matched to a function it may perform in this patient’s disorder?

A. Plasma cells in bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT), bronchoconstriction
B. Cilia in alveolar ducts, enhanced mucociliary transport
C. Eosinophils in BALT, bronchodilation
D. Mast cells in BALT, bronchoconstriction and edema

A

D. Mast cells in BALT, bronchoconstriction and edema

81
Q
  1. A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular germ cell tumor. The tumor is surgically removed and he begins chemotherapy with cisplatin, etoposide, and bleomycin. Bleomycin chemotherapy is known to affect the lung blood-air barrier. Which of the following best describes the structural site of those effects?
    A. Fused basal laminae of epithelial and endothelial cells
    B. Alveolar macrophages in interalveolar septa

C. Type II pneumocytes linked by junctional complexes
D. Alveolar pores of Kohn

A

A. Fused basal laminae of epithelial and endothelial cells

82
Q
  1. The respiratory bronchiole epithelium

is:

A. Simple cuboidal

B. Stratified cuboidal

C. Stratified squamous

D. Pseudostratified columnar

A

Simple cuboidal

83
Q
  1. The surfactant is made up of the following

A. Cholesterol

B. Phospholipid

C. Proteins

D. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

84
Q
  1. Each lung is covered by:

A. Visceral pleura

B. Fascia

C. Smooth muscle

D. Parietal pleura

A

A. Visceral pleura

85
Q
  1. Which one secretes surfactants?

A. type I pneumocytes

B. Kulchitsky cells

C. type II pneumocytes

D. Clara cells

A

type II pneumocytes

86
Q

Which of the following components increase(s) as a proportion of the respiratory tract wall from trachea to alveoli?
A. Cilia
B. Elastic fibers
C. Smooth muscle
D. Cartilage
E. Goblet cells

A

Elastic fibers

87
Q

Air moving rapidly across the vocal cords and causing them to vibrate and produce sound is contacting what type of epithelium?
A. Pseudostratified ciliated
B. Stratified squamous keratinized
C. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
D. Simple squamous
E. Simple cuboidal

A

Stratified squamous nonkeratinized

88
Q

Which structural feature distinguishes between terminal and respi- ratory bronchioles?
A. Alveoli
B. Cilia
C. Exocrine bronchiolar cells
D. Mucous glands in lamina propria
E. Smooth muscle

89
Q

Which of the following features distinguishes a bronchus within a lung from the primary bronchi?
A. Glands in the submucosa
B. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
C. Smooth muscle in the wall
D. Irregular plates of cartilage
E. Goblet cells in the epithelium

A

Irregular plates of cartilage

90
Q

Which feature involved in protection of the respiratory tract is absent from the digestive tract?
A. Goblet cells
B. Cilia
C. Lymphoid nodules
D. Secretory IgA
E. Tight junctions

91
Q

Which of the following is true of pulmonary surfactant?
A. Secreted by type I pneumocytes
B. Forms layer rich in phospholipid overlying a thin aqueous phase
C. Prevents alveolar collapse by increasing surface tension
D. Does not affect bacterial survival
E. Is secreted by goblet cells

A

Forms layer rich in phospholipid overlying a thin aqueous phase

92
Q

The pulmonary (functional) and bronchial (nutritive) arterial sys- tems enter the lungs separately at the hilus but anastomose into a single system at which level?
A. Bronchi
B. Larynx
C. Terminal bronchioles
D. Segmental bronchioles
E. Respiratory bronchioles

A

Respiratory bronchioles

93
Q

After 35 weeks of gestation, a 5-lb 5-oz girl is born to a 30-year-old gravid 2, para 2 (G2P2) woman. The infant has rapid and labored breathing, which is viewed as transient tachypnea of the newborn. The infant’s 1- and 5-min APGAR scores are 8 and 9, respectively. She has respiratory distress, with a normal pulse and no heart mur- murs. She is transported to the neonatal intensive care unit with worsening tachypnea. In this infant which of the following is likely to be involved?
A. Failure of the type I pneumocytes to form complete blood-air barriers
B. Absence of elastic fibers from the bronchiolar walls and interal- veolar septa
C. Failure of type II pneumocytes to complete differentiation and become fully functional
D. Failure of type II pneumocyte progenitors to proliferate ade- quately during gestation
E. Inadequate development of the parietal and visceral pleura

A

Failure of type II pneumocytes to complete differentiation and become fully functional

94
Q

A teenage girl presents at the ER with paroxysms of dyspnea, cough, and wheezing. Her parents indicate that she had these “attacks” dur- ing the past winter and that they have worsened and become more frequent during the spring. Which of the following cell types and their location is correctly matched to a function it may perform in this patient’s disorder?
A. Cilia in alveolar ducts, enhanced mucociliary transport
B. Plasma cells in bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT), bronchoconstriction
C. Eosinophils in BALT, bronchodilation
D. Goblet cells in bronchioles, hyposecretion
E. Mast cells in BALT, bronchoconstriction, and edema

A

Mast cells in BALT, bronchoconstriction, and edema

95
Q

A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular germ cell tumor. The tumor is surgically removed and he begins chemotherapy with cisplatin, etoposide, and bleomycin. Bleomycin chemotherapy is known to affect the lung blood-air barrier. Which of the following best describes the structural site of those effects?
A. Fused basal laminae of epithelial and endothelial cells
B. Alveolar pores of Kohn
C. Alveolar macrophages in interalveolar septa
D. Type II pneumocytes linked by junctional complexes
E. Smooth muscle cells of the pulmonary and bronchial arteries

A

Fused basal laminae of epithelial and endothelial cells

96
Q
  1. The general arrangement of fibers in the tunica adventitia layer of blood vessels is:

A. oblique

B. horizontal

C. longitudinal

D. vertical

E. circumferential

A

longitudinal

97
Q
  1. The middle layer in the general structural organization of blood vessels is:

A. external elastic lamina

B. tunica media

C. internal elastic lamina

D. tunica adventitia

E. tunica intima

A

tunica media

98
Q
  1. The vasa vasorum is usually located in this layer:

A. tunica media

B. external elastic lamina

C. internal elastic lamina

D. tunica adventitia

E. tunica intima

A

tunica adventitia

99
Q
  1. Weibel-Palade bodies are found in this class of blood vessels:
    A. conducting arteries
    B. muscular arteries
    C. arterioles
    D. capillaries
    E. none of the above
A

conducting arteries

100
Q
  1. All are muscular arteries, EXCEPT

A. brachial

B. renal

C. splenic

D. superior mesenteric

E. none of the above

101
Q
  1. Composed of the first layers of elastin in the tunica media of blood vessels:
    A. tunica intima

B. internal elastic lamina

C. external elastic lamina

D. tunica adventitia

E. none of the above

A

internal elastic lamina

102
Q
  1. The following statements about

muscular arteries are TRUE, EXCEPT:

A. The tunica intima conforms to the irregularities of the elastic layer.
B. The internal elastic lamina is undulating in contracted vessels.
C. Fenestrations are sites of diffusion of metabolites.
D. The thickest coat is the tunica media.
E. None of the above

A

None of the above

103
Q
  1. Nerve fibers usually penetrate the blood vessel wall and terminate in this layer:
    A. tunica adventitia

B. internal elastic lamina

C. tunica intima

D. external elastic lamina

E. tunica media

A

external elastic lamina

104
Q
  1. These vessels are the principal components of peripheral resistance to blood flow:
    A. muscular arteries

B. elastic arteries

C. capillaries

D. Arterioles

E. none of the above

A

Arterioles

105
Q
  1. Responds to stretch and changes in blood pressure:

A. carotid body

B. carotid sinus

C. aortic body

D. transitional artery

E. metarterioles

A

carotid sinus

106
Q
  1. Believed to have sphincter-like function and found between arterioles and capillaries:

A. hybrid transitional arteries

B. aortic bodies

C. carotid sinus

D. mixed transitional arteries

E. metarterioles

A

Metarterioles

107
Q
  1. Monitors O2, CO2 and H+ ion concentrations:

A. metarterioles

B. none of the above

C. carotid sinus

D. transitional arteries

E. carotid body

A

carotid body

108
Q
  1. Appears as a dilatation at the internal carotid artery, above the bifurcation of the common carotid:

A. carotid body

B. aortic sinus

C. carotid sinus

D. aortic body

E. none of the above

A

carotid sinus

109
Q
  1. Exhibits contractile functions:

A. all of the above

B. anchoring filaments

C. none of the above

D. valves

E. pericytes

110
Q
  1. This structure prevents blood from flowing in the opposite direction:

A. well-developed tunica media

B. valves

C. fibroblasts

D. none of the above

E. reticular fibers

111
Q
  1. Anchoring filaments are present in:

A. Veins
B. Lymphatics
C. Arteries
D. Capillaries
E. Sinusoids

A

Lymphatics

112
Q
  1. Pericytes are believed to contribute to the contractile property of:

A. Arterioles

B. Sinusoids

C. Venules

D. Lymphatic capillaries

E. Capillaries

A

Capillaries

113
Q
  1. Lymphatic valves begin to appear at the level of:

A. Large lymphatic vessels

B. Lymphatic capillaries

C. Medium to small lymphatic vessels
D. Lymphatic duct

E. Lymph node

A

Medium to small lymphatic vessels

114
Q
  1. Which segment has a wider and irregular lumen?
    A. Sinusoids

B. Capillaries

C. Medium-sized artery

D. Lymphatic capillaries

E. Arterioles

A

A. Sinusoids

115
Q
  1. In 55-60% of hearts, the sinoatrial node is supplied by this vessel:

A. Left anterior descending artery

B. Left coronary artery

C. Right coronary artery

D. Left circumflex artery

E. Right marginal artery

A

Right coronary artery

116
Q
  1. The endothelial lining forms an uninterrupted layer around the lumen:
    A. Continuous capillary
    B. Discontinuous capillary
    C. A & B
    D. Fenestrated capillary
    E. B & C
A

Continuous capillary

117
Q
  1. Typical configuration capillary vessels in endocrine organs:

A. Continuous capillary
B. Fenestrated capillary
C. Discontinuous capillary
D. A & B
E. B & C

A

Fenestrated capillary

118
Q
  1. Sinusoidal type of capillary:

A. Continuous capillary
B. Fenestrated capillary
C. Discontinuous capillary
D. A & B
E. B & C

A

Discontinuous capillary

119
Q
  1. Provided with pores
    A. Continuous capillary
    B. Fenestrated capillary
    C. Discontinuous capillary
    D. A & B
    E. B & C
A

Fenestrated capillary

120
Q
  1. The smallest vessels in this system end blindly:
    A. lymphatics
    B. capillaries
    C. none of the above
    D. sinusoidal system (liver)
    E. post-capillary venule
A

lymphatics

121
Q
  1. Maintains patency of the lymphatic vessel:
    A. pore diaphragm
    B. valves
    C. secondary pericytes
    D. primary pericytes
    E. anchoring filaments
A

anchoring filaments

122
Q
  1. The myocardium represents this layer of a blood vessel wall:

A. tunica intima
B. internal elastic lamina
C. tunica media
D. external elastic lamina
E. tunica adventitia

A

tunica media

123
Q
  1. Component of the cardiac skeleton:

a. annuli fibrosi
b. septum membranaceu
c. trigona fibrosa
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

all of the above

124
Q
  1. Thickest in the left ventricle:

A. endocardium
B. myocardium
C. epicardium
D. subendocardium
E. none of the above

A

myocardium

125
Q
  1. Thickest in the left atrium:
    A. endocardium
    B. myocardium
    C. epicardium
    D. Subendocardium
    E. none of the above
A

endocardium

126
Q
  1. Glides freely over the parietal pericardium:

A. endocardium
B. Myocardium
C. Epicardium
D. Subendocardium
E. none of the above

A

Epicardium

127
Q
  1. Made up primarily of ‘P cells’:

A. sino-atrial node

B. Purkinje fibers

C. bundle of His

D. atrio-ventricular node

E. internodal tracts

A

sino-atrial node

128
Q
  1. This component of the conducting system of the heart provides the automatic rhythmic heartbeat:
    A. all of the above

B. SA node

C. bundle of His

D. AV node

E. purkinje fibers

129
Q
  1. This intermodal pathway in the heart gives off an anterior atrial band serving the left atrium:
    A. middle (Wenckebach’s bundle)

B. posterior (Thorel’s tract)

C. left bundle branch

D. anterior internodal pathway

E. AV Node of Tawara

A

anterior internodal pathway

130
Q
  1. At any given time, the capillary bed contains this percentage amount of the entire blood in the circulatory system:
    A. 7%

B. 5%

C. 10%

D. 2%

E. 15%

131
Q
  1. Blood from the luminal side reaches and nourishes the inner layers of the vessel wall by way of the:
    A. Basal lamina

B. Fenestrations

C. Vasa vasorum

D. Subendothelium

A

Fenestrations

132
Q
  1. Located in the arch of the aorta and has structure and function identical to carotid bodies:
    A. Transitional arteries

B. Carotid sinus

C. None of the above

D. Metarterioles
E. Aortic body

A

Aortic body

133
Q
  1. With an average size of 12 x 9 x 6 cm, the heart is approximates the size of a:
    A Closed fist

B Palm

C Knee

D Cheek

E Deltoid

A

Closed fist

134
Q
  1. Divides into 2 layers to form/enclose the pericardial cavity:
    A. Fibrous pericardium
    B. Serous pericardium
    C. Endocardium
    D. Myocardium
    E. All of the above
A

Serous pericardium

135
Q

90.The tunica media of elastic arteries is composed of alternating layers of the following, EXCEPT:
A. smooth muscles
B. reticular fibers
C. collagen fibers
D. Elastin
E. None of the above

A

reticular fibers

136
Q
  1. In large vessels, blood supply is through a small vessel located in the T. adventitia layer and extends to the T. media called:
    A. Nervi vascularis
    B. Smallest artery
    C. Arteriole
    D. Vasa vasorum
    E. None of the above
A

Vasa vasorum

137
Q
  1. Most prominent feature of distributing arteries:
    A. Adipose
    B. Elastic fibers
    C. Weibel-Palade bodies
    D. Smooth muscles
    E. Internal elastic lamina
A

Smooth muscles

138
Q
  1. Principal cells of elastic fibers:
    A. Fibroblast
    B. Collagen fibers
    C. Smooth muscles
    D. Adipose cells
    E. Elastic fibers
A

Fibroblast

139
Q
  1. Actual site of exchange of metabolites and waste products, and of leukocyte migration to tissues:
    A. Sinusoids
    B. Small arteries
    C. Post-capillary venules
    D. Capillaries
    E. Metarterioles
A

Post-capillary venules

140
Q
  1. Thickest layer in medium-sized veins:
    A. Tunica intima
    B. Internal elastic lamina
    C. Tunica media
    D. External elastic lamina
    E. Tunica adventitia
A

Tunica adventitia

141
Q
  1. This supporting structure surrounds the AV, pulmonic, and aortic valves:
    A. Trigona fibrosa
    B. Septum membranaceum
    C. Purkinje fibers
    D. Annuli fibrosa
    E. Serous pericardium
A

Annuli fibrosa

142
Q
  1. This layer of the cardiac valve acts as the core of the valve:
    A. Ventricularis

B. Spongiosa

C. Auricularis

D. Arterialis

E. Fibrosa

143
Q
  1. Defined as an ultrafiltrate of plasma

A. Water

B. Lymph

C. Capillary blood

D. Plasma proteins

E. Proteoglycan

144
Q
  1. Layer/s involved in the structural organization of venous valves:

A. Tunica intima only
B. Tunica intima and media only
C. Tunica media and adventitia only
D. Tunica adventitia
E. All three tunics

A

Tunica intima only

145
Q
  1. Vasa vasorum serve a function analogous to that of which of the following?
    A. Valves
    B. Basal lamina
    C. Coronary arteries
    D. Endothelial diaphragms
    E. Arterioles
A

C. Coronary arteries

146
Q
  1. What tissue is directly associated with and extends into the heart valves?
    A. Myocardium
    B. Epicardium
    C. Atrioventricular bundle of His
    D. Cardiac skeleton
    E. Pericardium
A

D.Cardiac skeleton

147
Q
  1. Which of the following is true for ventricles?
    A. Located at the base of the heart
    B. Myocardial cells contains abundant granules
    C. Receive blood directly from the venae cavae and pulmonary veins
    D. Walls contain Purkinje fibers of the right and left branches from the atrioventricular bundle
    E. Contain more elastic fibers than the atria
A

D. Walls contain Purkinje fibers of the right and left branches from the atrioventricular bundle

148
Q
  1. Individuals with Marfan syndrome have mutations in the fibrillin gene and commonly experience aortic aneurisms. What portion of the arte- rial wall is most likely to be affected by the malformed fibrillin?
    A. Endothelium
    B. Tunica intima
    C. Tunica media
    D. Tunica adventitia
    E. Vasa vasorum
A

C.Tunica media

149
Q
  1. Which description is true of continuous capillaries?
    A. Unusually wide lumens
    B. Most common in both brain and muscle
    C. Abundant fenestrations
    D. Lack a complete basement membrane
    E. Phagocytic cells often seen inserted in the intercellular clefts
A

B. Most common in both brain and muscle

150
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of pericytes?
    A. Are associated with the basal lamina of capillary endothelial cells
    B. Have similar histological features as contractile cells of the myocardium
    C. Form a layer of cells joined by gap junctions
    D. Are terminally differentiated
    E. Capable of forming multinucleated muscle fibers
A

A. Are associated with the basal lamina of capillary endothelial cells

151
Q
  1. During light microscopic examination of a tissue, you note a vessel that has no smooth muscle but a large amount of connective tissue at its periphery. Which of the following vessels are you examining?
    A. Arteriole
    B. Venule
    C. Elastic artery
    D. Capillary
    E. Large vein
152
Q
  1. A 43-year-old woman notices a lump in her left breast which upon pathological examination of a needle biopsy is diagnosed as stage 3 adenocarcinoma of the mammary gland. She elects to have a single mastectomy and the surgeon also removes several axillary lymph nodes to be examined to determine the tumor’s state of metastasis. The patient recovers well from the surgery, but at a 6-month fol- low-up visit at the clinic her upper left arm is seen to be swollen and the surgeon prescribes a bandage wrap for “lymph edema.” This condition likely resulted from which of the following?
    A. Angiogenesis from arterial branches that brought blood to the left breast
    B. Growth of cancer cells and blockage of lymphatic drainage from the left arm
    C. Surgical disruption of the left arm’s lymphatic drainage by removal of lymph nodes
    D. Surgical damage to the thoracic duct during lymph node removal
    E. Hypertrophy of the vessels in the upper arm to accommodate blood otherwise flowing to the left breast
A

C. Surgical disruption of the left arm’s lymphatic drainage by removal of lymph nodes

153
Q
  1. A 66-year-old man diagnosed with type II diabetes 10 years earlier presents with an aching pain in the muscles of his lower extremities. He says the pain is relieved by rest and worsened by physical activity. His lower limbs appear cold, pale, discolored, and he has a sore on the skin of his left heel. He has a weak tibial pulse on both sides and poor skin filling from dermal capillaries. The problems with blood distribution in this patient’s leg are most likely associated with what vascular structures?
    A. Veins and venules
    B. Arterioles
    C. Branches of the aorta
    D. Lymphatic vessels
    E. Ventricles
A

B. Arterioles

154
Q
  1. A 62-year-old man of African descent presents with exercise- induced angina. His serum cholesterol is 277 mg/dL (normal < 200), LDL is 157 (normal < 100), HDL is 43 (normal > 35), and triglyc- erides 170 (normal < 150). His body mass index (BMI) is 34 and his coronary risk ratio is 6.84 (normal < 5). Cardiac catheterization reveals an occlusion of the left anterior descending and the origin of the right coronary artery. This disease process initially involved which one of the following?
    A. Smooth muscle cell proliferation
    B. Formation of an intimal plaque
    C. Intimal thickening through addition of collagen and elastin
    D. Adventitial proliferation of fibroblasts
    E. Injury to endothelial cells
A

E. Injury to endothelial cells

Histology (14 decks)

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