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Histology > Finals - Histology (2025) > Flashcards

Finals - Histology (2025) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A 40 y/o man has history of chronic smoking. He complaints of mucus accumulation and constant cough.Biopsy revealed that the epithelial lining of the tracheal lumen is stratified squamous epithelium. Which change describes the problem of this patient?
    A. Neoplasia
    B. Metaplasia
    C. Dysplasia
    D. Metastasis
A

Metaplasia

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2
Q
  1. Which junctional complex is important in maintaining cell adherence in all layers of the epidermis?
    A. Macula adherens
    B. Zonula adherens
    C. Gap junctions
    D. Zonula occludens
A

Macula adherens

Macula adherens = Desmosomes
Zonula adherens = Intermediate junction
Zonula occludens = Tight Junction
Gap junction = Nexus

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3
Q
  1. What is the epithelial lining of the skin?
    A. Stratified squamous keratinized
    B. Stratified squamous non-keratinized
    C. Stratified columnar
    D. Pseudostratified columnar
A

Stratified squamous keratinized

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4
Q
  1. Which layer of the epidermis continuously shed?
    A. Stratum lucidum
    B. Stratum granulosum
    C. Stratum basale
    D. Stratum corneum
A

Stratum corneum

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5
Q
  1. Which layer is not found in thin skin?
    A. Stratum basale
    B. Stratum granulosum
    C. Stratum lucidum
    D. Stratum corneum
A

Stratum lucidum

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6
Q
  1. Langerhan’s cells are found in which layer of epidermis?
    A. Stratum basale
    B. Stratum spinosum
    C. Stratum granulosum
    D. Stratum corneum
A

Stratum spinosum

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7
Q
  1. What is the protective barrier of the skin against ultraviolet radiation?
    A. Merkel cell
    B. Melanocyte
    C. Keratinocyte
    D. Langerhan cell
A

Melanocyte

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8
Q
  1. Which tissue is composed of cells that are relatively few and far apart with abundant intercellular substance containing tissue fluid and fibers?
    A. Connective tissue
    B. Epithelial tissue
    C. Muscular tissue
    D. Nervous tissue
A

Connective tissue

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9
Q
  1. Tendon and ligaments are examples of what type of tissue?
    A. Loose connective tissue
    B. Dense regular connective tissue
    C. Dense irregular connective tissue
    D. Mucous connective tissue
A

Dense regular connective tissue

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10
Q
  1. Which type of collagen is most widely distributed and abundant in the body?
    A. Type Ill
    B. Type I
    C. Type IV
    D. Type II
A

Type I

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11
Q
  1. What type of collagen is present in bones?
    A. Type Ill
    B. Type IV
    C. Type I
    D. Type Il
A

Type I

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12
Q
  1. Which argyrophilic fiber supports hematopoietic and lymphoid organs?
    A. Elastic
    B. Collagenous
    C. Hyaline
    D. Reticular
A

Reticular

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13
Q
  1. What is the stem cell precursor of most of the connective tissues?
    A. Macrophage
    B. Fibroblast
    C. Adipocyte
    D. Mesenchyme
A

Mesenchyme

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14
Q
  1. A 25 y/o medical student suffers from hypersensitivity reaction. Which cell is responsible for this condition?
    A. Fibroblast
    B. Plasma cell
    C. Mast cell
    D. Macrophage
A

Mast cell

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15
Q
  1. Which cell has a signet ring appearance?
    A. Fibroblast
    B. Macrophage
    C. Plasma cell
    D. Adipose cell
A

Adipose cell

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16
Q
  1. Plasma cells could be recognized by the arrangement of which of the following?
    A. Heterochromatic granules
    B. Cytoplasmic granules
    C. Mitochondria
    D. Nucleoli
A

Heterochromatic granules

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17
Q
  1. Which cell is not implicated in the release of histamine?
    A. Lymphocytes
    B. Basophils
    C. Eosinophils
    D. Mast cells
A

Lymphocytes

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18
Q
  1. The bone of a 75 y/o man shows a decreased of osteoblasts, but also showed an increased of osteoclast.His bones are easily fractured. Which disease describes this characteristics?
    A. Osteomalacea
    B. Osteoporosis
    C. Osteochondrosis
    D. Rickets
A

Osteomalacea

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19
Q
  1. Which substance is the main glycosaminoglycan of cartilages?
    A. Hyaluronic acid
    B. Chondroitin sulfate
    C. Dermatan sulfate
    D. Heparin sulfate
A

Chondroitin sulfate

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20
Q
  1. Hyaluronic acid is found in which of the following structures?
    A. Basal lamina
    B. Umbilical cord
    C. Cornea
    D. Cartilage
A

Umbilical cord

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21
Q
  1. Which cell secretes the ground substance in connective tissues?
    A. Macrophage
    B. Adipose cell
    C. Plasma cell
    D. Fibroblast
A

Fibroblast

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22
Q
  1. What growth of cartilage results from mitosis of pre-existing chondrocytes?
    A. Appositional
    B. Interstitial
    C. Endochondral
    D. Intramembranous
A

Endochondral

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23
Q
  1. In which zones of endochondral ossification would cells accumulate glycogen?
    A. Resting zone
    B. Zone of ossification
    C. Zone of hypertrophy
    D. Zone of proliferation
A

Zone of hypertrophy

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24
Q
  1. Which one best describes the hyaline cartilage?
    A. No perichondrium
    B. Abundant matrix
    C. Found between vertebral bodies
    D. Single chondrocytes
A

Abundant matrix

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25
Q
  1. Elastic cartilage is found in which of the following structures?
    A. Intervertebral bodies
    B. Costal cartilage
    C. Epiglottis
    D. Tracheal rings
A

Epiglottis

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26
Q
  1. Given the same extent of injury, which one will heal first?
    A. Muscles
    B. Ligaments
    C. Tendons
    D. Bones
A

Muscles

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27
Q
  1. Which one is the best characteristic of a cardiac muscle fiber?
    A. Lack of striations
    B. Spindle fiber shaped
    C. Intercalated disks
    D. Multinucleated cell
A

Intercalated disks

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28
Q
  1. Which layer of the heart has fat deposits seen in the sulci?
    A. Endocardium
    B. Epicardium
    C. Subendocardium
    D. Myocardium
A

Epicardium

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29
Q
  1. While examining a tissue in histology, a vessel is found without smooth muscle but has a large amount of connective tissue at the periphery.What vessel are you examining?
    A. Elastic artery
    B. Venule
    C. Capillary
    D. Arteriole
A

Venule

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30
Q
  1. While a examining at the slide, a vessel has a circular layer of smooth muscle. It has a lumen slightly larger than a diameter of an erythrocyte.Which vessel are you examining?
    A. Elastic artery
    B. Arteriole
    C. Capillary
    D. Venue
A

Arteriole

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31
Q
  1. What is the repetitive functional subunit of the contractile apparatus of a muscle?
    A. Myofibril
    B. Sarcomere
    C. Titin
    D. Sarcoplasm
A

Sarcomere

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32
Q
  1. Which statement is correct during the skeletal muscle contraction?
    A. Thin filaments overlap the thick filaments
    B. H band increased in width
    C. I band increased in size
    D. The sarcomere and muscle fiber increased in length
A

Thin filaments overlap the thick filaments

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33
Q
  1. Which of the junctional specializations binds cardiac cells together?
    A. Desmosomes
    B. Gap junction
    C. Zonula adherents
    D. Fascia adherents
A

Desmosomes

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34
Q
  1. All of the following statements about mechanical respiration are TRUE EXCEPT?
    A. Air is drawn from the atmosphere into the lungs by inhalation
    B. Air is returned to the atmosphere after gaseous exchange
    C. O2 from air is transferred to vascular system
    D. CO2 is transferred from air to the blood
A

CO2 is transferred from air to the blood

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35
Q
  1. The respiratory epithelium that contains mucous droplets of glycoproteins is which of the following cells?
    A. Small granule
    B. Goblet
    C. Brush
    D. Ciliated columnar
A

Goblet

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following cells has a phagocytic activity and is a derivative of blood monocytes?
    A. Type Il pneumocytes
    B. Type I pneumocytes
    C. Dust
    D. Clara
A

Dust

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37
Q
  1. Which cell is antigen-presenting to lymphocytes?
    A. Adipose cells
    B. Plasma cells
    C. Macrophage
    D. Mast cells
A

Macrophage

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38
Q
  1. All of the following are associated with mitochondrial deficiency EXCEPT?
    A. Paternal inheritance
    B. Difficulty of swallowing
    C. DNA mutations
    D. Muscular dysfunction
A

Paternal inheritance

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39
Q
  1. What organelles segregate proteins not destined for the cytosol?
    A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    B. Lysosome
    C. Ribosomes
    D. Mitochondria
A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

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40
Q
  1. Which one is the main site of protein synthesis?
    A. Ribosomes
    B. Golgi complex
    C. Secretory granules
    D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A

Ribosomes

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following clinical disorders is not associated with defects in collagen synthesis?
    A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    B. Marfans syndrome
    C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
    D. Scurvy
A

Marfans syndrome

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42
Q
  1. A 3 y/o patient was admitted due to abdominal distention. In the morning, he defecated bolus of ascaris worms?If CBC was requested, what cells will predominate?
    A. Neutrophils
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Eosinophils
    D. Plasma cells
A

Eosinophils

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43
Q
  1. A chef was slicing meat to cook, but he accidentally cut his finger. Which one releases serotonin to vasoconstrict and reduce blood flow to clot the injured area?
    A. Lymphocyte
    B. Thrombocytes
    C. Basophil
    D. Lymph
A

Thrombocytes

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44
Q
  1. A 50 y/o patient was admitted because of moderate grade fever with difficulty of breathing. He was diagnosed with pneumonia. What cells will be increased in his CBC?
    A. Eosinophils
    B. Plasma cells
    C. Neutrophils
    D. Lymphocytes
A

Neutrophils

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45
Q
  1. Which statement is true to platelets?
    A. They are not blood cells.
    B. Concentrated in connectivetissues.
    C. They are nuclear fragments.
    D. Depends body against bacterial invasion.
A

They are not blood cells.

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46
Q
  1. Which is secreted by plasma cells arising from proliferation of B lymphocytes?
    A. Cytokine
    B. Antigen
    C. Helper cells
    D. Antibody
A

Antibody

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47
Q
  1. What immunoglobulin crosses the placental barrier and is produced in large amounts during immune responses?
    A. IgE
    B. IgA
    C. IgD
    D. IgG
A

IgG

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48
Q
  1. Where is the origin of precursors of all types of lymphocyte?
    A. Bone marrow
    B. Blood
    C. Spleen
    D. Liver
A

Bone marrow

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49
Q
  1. Which type of T cells act directly against foreign cells or virus-infected cells?
    A. Regulatory cells
    B. Memory cells
    C. Helper cells
    D. Cytotoxic cells
A

Cytotoxic cells

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50
Q
  1. In a patient with AIDS, which one is killed by the infecting retrovirus?
    A. Helper T cells
    B. B lymphocytes
    C. Antigen-presenting cells
    D. Macrophages
A

Helper T cells

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51
Q
  1. All of the following organs are mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue(MALT) EXCEPT?
    A. Spleen
    B. Appendix
    C. Payer’s patch
    D. Tonsils
A

Spleen

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52
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the lymphatic system?
    A. The bone marrow is not a part of the lymphoid system.
    B. Epithelial reticular cells form whorls called Hassall’s corpuscles.
    C. Lymphatic nodules surround a vessel called central artery.
    D. Splenic cords are interconnected blood channels that drain blood.
A

Lymphatic nodules surround a vessel called central artery.

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53
Q
  1. Identify which cells carry out an immune response?
    A. Red blood cells
    B. Macrophage
    C. Plasma cells
    D. Lymphocytes
A

Lymphocytes

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54
Q
  1. Recognition and destruction of antigenically virus-infected and malignant cells are functions of which of the following cells?
    A. Suppressor T
    B. Memory T
    C. Helper T
    D. Cytotoxic T
A

Cytotoxic T

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55
Q
  1. Which cells are part of the mononuclear phagocytic system and function to phagocytose and process antigens?
    A. Natural killer
    B. Suppressor T
    C. Antigen-presenting
    D. Plasma
A

Antigen-presenting

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56
Q
  1. Which statement regarding the cell-mediated immune response is not correct?
    A. Activated lymphocytes destroy microorganisms and tumor cells.
    B. Stimulation of T cell is due to the surface of antigen-presenting cells.
    C. Antigen induces transformation of the B cells into plasma cells.
    D. Cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign cells and induce apoptosis.
A

Antigen induces transformation of the B cells into plasma cells.

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57
Q
  1. All of the following are characteristics of lymph nodes EXCEPT?
    A. Presence of high endothelial venules in its paracortical zone
    B. The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes
    C. Contains dendritic cells, which are antigen-presenting cells
    D. Associated with afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels
A

The outer cortex populated by the T lymphocytes

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58
Q
  1. The physical blood-thymus barrier is not formed by which of the following cells?
    A. Plasma
    B. Epithelial reticular
    C. Macrophages
    D. Endothelial
A

Plasma

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59
Q
  1. What organ filters blood and is the site of immune responses to blood borne antigens?
    A. Tonsil
    B. Thymus
    C. Spleen
    D. Lymph node
A

Spleen

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following does not reside in the splenic white pulp?
    A. Macrophages
    B. Antigen-presenting cells
    C. Erythrocytes
    D. T cells
A

Erythrocytes

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61
Q
  1. Identify which of the following populates the periarterial sheath of the central arteries in the white pulp?
    A. Macrophages
    B. Plasma cells
    C. lymphocytes
    D. T lymphocytes
A

T lymphocytes

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62
Q
  1. What is the protective epithelial lining that covers the palatine tonsil?
    A. Simple cuboidal epithelium
    B. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
    C. Stratified columnar epithelium
    D. Stratified squamous non-Keratinized epithelium
A

Stratified squamous non-Keratinized epithelium

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63
Q
  1. Which of the following cells surround and promote proliferation, and maturation of lymphocytes in the thymus?
    A. Dendritic
    B. Stellate reticular
    C. Epithelial reticular
    D. Macrophages
A

Epithelial reticular

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64
Q
  1. Which of the following is not found in the splenic red pulp?
    A. Venous sinusoids
    B. Cords of Billroth
    C. Reticular fiber networks
    D. Germinal center
A

Germinal center

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65
Q
  1. The peripheral white pulp and germinal center of the spleen is highly populated with which of the following cells?
    A. Macrophage
    B. T lymphocytes
    C. Plasma cells
    D. B lymphocytes
A

B lymphocytes

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66
Q
  1. In the lymph nodes, the dendritic cells are the:
    A. Reticular cells
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Nurse cells
    D. Antigen presenting cells
A

Antigen presenting cells

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67
Q
  1. What stimulate B cells to differentiate into plasma cells and to secrete antibodies?
    A. Cytokines
    B. Macrophage
    C. Langerhans cells
    D. Bone marrow
A

Cytokines

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68
Q
  1. Lymph enters the lymph node via:
    A. Afferent lymphatic vessels
    B. Bloodstream
    C. Medullary cords
    D. Efferent lymphatic vessels
A

Afferent lymphatic vessels

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69
Q
  1. Which description is true about continuous capillaries?
    A. seen in muscular and nervous tissues
    B. unusually wide lumens
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. abundant fenestrations
A

seen in muscular and nervous tissues

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70
Q
  1. During light microscopic examination, you note a vessel that has no smooth muscle but a large amount of connective tissue at its periphery.Which of the following vessels are you examining?
    A. Capillary
    B. Arteriole
    C. Venule
    D. Elastic artery
A

Venule

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71
Q
  1. What are functions of the cardiac skeleton?
    A. Anchors heart valves
    B. Provides attachments of cardiac muscles
    C. Acts as electrical insulator between atria and ventricles
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

All of the choices are correct

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72
Q
  1. The blood supply of the blood vessel is termed as:
    A. Nervi nervorum
    B. Vasa nervorum
    C. Vasa vasorum
    D. Nervi vasorum
A

Vasa vasorum

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about Purkinje fibers?
    A. It has larger diameter compared with ordinary cardiac muscle cells
    B. It has increased number of myofibrils
    C. It has less sarcoplasm with less glycogen
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

It has larger diameter compared with ordinary cardiac muscle cells

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74
Q
  1. Which feature is TRUE regarding cardiac muscle cells?
    A. Striated and voluntary
    B. Cylindrical with tapered ends
    C. Presence of intercalated discs
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

Presence of intercalated discs

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75
Q
  1. What is the arrangement of cardiac muscles in the myocardium?
    A. bundles.
    B. rows.
    C. random.
    D. layers.
A

bundles.

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76
Q
  1. The modified cardiac muscle cells that forms part of the conducting system is seen specifically in what layer?
    A. Subepicardium
    B. Endocardium
    C. Epicardium
    D. Subendocardium
A

Subendocardium

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77
Q
  1. The epicardium corresponds to what layer of the Pericardium?
    A. Visceral layer of the serous
    B. Fibrous layer
    C. Fibro-serous layer
    D. Parietal layer of the serous
A

Visceral layer of the serous

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78
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding Pericytes?
    A. Associated with the basal lamina of capillary endothelial cells
    B. Have similar histological features with the cells of the myocardium
    C. Capable of forming multinucleated muscle fibers
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

Associated with the basal lamina of capillary endothelial cells

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79
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding sinusoids?
    A. With discontinuous basal lamina
    B. It has a larger lumen
    C. With large fenestrations
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

All of the choices are correct

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80
Q
  1. Which is TRUE of medium sized arteries?
    A. Conducts blood from the heart
    B. Tunica media is provided with many elastic lamellae with some smooth muscles
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. Prominent internal elastic membrane
A

Prominent internal elastic membrane

81
Q
  1. This clinical condition is seen in elastic arteries wherein atheroma producing localized destruction with the wall that could weakening and causing arterial bulges which can eventually rupture when left untreated.
    A. Thrombus
    B. Hypertension
    C. Aneurysm
    D. Embolus
A

Aneurysm

82
Q
  1. There is obstruction of the blood supply to an organ causing irreversible necrosis of the tissue:
    A. Infarction
    B. Aneurysm
    C. Thrombus
    D. Embolus
A

Infarction

83
Q
  1. Comparing an artery from a vein, the artery has:
    A. Thicker wall than vein
    B. More rigid wall than vein
    C. Smaller lumen than vein
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

All of the choices are correct

84
Q
  1. Which of the following are functions of the Endothelium of Blood vessel?
    A. Acts as semi-permeable membrane
    B. Regulates vascular tone
    C. Acts as non-thrombogenic surface
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

All of the choices are correct

85
Q
  1. Endothelium is an example of what type of Epithelium
    A. Simple cuboidal
    B. Stratified squamous
    C. Simple squamous
    D. Simple columnar
A

Simple squamous

86
Q
  1. Subendocardium layer of the heart is an example of what type of connective tissue?
    A. Elastic
    B. Dense regular
    C. Dense irregular
    D. Loose
A

Loose

87
Q
  1. Resist and control blood flow to capillaries and the major determinant of systemic blood pressure:
    A. Muscular arteries
    B. Small arteries
    C. Arterioles
    D. Elastic arteries
A

Arterioles

88
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic feature of Large artery:
    A. It has a well developed tunica intima
    B. The tunica media contains many smooth muscle cells with less elastic material
    C. It distributes blood to organs and maintains steady blood pressure and flow
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

It has a well developed tunica intima

89
Q
  1. Anemia can be best described by a decrease in:
    A. O2 carrying capacity
    B. RBC size
    C. Serum concentration
    D. RBC number
A

O2 carrying capacity

90
Q
  1. What forms the epiphyseal growth plate?
    A. Hyaline cartilage
    B. Elastic cartilage
    C. Compact bone
    D. Fibrocartilage
A

Hyaline cartilage

91
Q
  1. Which cell in a Peripheral Blood Smear contains Alpha and Beta Granules and has an Open Canalicular System?
    A. Eosinophil
    B. Basophil
    C. Monocyte
    D. Platelet
A

Platelet

92
Q
  1. What is the earliest stage at which granulocytes can be distinguished from one another?
    A. Metamyelocyte
    B. Reticulocyte
    C. Myelocyte
    D. Band form
A

Myelocyte

93
Q
  1. Which lymphoid organ actively recycles Iron and Heme?
    A. Lymph Nodes
    B. Spleen
    C. Bone Marrow
    D. Thymus
A

Spleen

94
Q
  1. Which tonsil is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium and lacks tonsillar crypts?
    A. Palatine
    B. Pharyngeal
    C. Lingual
A

Pharyngeal

95
Q
  1. Which of the following components increase as a proportion of the respiratory tract wall from trachea to alveoli?
    A. Cilia
    B. Elastic fiber
    C. Cartilage
    D. Goblet cells
A

Elastic fiber

96
Q
  1. Which of the following features distinguishes an intrapulmonary from an extrapulmonary bronchus?
    A. Irregular cartilage plates
    B. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
    C. Glands in submucosa
    D. Smooth muscle in the wall
A

Irregular cartilage plates

97
Q
  1. Which apical modifications are present in the respiratory epithelium?
    A. Villi
    B. Flagella
    C. Stereocilia
    D. Cilia
A

Cilia

98
Q
  1. Which Statement is TRUE of pulmonary surfactant?
    A. It prevents alveolar collapse by decreasing surface tension
    B. It is secreted by Type I alveolar pneumocytes
    C. It has antimicrobial properties
    D. It forms phospholipid layer overlying a thin aqueous phase
A

It forms phospholipid layer overlying a thin aqueous phase

99
Q
  1. Which cell is found on the dermis?
    A. Keratinocyte
    B. Fibroblast
    C. Melanocyte
    D. Collagen
A

Fibroblast

100
Q
  1. Which of the following responds to pain?
    A. Ruffini’s corpuscle
    B. Free nerve endings
    C. Meissner’s corpuscle
    D. Krause’s end bulbs
A

Free nerve endings

101
Q
  1. What is the correct term of cuticle?
    A. Lunula
    B. Eponychium
    C. Root
    D. Nail bed
A

Eponychium

102
Q
  1. Which is not considered as an epidermal appendage?
    A. Nail
    B. Hypodermis
    C. Sebaceous gland
    D. Hair
A

Hypodermis

103
Q
  1. This epidermal layer is composed of numerous cell layers which appears pointy
    A. Stratum lucidum
    B. Stratum spinosum
    C. Stratum basale
    D. Stratum germinativum
A

Stratum spinosum

104
Q
  1. Which layer is on the surface of the skin?
    A. Stratum spinosum
    B. Stratum basale
    C. Stratum corneum
    D. Stratum lucidum
A

Stratum corneum

105
Q
  1. What type of glands are the glands of Moll?
    A. Endocrine gland
    B. Eccrine sweat gland
    C. Sebaceous gland
    D. Apocrine sweat gland
A

Apocrine sweat gland

106
Q
  1. Which is the receptor of fine touch?
    A. Meissner’s corpuscle
    B. Krause’s end bulbs
    C. Ruffini’s corpuscle
    D. Free nerve endings
A

Meissner’s corpuscle

107
Q
  1. This is the outermost epithelial cell layer without nuclei or organelle
    A. Stratum basale
    B. Stratum granulosum
    C. Stratum corneum
    D. Stratum lucidum
A

Stratum corneum

108
Q
  1. This epidermal cell is responsible for skin pigmentation
    A. Merkel cell
    B. Keratinocyte
    C. Melanocyte
    D. Langerhan cell
A

Melanocyte

109
Q
  1. The epidermis is lined by which type of epithelium?
    A. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
    B. Non-keratinized simple squamous epithelium
    C. Simple columnar epithelium
    D. Stratified columnar epithelium
A

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

110
Q
  1. This epidermal layer is seen only in palms and soles
    A. Stratum spinosum
    B. Stratum corneum
    C. Stratum lucidum
    D. Stratum basale
A

Stratum lucidum

111
Q
  1. The end of each medullary pyramid through which medullary ducts open into the calyx is called?
    A. Renal papilla
    B. Renal lobule
    C. Renal pelvis
    D. Medullary ray
A

Renal papilla

112
Q
  1. These cells line the interstitial spaces in the matrix between the capillaries
    A. Mesanglial cells
    B. Podocytes
    C. Fibroblasts
    D. Pericytes
A

Mesanglial cells

113
Q
  1. What is the functional unit of the kidney?
    A. Renal corpuscle
    B. Nephron
    C. Lobe
    D. Medulla
A

Nephron

114
Q
  1. What structure leads to the collecting duct?
    A. Loop of Henle
    B. Distal Convoluted tubule
    C. Bowman’s capsule
    D. Glomerulus
A

Distal Convoluted tubule

115
Q
  1. What cells are sensitive to sodium concentration?
    A. Macula densa
    B. Parietal layer of the Bowman’s capsule
    C. Visceral layer of the Bowman’s capsule
    D. Pedicels
A

Macula densa

116
Q
  1. The muscle of the urinary bladder is called?
    A. Transitional epithelium
    B. Detrusor muscle
    C. Adventitia
    D. Muscularis
A

Detrusor muscle

117
Q
  1. This functions for the passive reabsorption of electrolytes
    A. Thin limbs of the loop of Henle
    B. Proximal convoluted tubule
    C. Distal convoluted tubule
    D. Thick ascending loop of Henle
A

Thin limbs of the loop of Henle

118
Q
  1. What is the thickest layer of the ureter?
    A. Mucosa
    B. Muscularis
    C. Adventitia
    D. Lamina propria
A

Muscularis

119
Q
  1. Each kidney has approximately how many nephrons?
    A. 6-7 million
    B. 5-9 million
    C. 3-5 million
    D. 1-4 million
A

1-4 million

120
Q
  1. Its main function is to support the capillary loops
    A. Nephrons
    B. Podocytes
    C. Pericytes
    D. Mesangium
A

Mesangium

121
Q
  1. The afferent arteriole enters the Bowman’s capsule thru the?
    A. Loop of Henle
    B. Urinary pole
    C. Hilum
    D. Vascular pole
A

Vascular pole

122
Q
  1. This carries urine to the outside of the body
    A. Kidneys
    B. Bladder
    C. Urethra
    D. Ureter
A

Urethra

123
Q
  1. This allows the peristaltic movement of the urine from the pelvocalyceal system to the bladder
    A. Muscularis mucosa
    B. Lamina propia
    C. Adventia
    D. Transitional epithelium
A

Muscularis mucosa

124
Q
  1. Its main function is to support the capillary loops
    A. Mesangium
    B. Nephrons
    C. Pericytes
    D. Podocytes
A

Mesangium

125
Q
  1. Which cell type is /are involved in the secretion thyroglobulin?
    A. Oxyphil cell
    B. Follicular cell
    C. Parafollicular cells
    D. Chromaffin cells
    E. Principal cell
A

Follicular cell

126
Q
  1. Which part the adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids?
    A. Zona fasciculata
    B. Chromaffin cells
    C. Zona glomerulosa
    D. Zona reticularis
A

Zona fasciculata

127
Q
  1. Where is glucagon secreted from?
    A. Acini
    B. Delta cells
    C. Beta cells
    D. Alpha cells
    E. Gamma cells
A

Alpha cells

128
Q
  1. The adrenal cortex contains all of the following EXCEPT
    A. Zona fasciculata
    B. Zona glomerulosa
    C. Spongiocytes
    D. Chromaffin cells
    E. Zona reticularis
A

Chromaffin cells

129
Q
  1. Which is true of Oxyphil cells
    A. Secrete pepsin
    B. Secrete parathormone
    C. Have brush border
    D. Have acidophilic cytoplasm
    E. Secrete HCL
A

Have acidophilic cytoplasm

130
Q
  1. Which gland secretes epinephrine?
    A. Pancreas
    B. Adrenal gland (medulla)
    C. Adrenal gland (cortex)
    D. Pineal gland
    E. Thyroid
A

Adrenal gland (medulla)

131
Q
  1. Where are trophic hormones secreted from?
    A. Pars intermedia
    B. Adenohypophysis
    C. Pars tuberalis
    D. Neurohypophysis
    A. Infundibulum
A

Adenohypophysis

132
Q
  1. Which of the following is not part of the neurohypophysis?
    A. Pars distalis
    B. Median eminence
    C. Infundibular stalk
    D. Pars nervosa
A

Pars distalis

133
Q
  1. Which of the following cells can be classified as a basophilic?
    A. Corticotropic cells
    B. Thyrotropic cells
    C. Gonadotropic cells
    D. None of the above
    E. All of the above
A

All of the above

134
Q
  1. Which gland secretes cortisol?
    A. Thyroid
    B. Pancreas
    C. Pineal gland
    D. Adrenal gland (cortex)
    E. Adrenal gland (medulla)
A

Adrenal gland (cortex)

135
Q
  1. Which cell type is found in the adrenal medulla?
    A. Follicular
    B. Oxyphil
    C. Parafollicular cells
    D. Chromaffin
A

Chromaffin

136
Q
  1. The adenohypophysis develops from what embryonic structure?
    A. Endoderm
    B. Diencephalon
    C. Hypothalamus
    D. Third Ventricle
    E. Not in list
A

Not in list

Ectoderm (rathke’s pouch )

137
Q
  1. During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, what significant changes may be seen in the endometrium?
    A. Blood vessels become ischemic.
    B. Epithelium is sloughed off
    C. Tubular glands increase
    D. Epithelium is renewed.
    E. Glands become coiled.
A

Epithelium is renewed.

138
Q
  1. Which is not a feature of the basal zone of the endometrium
    A. reserve part of the endometrium
    B. undergoes cyclic changes
    C. sheds at the menstrual phase
    D. All in list
    E. None in list
A

C. sheds at the menstrual phase

139
Q
  1. The functional layer of the endometrium is composed of:
    A. simple squamous epithelium
    B. simple columnar epithelium
    C. simple ciliated columnar epithelium
    D. stratified squamous epithelium
    E. simple cuboidal epithelium
A

simple ciliated columnar epithelium

140
Q
  1. During Oogenesis, which developing oocyte stage coincides with ovulation
    A. Primary Oocyte
    B. Secondary Oocyte
    C. Tertiary Oocyte
    D. Not in list
A

Secondary Oocyte

141
Q
  1. One of the following is characteristic of the secretory phase of the endometrium:
    A. Constriction of spiral vessels
    B. Glands become tortuous.
    C. Endometrium is about 2 mm thick
    D. Estrogen hormone predominates
    E. Spiral arteries disintegrate
A

Glands become tortuous.

142
Q
  1. What organ in the Female Reproductive System is characterized as muscular devoid of glands?
    A. Clitoris
    B. Cervix
    C. Vagina
    D. Vulva
    E. Fallopian tubes
A

Vagina

143
Q
  1. Ovarian stroma is composed of what type of tissue
    A. Mesenchymal tissue
    B. Dense connective tissue
    C. Fatty tissue
    D. Loose connective tissue
    E. Fibrous tissue
A

Loose connective tissue

144
Q
  1. During early development of the ova, what type of cells migrate from the yolk sac to become oogonia?
    A. Secondary polar body
    B. First polar body
    C. Primordial cells
    D. Secondary oocyte
    E. Primary oocyte
A

Primordial cells

145
Q
  1. By the time the female embryo reaches 3 months, mitoses arrests. At what phase does the arrest take place?
    A. Anaphase
    B. Metaphase
    C. Prophase
    D. Telophase
A

Prophase

146
Q
  1. What hormone producing ovarian structure supports the implanted fertilized ovum in the absence of a placenta?
    A. Corpus luteum
    B. Graafian follicle
    C. Secondary follicle
    D. Atretic follicle
    E. Cumulus oophorus
A

Corpus luteum

147
Q
  1. The fallopian tube is lined by which type of epithelium
    A. Simple columnar ciliated
    B. Transitional ciliated
    C. Stratified columnar ciliated
    D. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated
    E. Stratified squamous ciliated
A

Simple columnar ciliated

148
Q
  1. During the late stages of pregnancy, the increase in size of the breast is mainly attributed to:
    A. proliferation of the intralobular connective tissue.
    B. branching of the ducts
    C. accumulation of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the intercellular space
    D. increase in the number of adipocytes
    E. hypertrophy of secretory cells and accumulation of secretory product
A

hypertrophy of secretory cells and accumulation of secretory product

149
Q
  1. This structural organization of the liver has the branches of the hepatic artery at the periphery:
    A. Classical lobule
    B. Portal lobule
    C. Hepatic acini
    D. Centroacinar
    E. All of the above
A

Classical lobule

150
Q
  1. Which is the zone found at the center of the hepatic acinus?
    A. Zone of permanent function
    B. Zone of varying activity
    C. Zone of permanent repose
    D. Zonula adherens
    E. None of the above
A

Zone of permanent repose

151
Q
  1. Drainage system of the liver:
    A. Hepatic vein
    B. Sinusoids
    C. Hepatic artery
    D. Portal vein
    E. Bile canaliculi
A

Hepatic vein

152
Q
  1. This is the most abundant cell in the liver:
    A. Kupffer cell
    B. Pit cell
    C. Hepatocyte
    D. Fat-storing cell
    E. Endothelial cell
A

Hepatocyte

153
Q
  1. These cells possess short pseudopods and are non-phagocytic:
    A. Endothelial cell
    B. Interstitial cell
    C. Kupffer cell
    D. Pit cell
    E. Fat-storing cell
A

Pit cell

154
Q
  1. Terminal most branch of the biliary tree:
    A. bile ductules
    B. bile cannaliculi
    C. cholangioles
    D. portal canal
    E. bile ducts
A

bile cannaliculi

155
Q
  1. Lining epithelium of gallbladder:
    A. stratified cuboidal
    B. stratified squamous
    C. pseudostratified columnar
    D. simple tall columnar
    E. simple cuboidal
A

simple tall columnar

156
Q
  1. Tubuloalveolar glands are present at which segment of the gallbladder?
    A. all of the above
    B. cystic duct
    C. Body
    D. Neck
    E. Fundus
A

Neck

157
Q
  1. This is the functional unit of the exocrine pancreas:
    A. Beta cells
    B. Alpha cells
    C. Acinar tissue
    D. Delta cells
    E. Centroacinar cell
A

Acinar tissue

158
Q
  1. Cells making up the endocrine part of the pancreas:
    A. acinar cells
    B. centroacinar cells
    C. islet of Langerhans
    D. zymogen granules
    E. none of the above
A

islet of Langerhans

159
Q
  1. This pancreatic cell secretes the hormone insulin:
    A. Alpha cells
    B. Delta cells
    C. G cells
    D. PP cells
    E. Beta cells
A

Beta cells

160
Q
  1. Serous cells displaced to the terminal portion of the gland:
    A. none of the above
    B. goblet cells
    C. basal myoepithelial cells
    D. demilunes of Giannuzzi
    E. saliva
A

demilunes of Giannuzzi

161
Q
  1. Opens at the tip of the sublingual papilla, adjacent to the lingual frenulum:
    A. duct of Wirsung
    B. duct of Santorini
    C. Wharton’s duct
    D. duct of Soledad
    E. Stensen’s duct
A

Wharton’s duct

162
Q
  1. This vascular middle layer is also involved in accommodation and production of aqueous humor:
    A. Sclera
    B. Uvea
    C. Cornea
    D. Retina
    E. Pupil
A

Uvea

163
Q
  1. Which of the following is not part of the corneal layers?
    A. Bowman’s membrane
    B. Decemet’s membrane
    C. Substantia propria
    D. Capsule of Tenon
    E. Epithelium
A

Capsule of Tenon

164
Q
  1. This structure drains the aqueous humor in the anterior chamber:
    A. Suprachoroidal lamina
    B. Internal scleral sulcus
    C. Limbus
    D. Canal of Schlemm
    E. Ciliary body
A

Canal of Schlemm

165
Q
  1. Which ciliary body muscle is the primary TENSOR of the lens?
    A. Muscle of Muller
    B. Reticular muscle
    C. Muscle of Brucke
    D. Circular muscle
    E. Radial muscle
A

Muscle of Brucke

Tensor muscle (of brücke): accomodation
Circular muscle (of müller): near vision
Reticular/radial: fan-like

166
Q
  1. This layer contains the cell bodies (perikaryon) of the photoreceptor cells:
    A. Layer of optic nerve fibers
    B. Inner nuclear membrane
    C. Photoreceptor layer
    D. Inner plexiform layer
    E. Outer nuclear membrane
A

Outer nuclear membrane

167
Q
  1. Innermost layer of the retina:
    A. Pigment epithelium
    B. Optic nerve fiber layer
    C. Inner limiting membrane
    D. Inner plexiform layer
    E. Ganglion cell layer
A

Inner limiting membrane

168
Q
  1. Represents the roof of the cochlear duct
    A. Basilar membrane
    B. Vestibular membrane
    C. Scala media
    D. Tectorial membrane
    E. Stria vascularis
A

Vestibular membrane

Reissner’s Membrane

169
Q
  1. The scala tympani and scala vestibuli are joined together by a small opening at the cochlear apex called:
    A. Tectorial membrane
    B. Helicotrema
    C. External spiral sulcus
    D. Spiral lamina
    E. Stria vascularis
A

Helicotrema

170
Q
  1. Containing 95% of the total afferent fibers of the cochlea, these cells are regarded as the actual sensory receptors for hearing:
    A. Outer hair cells
    B. Inner hair cells
    C. Cells of Claudius
    D. Inner phalangeal cells
    E. Outer phalangeal cells
A

Inner hair cells

171
Q
  1. These are a group of specialized cells which serve as a receptor for auditory stimuli:
    A. Otolithic membrane
    B. Macula sacculi
    C. Macula utriculi
    D. Crista ampullaris
    E. Organ of Corti
A

Organ of Corti

172
Q
  1. Involved in the physiology of hearing:
    A. Vestibule
    B. Utricle
    C. Cochlea
    D. Crista ampullaris
    E. Saccule
A

Cochlea

173
Q
  1. These cells mark the outer boundary of the organ of Corti:
    A. Interdental cells
    B. Cells of Deiters
    C. Cells of Boettcher
    D. Cells of Claudius
    E. Cells of Hensen
A

Cells of Deiters

174
Q
  1. Which one is specific for duodenum?
    A. Lacteals
    B. Intestinal gland
    C. Brunner’s gland
    D. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
A

Brunner’s gland

175
Q
  1. What do you call the neuroendocrine cells found at the lamina propia of the GIT?
    A. Kulchitsky cells
    B. Paneth cells
    C. Argentaffin cells
    D. Goblet cells
A

Argentaffin cells

176
Q
  1. Gastrin is produced in which of the following?
    A. Body
    B. Antrum
    C. Fundus
    D. Pylorus
A

Antrum

177
Q
  1. Which cell types is most prevalent within the gastric pit of the stomach?
    A. Parietal cells
    B. Mucus secreting cells
    C. Paneth cells
    D. Columnar absorptive cells
A

Mucus secreting cells

178
Q
  1. Hyperacidity of the stomach is due to hypersecretion of which cell?
    A. Columnar cell
    B. Mucous neck cell
    C. Zymogenic cell
    D. Parietal cell
A

Parietal cells

179
Q
  1. Which of these cells will manifest Pernicious anemia if destroyed?
    A. Absorptive cells
    B. Goblet cells
    C. Paneth cells
    D. Parietal cells
A

Parietal cells

180
Q
  1. In the GIT, the cells that secrete antibacterial enzymes are found in which of the following?
    A. Intestinal villi
    B. Lamina propria
    C. Payer’s patch
    D. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
A

Crypts of Lieberkuhn

181
Q
  1. Plica circularis is a feature of which of the following?
    A. Large intestine
    B. Stomach
    C. Small intestine
    D. Esophagus
A

Small intestine

182
Q
  1. Which of the following would result to a reduced number of Paneth cells?
    A. Decreased mucus secretion
    B. Increased intestinal bacteria
    C. Reduced sugar breakdown
    D. Increased intestinal fats
A

Increased intestinal bacteria

183
Q
  1. Which one penetrates the core of intestinal villus with microvasculature and lymphatics?
    A. Smooth muscle
    B. Epithelium
    C. Intestinal glands
    D. Lacteals
A

Lacteals

184
Q
  1. Which one is the primary function of lacteals?
    A. Absorption of chylomicron
    B. Absorption of salts
    C. Absorption of water
    D. Absorption of amino acid
A

Absorption of chylomicron

185
Q
  1. Villi are longest in which part of the GIT?
    A. Jejunum
    B. Stomach
    C. Duodenum
    D. Ileum
A

Duodenum

186
Q
  1. The fibers of the outer longitudinal layer that congregate in thick longitudinal bands of the large intestine is which of the following?
    A. Teniae coli
    B. Haustration
    C. Columns of Morgagni
    D. Appendices epiploicae
A

Teniae coli

187
Q
  1. Which of the following zones of the prostate gland has the smallest volume?
    A. Transition
    B. Peripheral
    C. Central
    D. Submucosal
A

Transition

188
Q
  1. A 21-year-old male came to the clinic complaining of pain in the scrotal area and burning sensation on urination.
    Tests done revealed a sexually transmitted infection which causes inflammation of the testes and the channel connecting it to the epididymis. What is this channel?
    A. Rete testis
    B. Straight tubule
    C. Efferent Ductules
    D. Ductus Deferens
A

Efferent Ductules

189
Q
  1. It is the site of spermatogenesis.
    A. Seminiferous tubule
    B. Ductus deferens
    C. Epididymis
    D. Seminal vesicle
A

Seminiferous tubule

190
Q
  1. It is the layer of the testis that is composed of dense irregular connective tissue and functionally divides the testis into lobules.
    A. Buck’s fascia
    B. Tunica albuginea
    C. Scarpa’s fascia
    D. Tunica vaginalis
A

Tunica albuginea

191
Q
  1. This muscle is found in the subcutaneous layer of the scrotum and wrinkles the scrotal skin to regulate temperature.
    A. Cremaster
    B. Puborectalis
    C. Dartos
    D. Pubococcygeus
A

Dartos

192
Q
  1. Which accessory sex gland contributes the majority of the seminal fluid?
    A. Prostate
    B. Seminal vesicle
    C. Spongy urethra
    D. Bulbourethral
A

Seminal vesicle

193
Q
  1. Which lobe of the prostate has the majority of gland volume and the most prone to malignancy?
    A. Median
    B. Lateral
    C. Anterior
    D. Posterior
A

Posterior

194
Q
  1. the penis, the urethra is embedded in which of the following structures?
    A. Crus of the penis
    B. Corpora cavernosum
    C. In Bulb of the penis
    D. Corpora spongiosum
A

Corpora spongiosum

195
Q
  1. Which cell forms part of the blood-testis barrier performing protective and nutritive functions for the developing sperm cells?
    A. Leydig
    B. Sertoli
    C. Spermatogonium
    D. Principal cells
A

Sertoli

196
Q
  1. In which segment of the genital duct the sperm undergo maturation and develop increased motility and fertilizing capacity?
    A. Ductus deferens
    B. Rete testis
    C. Efferent tubules
    D. Ductus epididymis
A

Ductus epididymis

197
Q
  1. The seminal vesicles secrete an alkaline, viscous fluid into the semen rich in which of the following?
    A. Lipids
    B. Acid phosphatase
    C. Fructose
    D. Protein
A

Fructose

198
Q
  1. Calcified and concentric lamellated bodies, corpora amylacea are seen in the alveoli of which gland?
    A. Cowper’s gland
    B. Seminal vesicle
    C. Prostate gland
    D. Genital ducts
A

Prostate gland

Histology (14 decks)

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