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ANAPHY > HEMATOPOIESIS > Flashcards

HEMATOPOIESIS Flashcards

1
Q

is the continuous, regulated process of renewal, proliferation, differentiation and maturation of all blood cell lines.

A

Hematopoiesis

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2
Q

this process result in the formation and specialization of all functional blood cells which are released from the bone marrow into the circulation

A

Hematopoiesis

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3
Q

mature blood lives has a limited life span , the cell population must be capable of ________ that will sustain the system

A

self-renewal

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4
Q

what are the phases or sites of hematopoiesis?

A

Mesablastic, hepatic and myeloid

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5
Q

hematopoiesis is considered to begin around the ___________ of embryonic development after fertilization

A

nineteenth day

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6
Q

early in embryonic development, cells from the __________ migrate to the ________.

A

mesoderm, yolk sac

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7
Q

these primitive but _______________ are important in early _________ to produce _________.

A

transient yolk sac erythroblasts, embryogenesis, hemoglobin

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8
Q

____________ differs from hematopoiesis that occurs later in the fetus and adult in that it occurs ________ (or within developing blood vessels)

A

Yolk sac hematopoiesis, intravascularly

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9
Q

what are the three types of hemoglobin?

A

Gower-1, Gower-2 and portland

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10
Q

they are needed for delivery of oxygen to rapidly developing embryonic tissues?

A

Hemoglobin (Gower-1, gower -2 and portland)

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11
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“it begins around the nineteenth day of embryonic development”

A

mesoblastic phase

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12
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“ Early in embryonic development, cells from the mesoderm migrate to the yolk sac.”

A

Mesoblastic phase

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13
Q

it also known as within developing blood vessels

A

Intravascularly

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14
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“begins at 5-7 gestational weeks and is characterized by recognizable clusters of developing erythroblasts, granulocytes and monocytes colonizing the fetal liver, thymus, spleen, placenta, and ultimately the bone marrow space in the final medullary phase.”

A

Hepatic phase

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15
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“Hematopoiesis during this phase occurs extravascularly, with the liver remaining the major site of hematopoiesis during the second trimester of fetal life.”

A

Hepatic phase

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16
Q

the hepatic phase begins in _____________ (weeks )and is characterized by recognizable clusters of developing erythroblasts, granulocytes and monocytes colonizing the fetal liver, thymus, spleen, placenta, and ultimately the bone marrow space in the final medullary phase.”

A

5 -7 gestational weeks

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17
Q

in the hepatic phase, hematopoiesis occurs __________, with the liver remaining the major site of hematopoiesis during the __________ of fetal life.

A

extravascularly, second trimester

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18
Q

in the hepatic phase the _______, first fully developed organ in the fetus becomes the major site of T cell production whereas the _________ (organ) produce B cells.

A

Thymus, kidney and spleen

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19
Q

what phase of hematopoiesis does the description fit into?
“the thymus, the first fully developed organ in the fetus, becomes the major site of T cell production, whereas the kidney and spleen produce B cells.”

A

Hepatic phase

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20
Q

the ______________ signals the beginning of a definitive hematopoiesis with a decline in the primitive hematopoiesis in the yolk sac. In addition the ________ now begin to appear

A

developing erythroblasts, lymphoid cells

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21
Q

what organ produces T cells in the fetus stage?

A

Thymus

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22
Q

What organ produces B cells

A

kidney and spleen

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23
Q

what phase begins between the fourth and fifth month of fetal development?

A

Medullary phase or myeloid phase

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24
Q

in what phase does the description fit? “the hematopoietic activity of this stage is apparent of development and the myeloid-to-erythroid ratio gradually approaches 3:1 to 4:1 (normal adult levels)”

A

medullary phase (myeloid phase)

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25
Q

“by the end of 24 weeks’ gestation, the bone marrow becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis” what phase does the description fit?

A

Medullary (myeloid) phase

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26
Q

in what month does the medullary (myeloid) phase begin during fetal development?

A

fourth and fifth month

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27
Q

hematopoietic activity, especially ___________, is apparent during this stage of development and the ____________ ratio gradually approaches 3:1 to ________ (normal adult levels)

A

myeloid activity, myeloid-erythroid ratio, 4:1

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28
Q

myeloid-to-erythroid ratio of normal adult levels

A

4:1 ratio

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29
Q

in what week of gestation does the bone marrow become the primary site of hematopoiesis?

A

24 weeks’ gestation

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30
Q

what happens during the 24 weeks’ gestation period?

A

the bone marrow becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis

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31
Q

in adults, where does the hematopoietic tissue located?

A

bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, liver and thymus.

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32
Q

what does the bone marrow contain?

A

Developing erythroid, myeloid, megakaryocytic and lymphoid cells

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33
Q

where does the lymphoid development occur?

A

in the primary and secondary lymphoid tissue

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34
Q

the primary lymphoid tissue consists of the?

A

bone marrow, thymus and is where the t and b lymphocytes are derived

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35
Q

the secondary lymphoid tissue where lymphoid cells responds to foreign antigens consists of the?

A

spleen, lymph nodes and mucosa associated lymphoid tissues

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36
Q

a theory where it describes the origin of the hematopoietic progenitor cells

A

Stem cell theory

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37
Q

a theory where it suggests that all blood cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cell called pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell

A

monophyletic theory

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38
Q

the two theories of the stem cell theory?

A

Monophyletic theory
polyphyletic theory

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39
Q

a theory where it suggests that each of the blood cell lineages is derived from its own unique stem cell. it is also noted as the most widely accepted theory among experimental hematologists.

A

polyphyletic theory

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40
Q

what does the monophyletic theory suggests?

A

a theory where it suggests that all blood cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cell called pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell

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41
Q

what does the polyphyletic theory suggests?

A

a theory where it suggests that each of the blood cell lineages is derived from its own unique stem cell. it is also noted as the most widely accepted theory among experimental hematologists.

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42
Q

in the monophyletic theory, what do you call the single progenitor stem cell that suggest the derivation of the all blood cells?

A

pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell

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43
Q

(of an immature or stem cell) capable of giving rise to several different cell types.

A

pluripotent

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44
Q

what are the two major types of morphologically unrecognizable progenitor cells?

A

uncommitted and committed hematopoietic stem cells

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45
Q

it occurs in the bone marrow and is a complex, regulated process for maintaining adequate number of erythrocytes in the peripheral blood.

A

Erythropoiesis

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46
Q

what are the two erythroid progenitors?

A

Burst forming unit - erythroid (BFU-E)
Colony forming Unit - erythroid (CFU-E)

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47
Q

it is the earliest morphologically recognizable erythrocyte precursor in the bone marrow?

A

pronormoblast

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48
Q

meaning of CFU-GEMM?

A

Colony Forming Unit Granulocyte, Erythrocyte, Monocyte and Megakaryocyte

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49
Q

the CFU-GEMM gives raise to the earliest colony of RBCs called the _________.

A

Burst forming unity - Erythroid (BFU-E)

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50
Q

BFU-Es under the influence of interleukin GMCSF, PPO and Kitlygan will develop into?

A

Colony Forming Unit - Erythroid

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51
Q

serves as a differentiation factor for the CFU-Es and BFU-Es?

A

Erythropoiesis

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52
Q

they are named for their ability to form colonies on semi solid medium in culture experiments that enable the study of their characteristics and development.

A

Erythroid progenitors (BFU-E and CFU-E)

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53
Q

they are the earliest committed progenitor gives rise to the large colonies as they are capable multi subunits called burst

A

Burst forming unit - Erythroid (BFU-E)

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54
Q

what do you call the multi-subunits of a BFU-E?

A

burst

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55
Q

it gives rise to smaller colonies?

A

Colony forming unit - Erythroid

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56
Q

How many estimated days does the BFU-E to mature to become CFU-E and the CFU-E to become a pronormoblast?

A

1 week

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57
Q

it is derived from the BFU-E and CFU-E from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells.

A

Pronormoblast

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58
Q

is similar to the other proliferation of the other cell lines. It is the process of encompassing replication, for example division, that increases cell numbers and development from immature to mature cell stages.

A

Normal blast proliferation

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59
Q

the pronormoblast can be divided to _______ and then it will be divided to the next stage ______.

A

basophilic, polychromatic normal blasts

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60
Q

What are the criteria used in identification of Erythroid Precursors?

A

diameter of the cell decreases
diameter of the nucleus decreases more rapidly than the diameter of the cell
nuclear chromatin pattern becomes coarser, clumped and condensed developing a rasp berry appearance
The nucleus becomes quite condense with no parachromatin evident at all
The nucleus is also said to be pyknotic
nucleoli disappears
cytoplasm changes from gray-blue to salmon pink

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61
Q

major function of the red blood cell?

A

carry oxygen from the lungs to the tissues
acid base buffer

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62
Q

Appearance and characteristic of the RBC

A

biconcava in shape and distensible

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63
Q

is the first microscopically recognizable precursor cell in erythropoiesis
it is aka Proerythroblast

A

pronormobalst

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64
Q

after mitosis the pronormoblast forms ?

A

two basophilic normoblast

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65
Q

is present only in the bone marrow in healthy states

A

pronormoblast

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66
Q

in the pronormoblast the nucleus to cytoplasm ratio is ?

A

8:1

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67
Q

describe the nucleus of the pronormoblast?

A

the nucleus is round to oval, containing one or two nucleoli. Has a purple red chromatin which is open and contains few, if any, fine clumps

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68
Q

describe the nucleus of the basophilic normoblast

A

the chromatin begins to condense, revealing clumps along the periphery of the nuclear membrane and a few in the interior

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68
Q

describe the nucleus of the basophilic normoblast

A

the chromatin begins to condense, revealing clumps along the periphery of the nuclear membrane and a few in the interior

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69
Q

describe the appearance of the cytoplasm of the pronormoblast

A

basophilic

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70
Q

describe the appearance of a basophilic normoblast?

A

deeply basophilic. Cytoplasm is dark blue because of the concentration of ribosomes and RNA

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71
Q

Ratio of NC of the Basophilic Normoblast

A

Moderate 6:1

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72
Q

when the basophilic normoblast undergoes mitosis it gives rise to _____________.

A

two daughter cells

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73
Q

what is detectable in the basophilic normoblast?

A

hemoglobin synthesis

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74
Q

the basophilic normoblast is present only in the _________________ during healthy states

A

bone marrow

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75
Q

describe the nucleus of the polychromatic normoblast?

A

the condensation of chromatin reduces the diameter of the nucleus considerably

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76
Q

describe the appearance of the polychromatic normoblast’s cytoplasm

A

first stage in which the pink color can be seen as it is associated with the stained hemoglobin

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77
Q

NC ratio of polychromatic normoblast

A

Moderate

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78
Q

the last stage of polychromatic normoblast contains and is capable of ?

A

contains nucleus and is capable of mitosis

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79
Q

what is the orthromatic normoblast known as?

A

Metarubicyte

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80
Q

describe the appearance of the nucleus’ metarubicyte?

A

the nuclues is completely condensed or pyknotic

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81
Q

describe the cytoplasm of the orthrochromatic normoblast?

A

pink gray (more pinkish) associated with nearly complete hemoglobin

82
Q

what is the NC ratio of the othrochromatic normoblast ?

A

Low

83
Q

it no longer is capable of division?

A

Orthochromatic normblast

84
Q

what is the polychromatic erythrocyte is known as?

A

Reticulocyte

85
Q

what is the polychromatic erythrocyte first precursor appearance?

A

anucleated

86
Q

this erythropoiesis phase is where RNA synthesis stops while heme synthesis continues

A

Polychromatic erythrocyte

87
Q

what does the polychromatic erythrocyte loses?

A

it loses its RNA and mitochondria

88
Q

describe the appearance of the nucleus of the polychromatic erythrocyte

A

none

89
Q

describe the cytoplasm of the reticulocyte?

A

pink gray or salmon pink. This stage is where the cell is the same color with the mature cell

90
Q

where does the polychromatic erythrocyte reside? and how many days and where does it move?

A

resides in the bone marrow for about 1-2 days and moves into peripheral blood for about 1 day

91
Q

what is the lifespan of the erythrocyte?

A

120 days

92
Q

what is final phase of the erythropoiesis?

A

erythrocytes

93
Q

it has no nucleus,mitochondira and endoplasmic reticulum

A

erythrocytes

94
Q

describe the appearance of an erythrocyte

A

biconcave disc measuring in 7 - 8 “m in diameter with a thickness of 1.5 to 2.5 “m

95
Q

describe the appearance of an erythrocyte when it is on a wright-stained blood film.

A

salmon pink stained cell with a central pale area that responds to the concavity of the cell. The central pallor is about one-third the diameter of the cell

96
Q

what does the erythrocyte contain?

A

contains cytoplasmic enzymes capable of metabolizing glucose

97
Q

it is the term describing the dynamics of the RBC production and destruction

A

erythrokinetics

98
Q

it is the primary oxygen-sensing system of the body that is located in the peritubular fibroblasts.

A

kidney

99
Q

it is the too little tissue oxygen which is detected by the peritubular fibroblasts.

A

hypoxia

100
Q

it is the major stimulatory cytokine for RBC

A

erythropoietin

101
Q

it directly stimulates erythropoiesis, which partially explains the higher hemoglobin concentration in men than in women.

A

testosterone

102
Q

is a thermostable, nondialyzable, glycoprotein hormone with a molecular weight of 34 kD

A

Erythropoietin

103
Q

is a true hormone, being produced at one location _________ and acting at a distant location __________.

A

kidney and bone marrow

104
Q

initiates an intracellular message to the developing erythroid cells; this process is called __________

A

signal transduction

105
Q

what are the three effects of the Erythropoietin?

A

early release of reticulocytes
preventing apoptotic
reducing the time

106
Q

how many days in total if erythropoietin (reduction of time) is being activated in the blood ?

A

4 days in total

107
Q

is the process of generating white blood cells from the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells of the bone marrow.

A

Leukopoiesis

108
Q

what are the two generate various types of leukocytes?

A

myelopoieisis and lymphopoiesis

109
Q

it is where leukocytes in the blood are derived from MYLOID STEM CELLS

A

myelopoiesis

110
Q

it is where lymphatic system (lymphocytes) are generated from lymphoid stem cells

A

lymphopoiesis

111
Q

what are the factors that promote differentiation of the CFU-GEMM into neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils and basophils?

A

GM-CSF (Granulocyte macrophage colony-stimulating factor), G-CSF , macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF), IL-3, IL-5 IL-11 and KIT ligand.

112
Q

stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of the neutrophil and the macrophage colonies from the colony forming unit granulocyte and monocyte

A

GM-CSF

113
Q

stimulates neutrophil differentiation and monocyte differentiation from the colony forming granulocyte or CFU-M

A

G-CSF and M-CSF (Macrohage colony-stimulating factory)

114
Q

a multilineage stimulating factor, stimulates the growth of granulocytes, monocytes, megakaryocytes and reituring cells (?)

A

IL-3 (interleukin = IL)

115
Q

what does the eosinophil require for differentiation?

A

GM-CSF, IL-3 and IL-5

116
Q

the basophil differentiation requires?

A

IL-3 and KIT Ligand

117
Q

growth factors that promote lymphoid differentiation requires?

A

IL -2, IL-7, IL -12, IL-15

118
Q

occurs in the bone marrow where it shares a common progenitor with monocytes and distinct from eosinophils and basophils, known as the granulocytemonocyte progenitor

A

Neutrophil development

119
Q

it is the major cytokine responsible for the stimulation of neutrophil production

A

granulocyte colony-stimulating factor

120
Q

what are the three stem pools of developing neutrophils in the bone marrow

A

stem cell, proliferation, maturation

121
Q

one of the three pools of the developing neutrophils in the bone marrow where it consists of HSCs that are capable of self-renewal and differentiation

A

stem cell pool

122
Q

one of the three pools of the developing neutrophils in the bone marrow where it consists of cells that dividing and includes common myeloid progenitors (CMPs), CFUGEMMs, and granulocyte-monocyte progenitors

A

proliferation pool

123
Q

one of the three pools of neutrophil development where consisting cells are undergoing nuclear maturation that form the marrow researve and are available for release: metamyelocytes, band neutrophils and segmented neutrophil.

A

maturation pool

124
Q

it makes up to 0 to% to 3% of nucleated cells in the bone marrow and measure 14 to 20” m in diameter.

A

myeloblast

125
Q

what makes up the percentage of the myeloblast of the nucleated cells in the bone marrow and what is its measurement in diameter?

A

0%- 3%, 14-20”m diameter

126
Q

it is the first recognizable cell that begin the process of granulpoiesis or leukopoeisis

A

myeloblast

127
Q

it is the earliest microscopically recognizable neutrophil precursor cell in the bone marrow

A

myeloblast

128
Q

describe the myeloblast’s nucleus?

A

large euchromatic spherical nucleus with three to five nucleoli

129
Q

what is the volume of the myeloblast of nucleus to cytoplasmic?

A

Large

130
Q

describe the staining characteristic of a myeloblast

A

the small amount of agranular cytoplasm stains intensely basophilic

131
Q

the promyelocyte comprises _____________ of the nucleated cells in the bone marrow. it is relatively larger than the myeloblast cells and measure ______ in diameter. The nucleus is ______ and is often eccentric.

A

1-5% , 16-25”m in diameter. round to oval

132
Q

what does the promyelocyte only produce?

A

azurophilic granules

133
Q

what are the primary granules of the promyelocyte in the cytoplasm?

A

azurophilic granules

134
Q

they are the first to exhibit specific granules

A

myelocytes

135
Q

they are the last stage capable of mitosis in the leukopoiesis

A

myelocytes

136
Q

the recognition of the myelocytes can be possible in the lines of? (3 types)

A

neutrophil, eosinophil and basophil

137
Q

they are patches of grainy pale pink cytoplasm representing secondary granules begin to be evident in the area of the golgi apparatus.

A

neutrophil

138
Q

what does the neutrophil been referred to as?

A

reffered to as the dawn of neutrophilia

139
Q

is characterized by the presence of large pale, reddish orange secondary granules, along with azure granules in blue cytoplasm

A

eosinophil

140
Q

the nucleas of the eosinophil is similar to the ________.

A

neutrophil myelocytes

141
Q

it constitutes to 3% to 20% of nucleated marrow cells

A

metamyelocytes

142
Q

this stage the cells are no longer capable of division and the major morphologic change is in shape of the nucleus

A

metamyelocyte

143
Q

what is the shape of the nucleus of a meatmyelocyte and what is the appearance of its chromatin and nucleoli

A

indented (kidney bean shape) chromatin is clumped and nucleoli are absent

144
Q

what synthesis may begin during the stage of the metamyelocyte?

A

synthesis of tertiary granules (aka gelatinase granules)

145
Q

what is the size of the metamyelocyte?

A

14-16”m

146
Q

what does the metamyelocyte’s cytoplasm contain and what is the appearance of its basophilia?

A

very little residual of RNA and therefore little or no basophilia

147
Q

it makes up 9% to 32% of nucleated marrow cells and 0% to 5% of the nucleated peripheral blood cells

A

band (stab) cells

148
Q

all evidence of RNA (cytoplasmic basophilia) is absent and tertiary granules continue to be formed during this stage

A

band (stab) cell

149
Q

in the band (stab) cell what may begin to form during this stage?

A

secretory granules

150
Q

describe the appearance of the band (stab) cell’s nucleus.

A

nucleus is highly clumped and nuclear indentation began in the metamyelocyte now exceeds one hald the diameter of the nucleus.

151
Q

what percentage makes up the the band (stab) cell of the nucleated marrow cells?

A

9 - 32%

152
Q

what percentage makes up the band (stab) cell of the nucleated peripheral blood cells

A

0-5%

153
Q

what are the two mature granulocyte?

A

segmented neutrophils and mature eosinophils

154
Q

in the mature granulocyte the segmented neutrophil makes up _________ of the nucleated cells in the bone marrow.

A

7-30%

155
Q

what is the different between the segmented neutrophil and bands?

A

the presence of two and give nuclear lobes connected by a thread-like filaments

156
Q

in the mature granulocyte, describe the appearance of its nucleus and cytoplasm.

A

segmented granulocyte has a presence of two to five nuclear lobes connected by a thread-like filament
Mature eosinophils displayes a bilobed nucleos, its cytoplasm contains refractile, orange-red secondary granule

157
Q

in the mature granulocyte, it usually displays a bilobed nucleus. Their cytoplasm contains characteristic refractile of orange-red secondary granules.

A

mature eosinophils

158
Q

what are the functions of a neutrophil?

A

phagocytosis
bactericidal activity
move in a zigzag pattern in the presence of chemoattractant
phagocytose a foreign particle
bactericidal activity mediated by H2O2 superoxide anion, myeloperoxidase and free halogen
important in the defense against infectious agents
can cause tissue necrosis, tissue injury and inflamation

159
Q

what are the functions of Eosinophils

A

modulate inflammatory response
anthelmintic activity - generating oxidants and release cationic proteins
granules contain major basic proteins

160
Q

functions of the basophil

A

immediate hypersensitivity reactions

161
Q

they appear to be larger than neutrophils (diameter of 15 to 20”m) because they tend to stick and spread out on glass or plastic

A

monocytes

162
Q

what is the goal of the slightly immature monocytes?

A

their ultimate goal is to enter the tissues and mature into macrophages, osteoclasts or dendritic cells

163
Q

describe the nucleus of the monocyte?

A

round, oval or kidney shaped or indented horsesshoe shaped

164
Q

what is the chromatin pattern of a monocyte?

A

lace-like or stringy

165
Q

describe the cytoplasm of the monocyte

A

ground glass appearance

166
Q

how many days does the monocyte remain in circulation?

A

3 days

167
Q

what is the other term of the mononuclear phagocyte system

A

reticuloendothelial system

168
Q

what is the purpose of monocytes?

A

defense against microorganism, mycobacteria, fungi, protozoa and viruses

169
Q

what do you call the monocyte when it migrates to the tissue?

A

histocytes or macrophages

170
Q

what are the three divisions of lymphocytes?

A

t cellls, be cells and natural killer cells (NK)

171
Q

they are the major players in adaptive immunity

A

T and B cells

172
Q

makes up a small percentage of lymphocytes and are part of innate immunity

A

NK cells

173
Q

what are the subdivisions of lymphocytes immunity?

A

humoral immunity and cellular immunity

174
Q

is a subdivision of the lymphocyte where they are the producing antibodies

A

humoral immunity

175
Q

is a subdivision of the lymphocyte where they respond by attacking foreign organisms or cells directly

A

cellular immunity

176
Q

they are the antibody-producing lymphocytes and they develop in the bone marrow.

A

B- lymphocytes or B cells

177
Q

cellular immunity is accomplished by two types of lymphocytes what are they?

A

T cells and NK cells

178
Q

they are cells that are developed in the thymus?

A

t cells

179
Q

they are developed in the bone marrow? it is a type of lymphocyte.

A

NK cells

180
Q

where are the NK cells developed?

A

bone marrow and thymus

181
Q

they are part of the innate immunity and are capable of killing certain tumor cells and virus infected cells without prior sensitization

A

NK lymphocytes

182
Q

what is the function of the NK Lymphocytes?

A

capable of killing tumor cells and virus -infected cells without prior sensitization and it modulate the functions of other cells including macrophages and T cells

183
Q

when stimulated the lymphocyte becomes?

A

they undergo mitosis and produce both memory and effector cells

184
Q

lymphocytes _______ from the blood to the tissues and back to the blood

A

recirculate

185
Q

they are capable of rearranging antigen receptor gene segments to produce a wide variety of antibodies and surface receptors.

A

B and T lymphocytes

186
Q

where does the T and NK lymphocytes mature?

A

outside the bone marrow

187
Q

what is the life span of the T-cells

A

months to years

188
Q

what is the immunity of the T-cells possess?

A

cell mediated immunity

189
Q

what is the immunity of the B-cells called?

A

humoral immunity

190
Q

What cell does the B Cells produce?

A

plasma cells and produce antibodies

191
Q

what is the population percentage of B-cells

A

10-20%

192
Q

it is the process by which megakaryocytes and platelets develop?

A

megakaryopoiesis

193
Q

it is the main site of production of TPO?

A

liver

194
Q

it controls the production and release of platelets?

A

Hormonal factor TPO

195
Q

in the megakarypoiesis, megakayocyte progenitors arise from the common myeloid progenitor under the influence of the transcription gene product called

A

GATA-1

196
Q

in the megakaryopoiesis the GATA-1 is regulated by the____

A

FOG 1

197
Q

megakaryocyte differentiation is suprressed by another transcription gene product ______

A

MYB

198
Q

what is the order of differentiation of the megakaryopoiesis of the three megakaryocyte lineage-committed progenitor stages?

A

Least mature Burst-forming unit (BFU-Meg)
intermediate Colonyforming unit (CFU-Meg)
More mature progenitor, Light-density CFU (LD-CFU-Meg)

199
Q

they are under the megakaryopoeisis where all three prgenior stages resemble lymphocytes. What are they?

A

Burst-forming unity
Colony forming unit
Light-density CFU

200
Q

thrombocytopoiesis is also known as the?

A

platelet shedding

201
Q

a single megakaryocyte may shed around how many platelets?

A

2000-4000 platelets

202
Q

the platelet lifespan is over ?

A

8-9 days

ANAPHY (37 decks)

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