Heartworm and Anemia Flashcards
Which macrocyclic lactone is used in our university clinic as part of the complex treatment of heartworm?
o Selamectin
o Ivermectin
o Moxidectin
o Milbemycin oxime
o Moxidectin
In which clinical category can ascites occur in canine heartworm disease?
o During the 2. category
o During the 3. category
o During the 2. and 3. category
o During none of them
o During the 3. category
In which clinical category can hemoglobinuria occur during canine heartworm disease
o During the 2. category
o During the 3. category
o During the 4. category
o In none of them
o During the 4. category (due to mechanical hemolysis)
Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic x-ray during canine heartworm disease
o Pulmonary arteries
o Pulmonary veins
o Both can be altered
o None of them
o Pulmonary arteries
Which statement is true regarding feline heartworm disease
o Cats are occasionally infected
o Cats are often infected
o Cats are never infected
o None of the statements are true
o Cats are occasionally infected
Which statement is true regarding the antigen test result in canine heartworm disease?
o Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animal
o Strength of reaction is often related to the number of worms within the affected animal
o Strength of reaction is related to the number of worms only in the 3. clinical category
o Strength of reaction is related to the number of worms only in the 4. clinical category
o Strength of reaction does not matter regarding the number of worms within the affected animal
What diagnostic tests are needed for heartworm disease screening
o Only modified Knott test
o Only antigen test
o Both
o Neither
o Both
What are the three major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm disease
o Doxycycline, selamectin, melarsomine
o Fenbendazole, doramectin, clopidogrel
o Doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine
o Doxycycline, milbemicin - oxim, melarsomine
o Doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine
Babesiosis: therapy
o Imidocarb, atovaquone, streptomycin
o Imidocarb, ultravaquone, azithromycin
o Imidocarb, atovaquone, azithromycin
o Imidocarbamide, atovaquone, azithromycin
o Imidocarb, atovaquone, azithromycin (7-10 days)
Which of the following parameters decrease in DIC
o Fibrinogen
o D - dimer
o APTT
o FDP
o Fibrinogen
Which of the parameter is the most specific for DIC
o Fibrinogen o APTT (Activated partial thromboplastin time) o PTT (Partial thromboplastin time) o FDP (Fibrin degradation products)
o FDP (Fibrin degradation products)
Important blood parameters in anaemia:
o RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, Fe, PTH
o RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, Fe, PTT
o RBC, PCV, TG, TBr, Fe, PTT
o RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, TLI, PTT
o RBC, PCV, TP, TBr, Fe, PTT
Feature of von-Willebrand’s disease:
o Prolonged surgical bleeding
o Severe thrombopenia
o Spontaneous bleeding is common
o Dalmatians are predisposed
o Prolonged surgical bleeding
Rodenticide poisoning: causes and pathogenesis?
o Dicoumarol types rodenticides -> liver dysfunction -> vit. K synthesis decreases -> bleeding
o Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> vit-K absorption decreases -> clotting time increases -> bleeding
o Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> vit-K antagonism -> clotting time increases -> bleeding
o Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> factor-K antagonism -> clotting time increases -> bleeding
o Dicoumarol type rodenticides -> vit-K antagonism -> clotting time increases -> bleeding
Rodenticide poisoning: diagnostic tests
o Clotting time 5-8 minutes, bleeding time 3-5 minutes, prothrombin time >20 minutes
o Clotting time >5 minutes, bleeding time < 5 minutes, prothrombin time <15 seconds
o Clotting time > 5 minutes, prothrombin time <5 seconds, APTT > 40 seconds
o Clotting time > 20 minutes, prothrombin time >15 seconds
o Clotting time > 20 minutes, prothrombin time >15 seconds
The reticulocyte index (RI) in regenerative anaemia is?
o <1.5 o >1.5 o <2.5 o >2.5 o >3.5
o >2.5
Physiologic coagulation time (in glass tube) in dogs?
o Less than 5-10 minutes
o Less than 10-15 minutes
o Less than 15-20 minutes
o Less than 2-5 minutes
o Less than 2-5 minutes
DIC. Therapy?
o Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid
o Transfusion, vitamin-K, fluid therapy
o Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy
o Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, pentoxifylline
o Transfusion, fluid therapy, acetylic acid, furosemide
o Transfusion, heparin, fluid therapy
Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:
o Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
o Chronic kidney disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
o Chronic liver disease, DIC, Raynaud’s syndrome
o Rodenticide poisoning, DIC, Harada’s disease
o Chronic liver disease, DIC, von-Willebrand’s disease
Which of the following is regenerative anemia?
o Anemia caused by erythropoietin
o Iron deficiency anemia (can also)?
o Haemolytic anemia
o Aplastic anemia
o Haemolytic anemia
Medications for treatment of immune mediated hemolytic anemia
o Azathioprine, prednisolone, hepcidine, cyclosporine
o Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine
o Albendazole, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine
o Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, lokivetmab
o Azathioprine, prednisolone, heparin, cyclosporine
Iron deficiency anaemia of carnivores: causes?
o Severe flea infestation, gastric ulcer, thrombiculosis, intestinal tumour
o Severe flea infestation, worms, gastric ulcer, iron deficient food
o Severe flea infestation, gastric ulcer, worms, intestinal tumour
o Severe demodicosis, gastric ulcer, worms, intestinal tumour
o Severe flea infestation, worms, gastric ulcer, iron deficient food
Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia, characteristic laboratory findings?
o Non-regenerative anaemia, anisocytosis, autoagglutination
o Regenerative anaemia, hypochromasia, microcytosis
o Positive osmotic fragility test, autoagglutination, neutropenia
o Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis
o Regenerative anaemia, autoagglutination, sphaerocytosis
Symptoms of haemolytic anaemia:
o Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly
o Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly
Discrepancies in DIC
o Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (inc), D-dimer+
o Thrombocytosis, schistocytosis, ACTI, D-dimer+
o Thrombocytosis, sphaerocytosis, ACTO, D-dimer+
o Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (decreased), D-dimer+
o Thrombocytopenia, schistocytosis, ACT (inc), D-dimer+
Differences in thrombocytopenia
o Haemoperitoneum, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (inc)
o Petechia, haemothorax, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (dec)
o Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (dec)
o Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (dec), platelet count (dec)
o Petechia, epistaxis, bleeding time (inc), platelet count (dec)
Which infectious disease causes non-regenerative anemia?
o Babesiosis
o Leptospirosis
o Ehrlichiosis
o Mycoplasma haemofelis
o Ehrlichiosis
Which of the following conditions has the best prognosis for non-regenerative anemia?
o Chronic lymphocytic anemia
o Addison’s disease
o Sertoli cell testicular tumor with hyperestrogenism
o Acute lymphoblastos leukemia
o Addison’s disease
• What drug can cause bone marrow damage?
o Phenobarbital
Phenobarbital
Which cannot cause secondary immunohemolytic anemia
o Microsporum
o Mycoplasma
o Babesia
o Haemangiosarcoma
o Microsporum
Babesiosis treatment:
o Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin
o Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin
Which symptom is not common in acute abdominal diseases
o adominal pain
o DIC?
o Vomiting
o One of the phases of shock?
o DIC?
Which statement is true?
o in case of hemolytic anemia, plasma is clear?
o In pancytopenia, platelets count increased
o In acute blood loss, microcytic hypochromic anemia develops few hours afterwards
o Babesia and Mycoplasma causes non-regenerative anemia
o In acute blood loss, microcytic hypochromic anemia develops few hours afterwards
Acute blood loss anaemia/Therapy:
o Stop bleeding, Balansol, whole blood transfusion
o Stop bleeding, Alkaligen, whole blood transfusion
o Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion
o Stop bleeding, HAES, fresh frozen plasma
o Stop bleeding, HAES, fresh frozen plasma
eller denne?
Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion
Which blood parameter is good to testing in case of aneamia?
o RBC and PCV
o RBC and PCV
Physiological values of RBC in dogs
o 8-10 T/I
o 5-10 T/I
o 8-12 G/I
o 10-15 T/I
o 5-10 T/I
What is polycythaemia absoluta vera?
o Elevated packed cell volume due to dehydration
o Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume
o Elevated packed cell volume due to splenic contraction
o Elevated packed cell volume due to low oxygen tension
o Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume
The approx. upper limit of inorganic phosphate in the plasma of the dog and cat is?
o 1.2 mmol/l
o 3.5 mmol/l
o 2.0 mmol/l
o 0.8 mmol/l
o 2.0 mmol/l
The upper limit of total calcium in the plasma of the dog is?
o 2 mmol/l
o 5 mmol/l
o 3 mmol/l
o 1.8 mmol/l
o 3 mmol/l
The glutaraldehyde test from blood is detecting:
o Negative acute phase proteins like albumin fibrinogen
o Positive acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen
o Positive acute phase proteins like albumin, fibrinogen
o Negative acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen
o Positive acute phase proteins like globulin, fibrinogen
Severe thrombocytopenia: causes?
o AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour
o AITP, babesiosis, EPO, Leydig-cell tumour
o Ehrlichiosis, Addison’s disease, DDIC, Sertoli-cell tumour
o Ehrlichiosis, Addison’s disease, DIC, FeLV
o AITP, babesiosis, DIC, Sertoli-cell tumour
