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SAM final > Anesthesia test 1 > Flashcards

Anesthesia test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Premedication

A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia
B. Pharmacological intervention prior to recovery of general anesthesia
C. Pharmacological intervention after induction of general anesthesia
D. Pharmacological intervention after recovery of general anesthesia

A

A. Pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anesthesia

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2
Q

Calming

A. Analgesia
B. Anxiolysis
C. Sedation
D. Anesthesia

A

Sedation

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3
Q 
Reduction of fear
A. Analgesia 
B. Anxiolysis 
C. Sedation 
D. Anesthesia
A

B. Anxiolysis

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4
Q 
Pain relief
A. Analgesia 
B. Anxiolysis 
C. Sedation 
D. Catalepsy
A

A. Analgesia

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5
Q 
Catalepsy may be caused by
A. Ketamine 
B. Propofol 
C. Fentanyl 
D. Xylazine
A

A. Ketamine

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6
Q

Neuroleptanalgesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Superficial ‘sleeping’
B. Analgesia
C. Caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination
D. Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

A

D. Caused by benzodiazepine + opioid combination

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7
Q 
Anesthesia types. Pick the fals answer
A. Local
B. Regional 
C. Subtotal 
D. General
A

C. Subtotal

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8
Q

General anesthesia criteria. Pick the fals answer

A. Inhalational
B. Hypnosis
C. Analgesia
D. Muscle relaxation

A

A. Inhalational

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9
Q

Balanced anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Achievable with a single ‘monoanesthetic’ drug
B. Consciousness may be steered with anesthetics
C. Pain may be controlled by analgesics
D. Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants

A

A. Achievable with a single ‘monoanesthetic’ drug

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10
Q 
Dissociative anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Thalamocortical dissociation 
B. Limbic depression
C. Peripheral analgesia
D. Alteration of consciousness
A

B. Limbic depression

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11
Q 
Phenothiazines may cause lifethreatening hypotension in...
A. Dobermanns
B. Boxers
C. Staffordshire terrieres 
D. Greyhounds
A

B. Boxers

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12
Q

Brachycephalic breeds need… Pick the fals answer

A. Preoxigenation
B. Short induction
C. Fast intubation
D. Early extubation

A

D. Early extubation

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13
Q 
MDR-1 gene defect is detected in... Pick the fals answer
A. Australian shepherd 
B. English shepherd 
C. German shepherd 
D. Pug
A

D. Pug

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14
Q 
Preanesthetic circulatory examination. Pick the fals answer
A. Mucous membranes
B. Capillary refill time
C. Spleen size
D. Pulse frequency and quality
A

C. Spleen size

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15
Q

Preanesthetic heart function examination. Pick the fals answer

A. Auscultation
B. Electrocardiography
C. Ultrasonography
D. Hearth muscle biopsy

A

D. Hearth muscle biopsy

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16
Q

Preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam. Pick the fals answer
A. Parasitological examination of feces
B. White blood cell count and hematocrit
C. Total plasma protein
D. Urea, Crea and ALT

A

A. Parasitological examination of feces

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17
Q

ASA 1. Pick the fals answer

A. Healthy state
B. Symptom-free state
C. Low anesthesia risk
D. Age: 0day–8years

A

D. Age: 0day–8years

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18
Q

ASA 3. Pick the fals answer

A. Severe systemic disease
B. Visible functional impairment
C. Age: 6weeks–5years
D. Not life-threatening status

A

C. Age: 6weeks–5years

ASA 3: Severe systemic disease with visible functional impairment, but not life threatening. And/or: 8- 10 years

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19
Q

ASA 4. Pick the fals answer

A. Severe systemic disease
B. Constant threat to life
C. Age:0–3 days or over 10years
D. Age: 6–16 years

A

D. Age: 6–16 years

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20
Q

CEPOD classification. Pick the fals answer
A. I: immediate, life-saving intervention
B. II: urgent intervention
C. III: planned for near future
D. IV: no time for classification

A

D. IV: no time for classification

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21
Q

Preanesthetic fasting. Pick the fals answer
A. Usually 6 hours
B. Less than 6 hours in very young patients
C. More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs
D. Only 2 hours in emergency patients

A

C. More than 6 hours in brachycephalic dogs

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22
Q

Advantages of premedication. Pick the fals answer
A. Decreases stress, fear and aggression
B. Lowers anesthetic demand
C. Decreases drug expenditure and costs
D. Increases the excitation phase

A

D. Increases the excitation phase

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23
Q 
Steps of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Premedication
B. Induction
C. Stadium analgesiae 
D. Recovery
A

C. Stadium analgesiae

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24
Q

Effects of premedication. Pick the fals answer
A. Decreases pain, stress, fear, aggression
B. IncreasesO2-demand
C. Decreases anesthetic dosage, side effects, costs
D. Eliminates excitation stage

A

B. IncreasesO2-demand

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25
Q 
Reasons of vein cannulation. Pick the fals answer
A. Drug administration
B. Fluid therapy
C. Emergency access
D. Monitoring core temperature
A

D. Monitoring core temperature

26
Q

Preferred drugs for induction. Pick the fals answer
A. Anesthetics with moderate (or NO) side effects
B. Rapid onset of action
C. Long duration
D. Short duration or counteractable

A

C. Long duration

27
Q 
Maintenance of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer
A. Intramuscular 
B. Intravenous 
C. Inhalational 
D. Epidural
A

D. Epidural

28
Q 
Role of the anesthesiologist. Pick the fals answer
A. Control the depth of anesthesia 
B. Patient monitoring
C. Reduce surgical time
D. Maintain homeostasis
A

C. Reduce surgical time

29
Q

Stages of narcosis (I-IV). Pick the fals answer
A. Stadium analgesiae = induction phase
B. Stadium excitationis =excitatory phase
C. Stadium tolerantiae =surgical narcosis
D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

A

D. Stadium asphyxiae = deep surgical narcosis

30
Q

Characteristics of general anesthesia. Pick the fals answer

A. Unconsciousness
B. Lack of perception
C. Analgesia
D. Muscle rigidity

A

D. Muscle rigidity

31
Q

Atropine is used for treatment… Pick the fals answer

A. Bradycardia caused by opioids
B. Reflex-bradycardia caused by a2-agonists (high BP)
C. AV- and SA-blocks
D. Increased gland-secretion and bronchospasm

A

D. Increased gland-secretion and bronchospasm

32
Q

ACP effects. Pick the fals answer

A. Calming
B. Vasodilation
C. Depression of thermoregulation
D. Emetic

A

D. Emetic. (has antiemetic effect)

33
Q

ACP effects. Pick the fals answer

A. Decreases BP
B. Antihistaminic
C. Depression of platelet function
D. Analgesic

A

D. Analgesic

34
Q

Diazepam and midazolam. Pick the fals answer
A. For old animals with poor general condition
B. Can be antagonized by atipamezole
C. Decrease anxiety, relax muscles
D. High dose causes respiratory depression

A

B. Can be antagonized by atipamezole

35
Q

Alpha2-agonists. Pick the fals answer

A. Alphaxalone and alphadolone
B. Detomidine
C. Medetomidine and dexmedetomidine
D. Xylazine

A

A. Alphaxalone and alphadolone

36
Q

Alpha2-agonists. Pick the false answer

A. Sedative
B. Analgesic
C. Emetic
D. Not antagonisable

A

B. Analgesic

37
Q

Medetomidine, xylazine. Pick the fals answer

A. Using a general dose, phases of sedation, induction and maintenance can not be separated
B. Can be antagonized by flumazenil
C. Not recommended for old and cardiac and diabetic patients
D. Cause circulatory and respiratory depression

A

B. Can be antagonized by flumazenil

38
Q

Opioid drugs. Pick the fals answer

A. Morphine and fentanyl
B. Buprenorphine and butorphanol
C. Tramadol and thiopental
D. Naloxone (as antagonist)

A

C. Tramadol and thiopental

39
Q 
Opioid receptors. Pick the fals answer
A. μ (mu)
B. κ(kappa) 
C. o(omicron) 
D.  (delta)
A

C. o(omicron)

40
Q 
Fentanyl. Pick the fals answer
A. Full agonist opioid drug
B. 15–30 minutes duration of effect 
C. Do not combine with propofol 
D. May be redosed
A

C. Do not combine with propofol

41
Q

Morphine. Pick the fals answer

A. Full agonist opioid drug
B. 4–6 hours duration of effect
C. Use high dose IV in mastocytoma patients
D. May be redosed

A

D. May be redosed

42
Q

Opioids. Pick the fals answer

A. Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect
B. Major analgesics
C. Side effects are bradycardia and respiratory depression
D. Can be antagonized by naloxone

A

A. Despite various receptor affinity, all have the same full effect

43
Q

Full opioid agonist

A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Tramadol

A

A. Morphine

44
Q

Full opioid agonist

A Naloxon
B. Buprenorphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Fentanyl

A

D. Fentanyl

45
Q

Short duration of action

A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Fentanyl
D. Fentanyl patch

A

C. Fentanyl

46
Q

Partial μ-agonist

A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Fentanyl

A

C. Butorphanol

47
Q

Partial μ-antagonist and κ-agonist

A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Fentanyl

A

C. Butorphanol

48
Q

Weak μ-agonist

A. Morphine
B. Buprenorphine
C. Butorphanol
D. Tramadol

A

D. Tramadol

49
Q

Propofol. Pick the fals answer

A. Can be used in almost all patient groups
B. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic
C. Short duration of action, can be redosed
D. High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression

A

B. Hypnotic, muscle relaxant and analgesic

50
Q

Application of propofol. Pick the fals answer

A. Only in combination with muscle relaxants
B. Slowly
C. IV
D. To effect

A

A. Only in combination with muscle relaxants

51
Q

Ketamine. Pick the fals answer

A. Moderate analgesic effect
B. Benzodiazepines can help avoid catalepsy
C. Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients
D. Eyes remain open, thus the cornea may desiccate

A

C. Recommended for neurological and glaucoma patients

52
Q

Safe inhalant anesthetics. Pick the fals answer

A. Ether
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Desflurane

A

A. Ether

53
Q

Inhalant anesthetics. Pick the fals answer

A. 1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases
B. 2 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 100% of cases
C.Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect
D. Short induction and recovery

A

C.Hypnotic, muscle relaxant, strong analgesic effect

54
Q 
Inhalant anesthetics. Pick the fals answer
A. Hypnotic
B. Muscle relaxant
C. No analgesic effect 
D. Sedative
A

D. Sedative

55
Q

Local anesthetics. Pick the fals answer
A. Block nerve cells
B. Local anesthesia types: terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural, spinal
C.Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics
D. Possible side-effects: cardiovascular and CNS signs, cell toxicity

A

C.Surgery in small animals is safe using only local anesthetics

56
Q

LA side-effects. Pick the fals answer

A. Cardiovascular
B. CNS
C. Cell toxicity
D. Respiratory

A

D. Respiratory

57
Q

Pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, rocuronium

A. Central muscle relaxants
B. Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants
C. Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants
D. Local anesthetics

A

B. Peripheral non depolarising muscle relaxants

58
Q

Pain. Pick the fals answer

A. Complex, multidimensional negative experience
B.There is no linear correlation between degree of pathological changes and intensity of pain
C. Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress
D. Simultaneous nociceptive effects add up

A

C. Pain experience is not influenced by fear and stress

59
Q

Characteristics of pain. Pick the fals answer

A. Function: physiological or pathological
B. Origin: organic or psychogenic
C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional
D. Duration: acute or chronic

A

C. Modality: surgical or medical or reproductional

60
Q

Ascending pathway of the nociception

A. Transmission, transduction, modulation, projection and perception
B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception
C. Transduction, modulation, transmission, projection and perception
D. Modulation, transduction, transmission, projection and perception

A

B. Transduction, transmission, modulation, projection and perception

61
Q

Modern concepts of pain management. Pick the fals answer
A. Young animals do not need analgesics
B. Preemptive (prophylactic) analgesia
C. Multimodal (multiple approach) analgesia
D. No gap should appear!

A

A. Young animals do not need analgesics

62
Q

ASA 2. Pick the false answer

A. Mild systemic disease
B. No apparent functional disorders
C. High anesthesia risk
D. Age: 6 weeks – 5 years

A

C. High anesthesia risk

ASA 2: Mild systemic disease, no functional disorder apparent. And/or: 6 weeks – 5-8 years

SAM final (19 decks)

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