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Anatomy > Healthy Animals Block 1 > Flashcards

Healthy Animals Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 types of glands?

A

Exocrine and endocrine

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2
Q

What is an endocrine gland?

A

Secrete products in extra cellular space where it is taken up into the blood vascular system

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3
Q

What is an exocrine gland?

A

Secrete products into a gland where they are taken to the free surface, either the lumen of an organ or the onto the free surface of the epithelium.

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4
Q

What is a merocrine gland?

A

Uses secretory vesicles to the lumpen of the gland

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5
Q

What is a holocrine gland?

A

Death of entire cell and product sloughs off into the lumen of the gland

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6
Q

What is an apocrine gland?

A

Release of budding vesicles (parts of the cell)

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7
Q

What are gap junctions

A

They connect the cytoplasm of two cells

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8
Q

Where do hemidesmosomes attach

A

To the basement membrane

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9
Q

Where do desmosomes attach?

A

To bordering cells (not basement)

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10
Q

What are the 3 components of connective tissue extracellular matrix

A

Protein fibers, glycoproteins, proteoglycans

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11
Q

What are the 3 types of extracellular fibers?

A

Collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, reticular fibers

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12
Q

What are the 2 non-cellular biological materials that make the connective tissue

A

Fiber component and ground substance

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13
Q

What is a large chain of collagen molecules called?

A

Fibril -> fibers

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14
Q

What are the 5 types of collagen

A

1-5

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15
Q

What is type 1 collagen?

A

Found in every connective tissue

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16
Q

What is type 2 collagen

A

Found in hyaline and elastic cartilage and in vitreous of eye

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17
Q

What is type 3 collagen

A

Found in reticular fibers, healing wounds, smooth muscle, and fetal skin

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18
Q

What is type 4 collagen

A

Found in basal laminae of epithelia

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19
Q

What is type 5 collagen

A

Found in placental basal laminae, tendons, and muscle sheath

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20
Q

What is ground substance?

A

Aqueous gel of glycoproteins and proteoglycans

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21
Q

What do fibroblasts secrete

A

Both collagen and ground substance

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22
Q

What is are 2 examples of specialized connective tissue?

A

White and brown adipose

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23
Q

What are the 4 types of connective tissue

A

Dense irregular, loose irregular, dense regular, and embryonic connective tissue

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24
Q

What are the holes that chondrocytes are found in called?

A

Lacunae

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25
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage, fibrocartilage

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26
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found and what type of collagen makes it up

A

Type 1 collagen and found at attachment points for tendons, intervertebral discs, and symphysis between bones

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27
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found and what collage makes it up

A

Type 2 and the pin a of the ear, the turbinates of the nose, and the epiglottis

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28
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found and what collagen type makes it up

A

Type 1 and articular surface in joints

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29
Q

What are the two types of epithelium genres

A

Lining epithelium and glandular epithelium

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30
Q

What type of gland is a sebaceous sweat gland?

A

Holocrine

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31
Q

What type of gland is an apocrine sweat gland?

A

Apocrine

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32
Q

What is the outer membrane of most organs called?
And what is it made of?

A

Serosa made of mesothelium

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33
Q

What is the term for keratinized cells?

A

Cornification

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34
Q

What is the function of reticulin in cartilage?

A

Acts as a net to hold cells of an organ together

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35
Q

What is the only type of connective tissue without vascularation

A

Cartilage

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36
Q

What can smooth and cardiac muscle react to that skeletal muscle cannot?

A

Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

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37
Q

What is myoepithelium

A

A specialized type of epithelium located around glands that can contract and move it onto the surface

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38
Q

What is myofibroblasts?

A

Seen in healing wounds and assists in maturation and contraction of granulation tissue

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39
Q

What muscle type causes shivering?

A

Skeletal

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40
Q

What is a synonym to muscle cell?

A

Muscle fiber

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41
Q

What are the 3 layers of connective tissue that encloses muscles from highest to lowest order?
What type of connective tissue is it?

A

Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
Dense irregular connective tissue

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42
Q

Where are the nuclei located on skeletal muscles? How many nuclei are in a skeletal muscle?

A

In the periphery
Many

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43
Q

What is the individual muscle bundle within the perimysium called?

A

The fascicle

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44
Q

What is the cytoplasm of a muscle cell called?

A

Sarcoplasm

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45
Q

What is the plasma membrane of a muscle cell called?

A

Sarcolemma

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46
Q

What is the smooth ER that controls the release of calcium called?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

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47
Q

What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle called?

A

Sarcomere

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48
Q

What is a chain of sarcomeres called?

A

A myofibril

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49
Q

Where, specifically, is cardiac muscle found?

A

In the myocardium

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50
Q

Where is the nucleus of cardiac muscle and how many nuclei does it have?

A

Middle and singular (usually)

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51
Q

What is the purpose of intercalated discs

A

Alls contraction of cardiac muscle in a coordinated manor through gap junctions and desmosomes.

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52
Q

How can you tell the difference between smooth muscle and connective tissue?

A

The nuclei of smooth muscle is longer than in fibroblasts

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53
Q

What is the organic component (type 1 collagen + ground substance) called

A

Osteoid

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54
Q

What is the inorganic matrix of bone?

A

Calcium hydroxyapatite

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55
Q

What is all normal bone in adults called?

A

Lamellar bone

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56
Q

What is the difference between osteoblasts and osteocytes

A

Osteoblasts produce bone and line the edge of growing bone while osteocytes are embedded in lacunae within the bone matrix

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57
Q

What are the long cytoplasmic processes of osteocytes called?

A

Canaliculi

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58
Q

What are the roles of osteocytes?

A

They play and important role in detecting local changes in the micro environment looking for stress, micro fractures, and micronutrient concentrations.

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59
Q

What is the outside portion of bone called?

A

Cortical bone

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60
Q

What is the inside portion of bone called?

A

Trabecular bone

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61
Q

What recruits an osteoclast to the bone?

A

Osteoblasts recruit osteoclasts

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62
Q

What do osteoclasts secrete to break down bone?

A

Carbonic acid and proteinases

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63
Q

What is the scalloped region created by the osteoclast called?

A

Howship’s lacuna

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64
Q

What is the bone type of immature animals

A

Woven bone

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65
Q

What is an osteon (long answer)

A

A Haversian canal (center of osteon) is an osteon which is a structure that has a cutting cone where osteoclasts line the front, continuously cutting away while osteoblasts line the bottom of the cone, constantly rebuilding with a blood vessel running up the middle, aka the Haversian canal. Cool!!

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66
Q

What is the term for changes in bone size and shape?

A

Modeling, how bone responds to loading

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67
Q

What is Wolff’s Law?

A

Bone shape will adapt to use

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68
Q

What is the process of removing bone in one place and replacing it in another?

A

Remodeling

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69
Q

What are the 2 ways that bone can grow?

A

Membranous ossification and endochondralmossification

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70
Q

Where does membranous ossification usually occur?

A

Flat bones like skull and mandible

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71
Q

Where does endochondral ossification usually occur?

A

Long bones

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72
Q

What is the growing plate of a long bone called?

A

The physis

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73
Q

What are the 4 zones of endochondral ossification from most chondral to bone

A

Zone of reserve cartilage, Zone of proliferation, zone of hypertrophy, zone of calcification

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74
Q

Where is the only region to find chondroblasts?

A

Perichondrium (surrounding tissue of hyaline, only present during period of growth or injury)

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75
Q

Since hyaline cartilage is avascular, what nourishes the cells?

A

Synovial fluid

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76
Q

What are the fibers of tendons that anchor into bone called?

A

Sharpey’s fibers

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77
Q

What are the specialized cardiac cells that lack T tubules and aid in conduction system?

A

Purkinje fibers

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78
Q

What triggers the release of neurotransmitters in a neuron?

A

Depolarization

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79
Q

What units is the resting potential measured in?

A

Millivolts (mV)

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80
Q

What is the resting potential?

A

-90mV (negative charge on the inside of the membrane)

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81
Q

What cellular mechanism is responsible for creating the membrane potential and how many of each is pumped? And what does it require?

A

ATP dependent Na K pumps pumps 3 Na out and 2K into the cell which actually creates a -4mV potential because 1 more positive molecule is moved outside than inside

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82
Q

After the ATP dependent sodium potassium channel, what is the next step in polarization?

A

A potassium leak channel allows only potassium to diffuse down its concentration gradient to allow the buildup of - proteins on the membrane to build up

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83
Q

What initiates the action potential?

A

The voltage gated sodium channel opens allowing sodium to flood into the neuron and depolarize the cell.

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84
Q

Although the brain makes up 2% of body weight, it uses how much energy

A

15%

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85
Q

Describe the steps of repolarization

A

Voltage gated sodium channel is closed, voltage gated potassium channel is opened, Na/K pump is restarted

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86
Q

How do neurons get ATP energy?

A

They use aerobic (needs lots of oxygen) glycolysis because it yields the most energy

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87
Q

What and how stabilizes the outside gate of the voltage gated sodium channel

A

Ca++ stabilizes the outside gate between -90 and -50. Decreases in 50% of calcium can cause wrongful firing of the neurons

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88
Q

What initiates the fusion of neurotransmitter ventricles to the membrane?

A

Depolarization activates voltage gated calcium channels and the influx causes neurotransmitters to bind to the membrane

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89
Q

What are the 2 general types of neuro receptors on the post synaptic membrane? And their speed of action?

A

Ion channel (quick and fast)
Enzyme receptors (long and slow) up to years

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90
Q

What are the 2 possible outcomes of receptor binding to the post synaptic cleft? And what are their actions?

A

Inhibitory (opening of potassium channels) or excitatory (opening of sodium channels)

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91
Q

What is excitotoxicity?

A

When there is an excessive release of excitatory neurotransmitters from an injured or degenerating nerve (like releasing excessive glutamate which will cause binding to a receptor)

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92
Q

What are dilated segments of an axon called?

A

Spheroids

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93
Q

What happens when an axon or neuron dies in the CNS?

A

It’s gone… no regeneration

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94
Q

What happens when an axon or neuron dies in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells help to regenerate it

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95
Q

What are glial cells

A

Glial cells are supporting non-neuronal cells of the neural system

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96
Q

What is the insulation made by glial cells and what is it made of?

A

Lipid and myelin

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97
Q

What are the exposed patches of axon through myelin?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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98
Q

What is the process of jumping charges from node of ranvier called?

A

Saltatory conduction

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99
Q

What are the 2 benefits to myelination?

A

Faster and requires less energy

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100
Q

What are the glial cells called in the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocytes, forms with multiple other axons

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101
Q

What are glial cells of the PNS?

A

Schwann cells (one cell per myelon)

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102
Q

What is a neurilemmal tract?

A

A neurilemmal tract is basement membrane and collage that are on Schwann cells opposite of the axon that allows for regrowth of the PNS

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103
Q

What is primary and secondary demyelination and how can you tell the difference

A

Primary is simply loss of that myelin cell by damage. Secondary is the loss of tropic factors due to the neuron dying. It is primary demyelination if the neuron/axon is still there, if it isn’t then it is secondary

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104
Q

What are causes of primary demyelination?

A

Viral infection, immune mediated, metabolic damage, and toxins (rat poisoning)

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105
Q

Which type of myelin is easier to replace?

A

Schwann since one cell is responsible for one axon part while oligodendricites are responsible for 20-50 axons

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106
Q

What are the 6 functions of astrocytes

A

Metabolic support, regulate tissue water content, direct formation of blood brain barrier, support neuronal signal transduction, scar tissue of the CNS, and scaffold for development

107
Q

What are microglia and how are they recruited?

A

Microglia are immune cells of the nervous system that are recruited by DAMPs, PAMPs, and interferons.

108
Q

Where are neuron cell bodies located?

A

Grey matter

109
Q

Why is grey matter on the outside of the brain?

A

This is because it requires a high level of vascularity and that’s what gives it the pink color

110
Q

What is white matter?

A

These are bundles of axons connecting parts of the brain. Super myelin rich and so it’s high in fat, low vascular density

111
Q

What is Nissl?

A

Nissl is in the cytoplasm of neuron bodies that are rough endoplasmic reticulum

112
Q

What is purkinje cells?

A

Large cell bodies that communicate with extensive dendrites in molecular cell layer

113
Q

What is a ganglion?

A

Ganglion are aggregates of neurons in the PNS

114
Q

What are the equivalent of astrocytes in the PNS

A

Sustentacular cells

115
Q

What does the dorsal horn receive?

A

Sensory inputs

116
Q

What does the lateral horn receive?

A

Autonomic inputs

117
Q

What does the ventral horn receive?

A

Motor inputs

118
Q

What are the PNS connective tissue packaging called. Small to largest?

A

Endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium

119
Q

What is the path of cerebral spinal fluid? And which ventricles are they produced?

A

Lateral ventricles, interventricular foramen, third ventricle, mesencephalic aqueduct, fourth ventricle (lateral ventricle, third and fourth ventricle)

120
Q

What structure produced cerebral spinal fluid?

A

Choroid plexus

121
Q

What cell is responsible for circulating CSF

A

Epemdymal cells (cilia)

122
Q

What is the meninges and what are the layers?

A

Meninges is a barrier of the skull made up of 2 major layers. The dura mater and the arachnoid membrane + pia mater

123
Q

What brain vein dives into the brain via the dura mater

A

The dorsal Sagittarius venous sinus

124
Q

Domesticated and wild refer to?

A

Populations

125
Q

Feral and tame refers to

A

Individuals (no “tame species”)

126
Q

What are the 2 processes of domestication?

A

Artificial selection and natural selection (genetics for both)

127
Q

What are some traits that favor domestication?

A

Social groups, promiscuous mating, parental-offspring bonding, short flight distance, docility

128
Q

What are some traits that limit domestication?

A

Monogamous mating, small social groups, specialized diets, agility, poor climate adaptability

129
Q

What is the retention of juvenile traits in older animals?

A

Neoteny

130
Q

What is the longest standing domesticated species

A

Canis familiaris from canis lupus

131
Q

What were chickens (gallus gallus domesticus) originally domesticated for?

A

Fighting and sacrifice

132
Q

Where were horses (equus caballus) originally domesticated and for what purpose?

A

SE Europe, meat and hide production

133
Q

Where were cattle (Bos Taurus and bos indicus) originally domesticated?

A

SW Asia

134
Q

What were pigs and sheep domesticated from respectively?

A

Boars and mouflon

135
Q

What are the 5 types of social structures amongst animals?

A

Solitary, pairs, packs, matriarchal groups, or harems

136
Q

What are species examples of solitary animals?

A

Bears, hamsters, large felines

137
Q

What are species examples of pairs?

A

Foxes and birds

138
Q

What are the 6 types of pair bonds?

A

Short-term, long-term, lifelong, social, clandestine, and dynamic

139
Q

What is a short-term pair bond?

A

Transient mating or associations (meadow voles)

140
Q

What is a long term pair bond?

A

Bonded for a significant period of the life cycle (cockatoos and penguins)

141
Q

What is a lifelong pairbond?

A

Mated for life (snowy owls, prairie voles)

142
Q

What is a social pair bond?

A

Territorial and social reasons, NOT sexual (swans)

143
Q

What is a clandestine pair bond?

A

Quick extra-pair copulations (chimp and humans) has monogamous relationship but will mate outside of mate when opportunity arises.

144
Q

What is a dynamic pairbond?

A

Like swingers, you have a mate but you also associate with other pairs

145
Q

What is a harem?

A

Single male lives with group of females (horses)

146
Q

In a pack, does every individual breed every year?

A

No, just 1-2 breeding pairs are designated and the whole pack with care for this animal

147
Q

What does RHP stand for and what is it?

A

RHP=resource holding potential. Potential to win an all-out fight

148
Q

What are the 4 types of hierarchies?

A

Linear: linear line of dominance (birds)
Triangular: triangle “a is dominant of b, b is dominant of c, but c is dominant of a” cows
Despotic: one dominant all others are equal (domestic cats)
Complex: semi linear line with triangular hierarchies sprinkled in (most species)

149
Q

What is dominance?

A

Predictable relationship between 2 individual of the SAME SPECIES over MULTIPLE INTERACTIONS. Not a personality trait, an animal isn’t “dominant” it is only “dominant over X”

150
Q

How is dominance determined?

A

Repeated agonistic behaviors between two individuals (activities related to aggression)

151
Q

What is displacement behavior

A

A normal behavior that is done out of context (like twirling hair or pacing or grooming or sniffing)

152
Q

What are signs that a dog is in the green zone?

A

Basically everything is relaxed, normal pupils, weight evenly distributed
Play bow can be used as a displacement behavior (if back is straight, this isn’t a play bow)

153
Q

What are signs a dog is in the yellow zone?

A

Licking, yawning, whale eye, expose belly and hold up a paw, dilated pupils

154
Q

What are signs a dog is in the red zone?

A

Tail is up and stiff, weight forward, piloerection, showing teeth, pupils dilated with hard stare

155
Q

What are signs of a cat in the green

A

Normal pupils, ears slightly forward, eyes are “heavy”

156
Q

What are signs of a cat in the yellow?

A

Ears are erected to front or back, tail is close to the body, pupils dilated

157
Q

What are signs of a cat in red?

A

Pupils fully dilated, sounds, ears are flattened, tail is tucked

158
Q

What is the neonatal period In dogs and cats respectively

A

0-13 days and 0-9 days

159
Q

What is the transitional period in dogs and cats respectively?

A

14-20 days and 9-14 days

160
Q

What is the socialization period of dogs and cats respectively?

A

3-12 weeks and 2-7 weeks

161
Q

When is the first fear period for dogs? And second?

A

8-10 weeks and 4-11 months

162
Q

What is the juvenile period in dogs and cats?

A

3-6 months and 7weeks to 5 months

163
Q

What is the action of showing maternal behaviors toward a neonate that is not theirs called

A

Concaveation

164
Q

What is the difference between precocial and altricial

A

Precocial are neonates that are born with the capability to walk, stand, and socialize immediately after birth why
I’ll altricial are neonates that are relatively helpless after birth

165
Q

What is the difference between hiders and followers

A

All altricial and some precocial. Hiders are kept in nests or close to birthing site so mother can go off and hunt (rabbits, deer, and anyone who builds a nest)

Followers are asked to follow their mother in her daily business so obtain food

166
Q

What is social facilitation?

A

Behavior of one individual that directs others to engage in that behavior (herd movement, eating, migration, stampedes)

167
Q

What are some benefits of play behavior?

A

Practice adult behaviors, develop physical skills, development of social skills

168
Q

How do feral cats act in regions of scarce resources and abundant resources respectively?

A

Scare resources: live alone
Abundant resources: live in group, communal rearing, men alone

169
Q

What are the 3 types of canine sociality?

A

Type I: temporary pair binding, makes aid in rearing of young but solitary the rest of the year
Type II: permanent pair bond, live with young throughout breeding season
Type III: pack canines, 1 breeding pair at a time and communal rearing, communal hunting

170
Q

Why are wolves in captivity not a pack

A

Usually just a bunch of unrelated individuals that come together. Agnostic behavior will usually occur to solidify a hierarchy

171
Q

Are free range feral dogs in a pack (type III)

A

No

172
Q

How do large groups of neutered dogs differ in social structure?

A

No reproductive competition (because they can’t have kids), no clear alpha or beta individuals, no overriding structures by they form dyads

173
Q

How is leadership generally decided in feral cow herds?

A

Through age, body size, and horn size

174
Q

How does social hierarchy work in dairy herds?

A

Not straight forward certain cows may value certain resources over other cows. Brushed, food, or water may all have different hierarchies

175
Q

What is an alternative for calf housing for additional social interactions?

A

Pair housing

176
Q

What is the purpose of a gestation stall?

A

Protects sows from fighting also easier to track nutrition

177
Q

What is the purpose of a farrowing stall?

A

Allows sow to lay down and feed piglets and not crush the piglets

178
Q

What’s the ideal group size for swine?

A

Either small or really really big

179
Q

What is the SAM response?

A

Sympathetic: increased alertness heart rate respiration rate pupil dilation

180
Q

What are the 4 F’s (high arousal animals)

A

Fight, flight, freeze, fidget

181
Q

What color would a cow in heat fall under?

A

Yellow

182
Q

What are some causes of stress in cows?

A

Isolation, novelty, poor handling

183
Q

What are the 3 levels of emotional states in horses?

A

Comfort, alert, survival

184
Q

What is social facilitation in horses

A

Keeping a horse with another horse during treatment to maintain a social state

185
Q

What zone does frequent pooping occur in horses?

A

Red

186
Q

If there is nasal flaring, what color would you put a horse under?

A

Yellow

187
Q

If a horses head is low and ears are pinned, what level would you put this horse?

A

Red

188
Q

How often do cats urinate normally?

A

2-4 times a day

189
Q

How often do cats defecate?

A

1 time a day

190
Q

What’s the cat’s normal routine when peeing?

A

Dig, sniff (18s) , cover (12s)

191
Q

How often do puppies and dogs urinate respectively?

A

2-4 and 1-2

192
Q

How often do cows pee and poop respectively?

A

5-13 and 7-15

193
Q

What are the welfare laws associated with social contact of horses?

A

They need auditory, olfactory, and visual contact

194
Q

What occurs during trekking of horses? Social organization?

A

Lead mare in front and stallion in back

195
Q

What is the neonatal phase of horses?

A

Birth to first suckling

196
Q

What is the transitional phase of horses?

A

A few minutes to a few hours , begin following behavior

197
Q

What is the social phase of horses?

A

3 weeks to 3 months (social play increases)

198
Q

What is the juvenile phase of horses?

A

3 months to 3-5 years

199
Q

What is the juvenile phase of horses?

A

3 months to 3-5 years (changes in social structure)

200
Q

What is the adult phase of horses?

A

5 years to 15 years

201
Q

What is the senior phase of horses?

A

Above 15 years

202
Q

What is the cathode of an x ray machine and what does it do?

A

Tungsten filaments that (mA) dictates the current passing through the cathode

203
Q

What is the anode and what does it do?

A

Tungsten and is the target of the electrons coming off of the cathode. The cathode is negative (anode positive)

204
Q

What is Bremsstrahlung?

A

The electrons slow as it passes through the nucleus of the tungsten. This energy is released as an XRay photon

205
Q

What is characteristic radiation?

A

Electron hits and ejects an inner shell electron. Out she’ll electron drops in which releases energy as photon

206
Q

What is collimating?

A

Paired lead sheets that reduce scatter of x rays

207
Q

What 4 things does x ray photon attenuation depend on?

A

X ray energy, tissue thickness, physical density, and atomic number.

208
Q

What is the photoelectric effect?

A

Very useful to radiology, responsible for the contrast on an image

209
Q

What is the Compton effect?

A

Responsible for scatter due to outer electron being kicked out of orbit. Makes contrast in areas that aren’t accurate to anatomy

210
Q

What is mAs

A

It is the amount of current times the amount of seconds (cathode)

211
Q

What is kVp?

A

Speed of electrons (anode)

212
Q

What is the “technique” ratio and what is the outcome of higher technique?

A

Aka the exposure, kVp/mAs, and darker image
If you’re overexposed, you need to reduce the kVp

213
Q

What happens when you double mAs? What happens when you add 10% to kVp?

A

Double mAs= film density doubles
Add 10% to kVp = film density doubles

214
Q

What is the inverse square law?

A

X ray beam intensity increases or decreases as a square of the change in distance (1m = 1 unit, 2 = 4 units)

215
Q

Important: what are the 5 radiographic opacities?

A

Metal, mineral, soft tissue, fat, gas
Doesn’t mean it has to be made of that material, it just appears as that opacity

216
Q

What happens to contrast as kVp increases and decrease respectively?

A

Contrast decreases with high kVp and increases with lower kVp

217
Q

Where should the area of interest in a radiograph be in reference to the table?

A

Closest to table, further away creates a larger shadow

218
Q

What is the difference between digital and analog x rays

A

Digital allows for the image to be on a computer while analog is the old fashion films

219
Q

What is computed radiography? Plus advantage and disadvantage

A

There is a plate reader that converts the latent image to digital image (first digital radiograph). Essentially analog is converted to digital
Advantage: Don’t have to buy a whole new x ray machine
Disadvantage: need a film reader and it takes 30-60 seconds to read

220
Q

What is direct digital radiography?

A

X ray hits photoconductors which is read by a computer and produce image

221
Q

What is indirect digital radiography?

A

Converts x ray to visible light and the visible light to electric signal

222
Q

What does DICOM stand form?

A

Digital image communication in medicine (allows communication of images with different devices)

223
Q

What does PACS stand for?

A

Picture archival and communication system

224
Q

What are the 2 types of radiation?

A

Particulate and electromagnetic

225
Q

What is direct ionizing action?

A

Liberated electron interacts directly with the target

226
Q

What is indirect ionizing energy?

A

A free radical is formed from interacting with water molecule

227
Q

What does ALARA stand for?

A

As low as reasonably possible

228
Q

What is ultrasound “gain”

A

Adjustment of image brightness

229
Q

What is ultrasound TGC “time gain compensation”?

A

Near and far gain (deeper tissues need more)

230
Q

What does echogenicity mean?

A

Opacity equivalent (shades of grey)

231
Q

What is anechoic

A

Sound echos are transmitted through (black)

232
Q

What is hypoechoic

A

Few echos are returned to probe (dairy grey)

233
Q

What is isoechoic?

A

Many echoes are returned to probe (light grey)

234
Q

What is hyperechoic

A

Most echoes are returned to probe (white)

235
Q

Which side of the body is the tibia on?

A

Medial

236
Q

Which side of the body is the fibular on?

A

Lateral

237
Q

What is a axial vs abaxial

A

Axial is on the side of the axis(3rd and 4th tow) while abaxial is on the other side

238
Q

What are the two bones of the thoracic girdle?

A

Scapula and clavicle

239
Q

What is the anatomical term for the arm

A

Brachium

240
Q

What is the anatomical term for the forearm

A

Antebrachium

241
Q

What are the 3 bones of the hand

A

Pharyngeas, metacarpal, and carpal bones

242
Q

What are the names of the first 2 cervical vertebrae?

A

Atlas and axis

243
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

244
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

13

245
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

7

246
Q

How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A

3

247
Q

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A

20ish

248
Q

What are the 2 muscles that make up the jugular groove?

A

Sternocephalicus and brachiocephalicus

249
Q

What 3 components make up the carotid sheath?

A

Internal jugular, common carotid, vasosympathetic trunk

250
Q

What 2 muscles make up the compound muscle sternocephalicus?

A

Pars mastoideus and pars occipitalis

251
Q

What are the 3 muscles we need to know for this exam….

A

Sternohyoidius, sternocephalicus, brachiocephalicus

252
Q

Where does the sternohyoiduis run?

A

Ventral to trachea

253
Q

What 2 muscles make up the compound muscle of brachiocephalicus?

A

Cleidobrachialis and cleidocephalics. Intersection at clavicular intersection

254
Q

When can puppies hear and see?
When can kittens hear and see?

A

Puppies hear 3 weeks and see 14 days
Kittens hear 5 days and see 7-19 days

255
Q

What are the 3 types of myofilaments

A

Actin, myosin, titin

256
Q

What’s the organization of muscle components from myofiber

A

Myofiber, myofibril, sarcomere, myofilament (actin, myosin, titin)

257
Q

What are the 4 important proteins of skeletal and cardiac muscle?

A

Actin, myosin, troponin, tropomyosin

258
Q

What is the role of titin?

A

It prevents over stretching

259
Q

What is troponin and tropomyosin respectively

A

Troponin and tropomyosin are the same thing I think that blocks the actin filaments from being bound in the absence of calcium

260
Q

What is the purpose of t tubules

A

Store ca and release when muscle contracts. Part of sarcoplasmic reticulum

261
Q

What are white fibers?

A

Fast fibers, mostly are glycolytic (use glycolysis, anaerobic)

262
Q

What are red fibers?

A

Slow muscles (aerobic) slower and less prevalent, more mitochondria

263
Q

What are the steps of muscle contraction on the myosin level?

A

Release of calcium moves troponin and tropomyosin out of way, ATP is bound to myosin, ATP hydrolysis causing cocking and release which attached myosin to filament and pulls the actin toward M line, ADP and phosphate are released and ATP binds again

Anatomy (26 decks)

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