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Pharmacology > gi pharm > Flashcards

gi pharm Flashcards

1
Q

imagine the curves for insulins

A

rapid acting, regular, nph, determir, glargine

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2
Q

all insulins can be used in?

A

type 1, type 2, and gestational diabetes

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3
Q

side effects of insulin

A

hypoglycemia, lipodystrophy, rare hypersensitivyt reacitons

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4
Q

insulin rapid actings

A

lispro, aspart, glulisine

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5
Q

which insulins do not have AA modifications?

A

nph and regular insulin, the others all do.

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6
Q

when do you use rapid acting insulin?

A

pre meal

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7
Q

what do you call rapid acting insulin?

A

analogs

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8
Q

what is regular insulin additonally useful for?

A

DKA (IV), and HHS, hyperkalemia (+glucose), stress hyperglycemia

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9
Q

names of long acting

A

detemir, glargine

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10
Q

name the biguanides

A

metformin

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11
Q

metformin never causes

A

hypoglycemia

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12
Q

metformin stimulates

A

AMPK = adenosine monophosphate kinase

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13
Q

metforming advantage

A

modest weight loss, can be used in pts with islet fxn loss (good in advanced type 2)

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14
Q

avoid metformin with?

A

aminoglycosides

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15
Q

metformin mechanisms

A

inhhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis, and the actions of glucagon (remember wants to raise blood sugar)

increase glycoylisis in tissues (use up sugar)

increase peripheral glucose uptake by increasing sensitivity

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16
Q

metformin mechanisms

A

inhhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis, and the actions of glucagon (remember wants to raise blood sugar)

increase glycoylisis in tissues (use up sugar)

increase peripheral glucose uptake by increasing sensitivity

reduces GI absorption

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17
Q

metformin mechanisms

A

inhhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis, and the actions of glucagon (remember wants to raise blood sugar)

increase glycoylisis in tissues (use up sugar)

increase peripheral glucose uptake by increasing sensitivity (insulin falls slightly)

reduces GI absorption

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18
Q

metformin held in?

A

ill and those undergoing radiocontrast

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19
Q

a favorable cardiovascuar effect of metformin

A

decrease triglycerides, and ldl and increase HDL

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20
Q

first gen sulfaonyureas

A

chlorpropamide, tolbutamide, tolazamide

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21
Q

first gen sulfaonyureas

A

chlorpropamide, tolbutamide, tolazamide

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22
Q

2nd gen

A

glimepiride, glipizide, glyburide

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23
Q

sulfaonyureas also called

A

insuling secragouges

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24
Q

sulfaonyureas CI in

A

hepatic failure

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25
Q

long ancting 2nd gen sulfaonyureas

A

glimepiride and glyburide (increased risk of hypoglycemia)

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26
Q

short acting 2nd gen sulfaonyureas

A

glipizide (decreased risk of hypoglycemia)

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27
Q

sulfaonyureas additional side effect you always foregt

A

sulfa allergy

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28
Q

what is first line therapy in type 2?

A

metofrmin

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29
Q

clinical use sulfaonyureas

A

stimulates insuling release in type 2 diabetes, so useless in type 1

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30
Q

sulfaonyureas mech

A

works on atp depedent k channels -> closes them -> cell deplorizes -> influx of ca -> insulin release

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31
Q

sulfaonyureas side effecsts

A

risk of hypoglycemia (why prefer metofrming), risk increased in renal failure.

1st gen -> disulfarim like affects and siadh

2nd gen hypoglycemia

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32
Q

sulfaonyureas mech of hypoglycemia

A

decreased glucagon somehow

exercise or skip meals

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33
Q

what sulfaonyureas to usse in mild to moderate renal failure?

A

glimeperide, mostly hepatic clearence and has low risk of causing hypoglycemia (think about the renal failue)

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34
Q

glitazones/thiazolidinediones

A

pioglitazone/rosiglitazone -gliazones

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35
Q

glitazones/thiazolidinediones use

A

monotherapy for type 2 or combined with metformin of sufonureas

36
Q

glitazones/thiazolidinediones safe in?

A

renal failure

37
Q

glitazones/thiazolidinediones side effects

A

weight gain from edema and adipogenesis

edema from fluid retention from renaul tubules

edema can cause or exacberate HF

CI in heart failure

can cause pulmonary edema

38
Q

glitazones/thiazolidinediones bind and then?

A

ppa-y and then to retinoind x receptor

39
Q

glitazones/thiazolidinediones pharmacokinetics

A

slow onset because modulates genes

40
Q

meglitinides names

A

341

41
Q

meglitinides use

A

341

42
Q

meglitinides mech

A

341

43
Q

meglitinides affects

A

341

44
Q

the two classes that are type 2 injectables

A

glp-1 analogs, amylin analogs

45
Q

glp 1 analogs names

A

341

46
Q

glp 1 analogs use

A

341

47
Q

glp 1 analogs mech

A

341

48
Q

glp 1 analogs affects

A

341

49
Q

dpp-4 inhibitors names

A

341

50
Q

dpp-4 inhibitors use

A

341

51
Q

dpp-4 inhibitors

A

341

52
Q

dpp-4 inhibitors affects

A

341

53
Q

amylin analog dosage schdule

A

meal time i think

54
Q

amyline analog names

A

341

55
Q

amyline analog use

A

341

56
Q

amyline analog side effect

A

341

57
Q

amyline analog mech

A

341

58
Q

sglt 2 inhibitors names

A

341

59
Q

sglt 2 inhibitors CI

A

341

60
Q

sglt 2 inhibitors use

A

341

61
Q

sglt 2 inhibitors mechanism

A

341

62
Q

sglt 2 inhibitors side effects

A

341

63
Q

a glucosidase inhibitors name

A

341

64
Q

a glucosidase inhibitors use

A

341

65
Q

a glucosidase inhibitors dosing schedule

A

341

66
Q

a glucosidase inhibitors action

A

341

67
Q

a glucosidase inhibitors side effcts

A

341

68
Q

read about thyroid meds

A

341

69
Q

levothyroxine and triiodothyronine use

A

342

70
Q

levothyroxine and triiodothyronine effects

A

342

71
Q

adh antagonists names

A

conivaptan, tolvaptan (demeclocycline is one too)

72
Q

adh antagonists uses

A

SIADH, block at at v2 receptors

73
Q

desmospressin acetate uses

A

dont forget mild hemophilia A

74
Q

GH

A

deficiency, turner syndrome

75
Q

oxytocin uses

A

342

76
Q

somatostatin (ocreotide)

A

acromegaly, carcinoid, gastrinoma, glucagonoma, esophageal varices

77
Q

demeclocycline mech

A

342

78
Q

demeclocycline use

A

342

79
Q

demeclocycline adverse effects

A

342

80
Q

fludrocortisone meach

A

342

81
Q

fludrocortisone use

A

342

82
Q

fludrocortisone side effects

A

342

83
Q

cinacalcet mech

A

342

84
Q

cinacalcet use

A

342

85
Q

cinacalcet effects

A

342

86
Q

treating hypoglycemia

A

342

Pharmacology (33 decks)

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