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GI/Nutritional Disorders > General Gastroenterology of Small Animals and Equine > Flashcards

General Gastroenterology of Small Animals and Equine Flashcards

1
Q

What causes gastric ulcers in pigs?

A

Housing stress, type of feed, concurrent disease

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2
Q

What clinical signs will you see in pigs with gastric ulcers?

A

Pale mucous membranes, dark feces

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3
Q

Which age of pigs are most commonly affected by gastric ulcers?

A

Growing pigs

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4
Q

What will you find on necropsy of a pig with gastric ulscers?

A

Clotted blood in the stomach and duodenum

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5
Q

Which part of the stomach is most often affected by gastric ulcers in pigs?

A

Pars esophagea portion

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6
Q

What type of muscle is the canine esophagus composed of?

A

Completely striated muscle

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7
Q

What type of muscle is the feline esophagus composed of?

A

2/3 striated, 1/3 smooth muscle

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8
Q

What stomach cells produce HCl?

A

Parietal cells

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9
Q

What is HCl produced in response to?

A

Gastrin

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10
Q

What cells produce gastrin?

A

G-cells in the antrum

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11
Q

What drug do we use to induce emesis in cats?

A

Xylazine

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12
Q

What drug stimulates appetite in small animals?

A

Cyproheptadine

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13
Q

What type of obstruction is an intussusception?

A

Mechanical

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14
Q

What is the most common site for an intussusception in a dog?

A

Ileocolic

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15
Q

What type of feces will you see with an intussusception?

A

Scant, bloody diarrhea

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16
Q

What history is usually important for diagnosing an intussusception in small animals?

A

History of recent enteritis

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17
Q

What type of radiographs are helpful for diagnosing an intussusception?

A

Barium study

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18
Q

How do you ddx a rectal prolapse vs. colorectal intussusception?

A

Probe protruding tissue - short distance = prolapse

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of rectal prolapse in kittens?

A

GI parasites cause severe D+ w/straining

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20
Q

How do you treat a rectal prolapse?

A

Manual reduction, dextrose solution to decr. edema

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21
Q

How do you treat an intussusception?

A

Exploratory surgery

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22
Q

What causes gastric ulcers in small animals?

A

Steroids and NSAIDs, liver failure

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23
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers in small animals?

A

Omeprazole

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24
Q

What is the MoA of omeprazole?

A

Proton pump inhibitor

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25
Q

How do NSAIDs cause gastric ulcers?

A

Compromise mucus-bicarbonate protection of stomach

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26
Q

How does liver failure cause gastric ulcers?

A

Decr. mucosal blood flow

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27
Q

Chronic anorexia w/intermittent V+/D+ and wt loss might indicate what GI disease?

A

IBD

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28
Q

What will you see on ultrasound of IBD?

A

Multi-focal/diffuse thickening of small intestine

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29
Q

Which layer of the small intestine is most affected by IBD?

A

Muscularis layer

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30
Q

How does IBD histopathology appear?

A

Lymphoplasmacytic inflammation of GIT

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31
Q

Ho do you treat IBD?

A

STEROIDS

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32
Q

Which corticosteroid concentrates in the GIT and produces fewer systemic effects?

A

Budesonide

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33
Q

What immunosuppresive medication is used only in dogs to treat unresponsive IBD?

A

Azithioprine

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34
Q

What clinical signs will accompany an upper GI obstruction/FB?

A

Lethargy, anorexia, V+

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35
Q

How will bloods be affected by an upper GI obstruction/FB?

A

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis (low Cl, high TCO2)

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36
Q

How do you treat an upper GI obstruction/FB?

A

Stabilize w/fluids + enterotomy/gastrotomy

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37
Q

How can xylazine sedation cause colic in horses?

A

Causes inhibition of intestinal motility

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38
Q

Where do you perform an abdominocentesis on a horse and why?

A

R of midline to avoid the spleen

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39
Q

What are shock organs in a horse?

A

Lungs and colon

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40
Q

What is normal abdominal fluid in horses?

A

Yellow, TNCC <5000/uL, TP <2.5mg/dL

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41
Q

When a horse undergoes anaphylaxis, what type of clinical signs will you see?

A

Resp and lower GI signs

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42
Q

How do you treat anaphylaxis in a horse?

A

Epinephrine, antihistamine, steroids

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43
Q

If a horse w/colic regurgitates, what is the prognosis?

A

Guarded to poor

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44
Q

What are likely causes of regurgitation in foals?

A

Gastric ulcers, cleft palate, incoordination of swallow reflex

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45
Q

Colic in miniature horses is most commonly caused by what?

A

Small colon impaction

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46
Q

Acute onset of colic, gastric reflux, absent GI sounds and red mucous membranes indicate what type of colic in a horse?

A

Small intestine obstruction

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47
Q

What pH of gastric reflux suggests that small intestinal contents are refluxing into the stomach?

A

pH >5

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48
Q

What causes a small intestine obstruction in a horse?

A

Strangulating lipoma, mesenteric rent, epiploic foramen incarceration

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49
Q

In what age of horses are lipomas more common?

A

Middle age to older

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50
Q

Why must you tube a colicking horse?

A

Horses are unable to vomit to relieve life-threatening reflux pressure

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51
Q

Duodenitis-proximal jejunitis (DJP) may be related to what infection?

A

Clostridium dificile

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52
Q

What does a DJP resemble?

A

Small intestinal obstruction

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53
Q

Is DJP surgical?

A

No, responds better to medical tx

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54
Q

What color is gastric reflux in DPJ?

A

Orange-brown and foul smelling

55
Q

How do you treat DJP?

A

IVFT, analgesics, correct acid-base abnorms

56
Q

Where does a left dorsal colon displacement get trapped?

A

Over nephrosplenic ligament between the spleen and left body wall

57
Q

Which horses are predisposed to nephrosplenic entrapment?

A

Large horses

58
Q

Will gastric reflux be present with a nephrosplenic entrapment?

A

No

59
Q

How can you dx a nephrosplenic entrapment on U/S?

A

Unable to see L kidney but can see colon on L side

60
Q

What medication can you give to treat a nephrosplenic entrapment?

A

Phenylephrine

61
Q

How does phenylephrine help treat a nephrosplenic entrapment?

A

Contracts the spleen to give the colon more room to move back to it’s normal place

62
Q

On a rectal palpation, which side of the body is the colon on?

A

Right side

63
Q

What causes R dorsal colitis?

A

Chronic NSAID use

64
Q

How is the kidney affected by chronic NSAID use in hoses?

A

Renal medullary crest necrosis/renal papillary necrosis

65
Q

What GI parasite of horses cause thrombosis or arteritis of the cranial mesenteric artery and leads to infarction of bowel and colic?

A

Stronglylus vulgaris

66
Q

Which GI parasites of horses migrate through the portal vein to the liver and then to the gut?

A

Strongylus edentatus and equinus

67
Q

How do you treat Strongylus in horses?

A

Ivermectin, fenbendazole

68
Q

Which horses are predisposed to enteroliths?

A

Arabians in CA and FL

69
Q

What type of feed is considered to play a role in enterolith formation in horses?

A

Alfalfa hay/high Magnesium

70
Q

What type of enteroliths do alfalfa hay-fed horses usually get?

A

Mg ammonium phosphate

71
Q

How do you treat a sand enteropathy?

A

Psyllium

72
Q

First intestinal discharge of a newborn foal

A

Meconium

73
Q

How soon after birth does a meconium impaction occur?

A

Withing 24h

74
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in a foal?

A

Meconium impaction

75
Q

How do you treat a meconium impaction?

A

Acetylcystine enema, warm water/soap enema

76
Q

How does acetylcystine treat a meconium impaction?

A

Cleaves disulfide bonds to break it down

77
Q

Which part of the GIT is most commonly affected by sand enteropathy?

A

R dorsal colon

78
Q

Where in the stomach of a horse do gastric ulcers occur and why?

A

Squamous region, horses constantly secrete gastric fluid

79
Q

What predisposes a horse to gastric ulceration?

A

Administration of 2 NSAIDs together

80
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers in a horse?

A

Omeprazole

81
Q

Damaged bowel leaking protein into the gut is termed a _____

A

Protein losing enteropathy

82
Q

How will bloods be changed in a horse with PLE?

A

Normal PCV, low TP/albumin

83
Q

How do you treat a PLE?

A

IV plasma (raise protein w/o raising PCV)

84
Q

What is a choke?

A

Obstruction in the esophagus

85
Q

What feeds predispose a horse to choke?

A

Pellets/cubes, beet pulp, grass clippings

86
Q

What is a telltale sign of choke?

A

Food coming out of nostrils

87
Q

Why should you NOT treat a choke with mineral oil?

A

Aspiration pneumonia

88
Q

At what age does foal heat diarrhea occur?

A

7-14d of age

89
Q

Mild diarrhea in foals 7-14d old

A

Foal heat diarrhea

90
Q

Offspring of Paint mares who give birth to all white foals

A

Lethal white syndrome

91
Q

How does lethal white syndrome affect a foal?

A

Agangliosis of intestines = constipation, megacolon, colic, death

92
Q

Where might a linear FB anchor?

A

Under tongue or at pylorus

93
Q

How does a linear FB affect the intestines?

A

Plication

94
Q

Acute onset V+, anorexia, dehydration, and painful abdomen in a cat might indicate what abnormality?

A

Foreign body

95
Q

What causes a megacolon in cats?

A

Chronic stretching of colon from feces impactions

96
Q

Colon can no longer move feces out of the body

A

Megacolon

97
Q

Causes chronic constipation, straining, obstipation in cats

A

Megacolon

98
Q

How do you medically manage megacolon in cats?

A

Enema, lacutlose, cisapride, psyllium

99
Q

How do you surgically treat megacolon in cats?

A

Subtotal colectomy

100
Q

What artery limits the amount of colon you can resect in a cat?

A

Ileocolic artery

101
Q

Which junction is preserved with a subtotal colectomy?

A

Ileocolic junction

102
Q

How do you treat a hairball problem in cats?

A

Laxatone, high quality diet

103
Q

Which dog breed gets familial hyperlipidemia/hypertriglyceridemia?

A

Mini Schnauzers

104
Q

What does familial hyperlipidemia presdispose to?

A

Seizures, pancreatitis, acute blindness

105
Q

How do you manage familial hyperlipidemia?

A

Low-fat diet

106
Q

What causes megaesophagus in dogs?

A

Myasthenia gravis, PRAA, thymoma

107
Q

What test do you do to dx myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium test

108
Q

What are clinical signs of megaesophagus in dogs?

A

Regurgitation, choking on saliva and bringing up white foam

109
Q

What will you see on megaesophagus rads?

A

Distended esophagus, tracheal stripe sign, aspiration pneumonia

110
Q

How do you treat megaesophagus?

A

Small, frequent, elevated feedings, high-calorie diet

111
Q

What meds can sometimes stimulate esophageal peristalsis?

A

Metaclopramide and cisapride

112
Q

How do you treat myasthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine

113
Q

Twisting of intestines on themselves at the rood of the mesentery

A

Mesenteric volvulus

114
Q

Acute life-threatening disease that presents as severe abd pain, shock, gas distention

A

Mesenteric volvulus

115
Q

How do you dx a septic peritonitis?

A

Peritoneal glucose >20mg/dL LESS than blood glucose

116
Q

How do you treat esophagitis?

A

Sucralfacte

117
Q

Which dogs are predisposed to perianal fistulas?

A

GSD, irish setter, labs

118
Q

How do you treat perianal fistulas?

A

Cyclosporine (immunosuppressive drugs)

119
Q

What is the px of a perianal fistula surgery?

A

Guarded d/t fecal incontinence

120
Q

What is a perianal adenoma?

A

Hepatoid tumor

121
Q

Which dogs are more likely to get perianal adenomas and why?

A

Intact males b/c tumor is testosterone-dependent

122
Q

How do you tx perianal adenomas?

A

Castration

123
Q

What is lymphangiectasia?

A

PLE

124
Q

Dilation and dysfunction of intestinal lymphatics and leakage of protein-rich lymph into the intestine

A

PLE

125
Q

What components of metabolism are lost to lymphagiectasia?

A

Protein, cholesterol, lymphocytes

126
Q

How will bloodwork change with lymphagiectasia?

A

Panhypoproteinemia, low Ca

127
Q

What type of hernias are older, intact male dogs predisposed to?

A

Perineal hernias

128
Q

What is a factor in the occurrence of a perineal hernia?

A

Hormone-weakened pelvic diaphragm

129
Q

Which dogs are most likely to get inguinal hernias and how?

A

Male dogs, congenital or from trauma

130
Q

What structures make up the internal inguinal ring?

A

Inguinal lig, rectus abdominus, internal abd. oblique

131
Q

What structures make up the external inguinal ring?

A

External abd. oblique

132
Q

What is the cause of an umbilical hernia?

A

Congenital failure/delayed fusion of rectus abdominis muscle

133
Q

When should a congenital umbilical hernia resolve on its own?

A

By 6mo of age

GI/Nutritional Disorders (29 decks)

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