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Microbiology > FINALS REVIEW > Flashcards

FINALS REVIEW Flashcards

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1
Q

Antisepsis

A

reduction in the number of microbes + viruses on LIVING tissue

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2
Q

Aseptic

A

refers to an environment/procedure free of pathogenic contaminants

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3
Q

Disinfection

A

destruction of most microbes + viruses on NONliving tissues

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4
Q

Sanitation

A

removal of pathogens from objects to meet public health standards

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5
Q

-stasis / -static

A

suffixed indicating inhibition, but not complte destruction, or a type of microbe

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6
Q

-cide / -cidal

A

suffixes indicating destruction of a type of microbe

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7
Q

Sterilization

A

destruction of all microbes + viruses in/on an object

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8
Q

Degerming

A

removal of microbes by mechanical means

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9
Q

Endemic

A

a disease that is constantly present in low numbers in a population

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10
Q

Epidemic

A

a disease occurring in an unusually high number of individuals in a population at the same time

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11
Q

Pandemic

A

a worldwide endemic

-a disease occurring in an unusually high number of individuals in the world at the same time

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12
Q

Macrolides

A

inhibits protein synth (static)
-gram pos, gram neg, chlamydias, rickettsias

aka erythromycin

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13
Q

Erythromycin

A

inhibits protein synth (static)

-gram pos, gram neg, chlamydias, rickettsias

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14
Q

Quinolones

A
  • inhibits DNA/RNA synth (cidal)
  • acts against prokaryotic DNA gyrase
  • aka ciprofloxacin
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15
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A
  • inhibits DNA/RNA synth (cidal)
  • acts against prokaryotic DNA gyrase
  • aka quinolones/fluoroquinolones
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16
Q

Acyclovir

A
  • an antiviral medication (mostly for herpes)

- help control the disease but DOES NOT CURE IT

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17
Q

Antibodies

A
  • aka immunoglobulin
  • secreted by plasma cells
  • contains antigen-binding site
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18
Q

5 Classes of Antibodies/Immunoglobulins (Ig)

A 
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgM
IgD
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19
Q

IgM

A
  • first antibody produced

- pentameric/largest

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20
Q

IgM

A
  • most common + longest lasting

- can cross placenta

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21
Q

IgM

A
  • associated w body secretions
  • dimer/trimer
  • saliva, tears, intestinal + bronchial mucus, + breast milk
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22
Q

IgM

A

involved in response to parasitic infections and allergies

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23
Q

IgM

A

IgDumb

unknown functions

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24
Q

Inflammation

A
  • redness, heat, swelling, pain

- nonspecific response to tissue damage fr various causes

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25
Q

acute inflammation for second line of defense

A
  • dilation increased permeability of blood vessels
  • migration of phagocytes
  • tissue repair
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26
Q

innate immunity

A

aka non specific immunity

  • body’s first line of defense
  • structures, chem, + processes that work to prevent pathogens that are entering the body
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27
Q

structures of innate immunity

A
  • skin

- mucous membrane: respiratory, digestive, urinary, + reproductive sytm

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28
Q

chemicals of innate immunity

A

-natural proteases

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29
Q

processes of innate immunity

A

phagocytic cells

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30
Q

Adaptive Immunity

A
  • body’s ability to recognize + defend itself fr distinct invaders+ their products
  • ACQUIRED immunity bc they become activated (LYMPHOCYTE require exposure to the antigen for which they are specific)
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31
Q

5 attributes of adaptive immunity

A 
1 specificity; acquired immunity
2 inducibility
3 clonality
4 unresponsiveness to self
5 memory
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32
Q

2 types of adaptive immune response

A

1 humoral immune response

2 cell-mediated immune response

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33
Q

2 types of Acquired Immunity

A

Naturally Acquired
Artificially Acquired

-further distinguished as either ACTIVE or PASSIVE

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34
Q

Naturally Acquired Immunity

A
  • response against antigens encountered in daily life
  • passive (placenta)
  • active (infection)
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35
Q

Artificially Acquired Immunity

A
  • response to antigens introduced via vaccine
  • passive (serotherapy)
  • active (vaccination)
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36
Q

Septicemia

A

any microbial infection of the blood that produces an illness

  • caused more often by G- bacteria
  • bacteria that produce CAPSULES may resist phagocytosis
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37
Q

Septic Shock

A
  • complication fr septicemia

- serious drop in blood pressure

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38
Q

Septicemia

signs + symptoms

A
  • fever, chills, vomit, diarrhea, malaise, disseminated IV clotting, hypotension
  • septic shock can develop rapidly
  • petechiae can develop
39
Q

Petechiae

A

small hemorrhagic lesions

-may develop fr septicemia

40
Q

Toxemia Toxins

A

1 EXOTOXIN
2 ENDOTOXIN

*toxemia symptoms vary depending on the toxin

41
Q

Endotoxin

A

released fr G- bacteria

42
Q

Exotoxin

A

released fr living microbes

43
Q

Exotoxin

A

released fr living microbes

44
Q

bacteremia

A

bacterial septicemia

  • often harmless
  • septicemia is more often caused by GRAM NEG
  • bacterias that produce CAPSULES are MORE RESISTANT
45
Q

toxemia

A

release of bacterial toxins into the blood

46
Q

toxemia

A

release of bacterial toxins into the blood

47
Q

Septicemia, Bacteremia, + Toxemia

prevention

A

prevention includes immediate treatment of infections

-important in individuals w COMPROMISED IMMUNE SYSTM

48
Q

which type of bacteria produces more severe septicemia?

A

GRAM-NEGATIVE

-due to release of ENDOTOXIN as the bacteria die

49
Q

causes epidemic meningitis in college freshman

A

neisseria meningitidis

50
Q

all bacteria that cause meningitis are…

A

encapsulated + airborne (via resp droplets)

51
Q

bacterias that infect cells of the nervous system

A

meningitis

52
Q

bacteria that grow elsewhere in CNS and release toxins that affect neurons

A

botulism + tetanus

53
Q

leading cause of meningitis in newborns

A

S. agalactiae

-acquired during birth

54
Q

bacteria that is present in throat of 75% of humans

A

S. pneumoniae

55
Q

individuals at risk for listeriosis should avoid….

A

high risk food

56
Q

top 3 bacterial meningitis

A

1 streptococcus pneumoniae
2 neisseria meningitidis
3 haemophilus influenzae

57
Q

3 forms of botulism

A

1 foodborne
2 infant
3 wound

58
Q

which is the most common form of botulism in the U.S.

A

infant botulism

59
Q

clostridium botulinum neurotoxins causes flaccid paralysis (botulism) by…

A

blocking the EXCITATORY neurotransmitters at the neuromuscular junctions

60
Q

tetanospasmin

A
  • released by Clostridium tetani endospores

- blocks the release of INHIBITORY neurotransmitters at neuromuscular junction

61
Q

how is viral meningitis diagnosed?

A

diagnosed by the same signs + symptoms as bacterial meningitis BUT IN THE ABSENCE OF BACTERIA IN CSF

62
Q

septicemia is more often caused by what type of bacteria

A

gram negative bacteria

-gram neg produces more severe septicemia due to release of endotoxins as bacteria dies

63
Q

most reported vector-borne disease in U.S.

A

lyme disease

64
Q

potential effects of ENDOTOXIN [lipid A of LPS]

A 
1 inflammation
2 shock
3 disseminated intravascular coagulation [DIC]
4 fever
5 plasma loss, reduction of BP
65
Q

streptokinase

A

virulence factor produced by streptococci pyogenes

  • breaks down blood clots
  • used as thrombolysis med in heart attack or pulmonary embolism
66
Q

streptolysins

A

virulence factor produced by streptococci pyogenes

-lyse blood cells

67
Q

pyrogenic toxins

A

virulence factor produced by streptococci pyogenes

-once in blood, cause fever + shock

68
Q

diptheria toxins

A

produced by corynebacterium

  • prevents polypeptide synth + causes cell death
  • causes signs + symptoms of diphtheria
69
Q

most common cause of diarrhea that sends ppl to the DR in the US

A

Campylobacter jejuni

campylobacter diarrhea

70
Q

diarrhea associated with long-term antibiotic use is caused by…

A

clostridium difficile

-causes antimicrobial associated diarrhea

71
Q

what occurs in severe cases of antimicrobial-associated diarrhea?

A

pseudomembranous colitis

72
Q

outbreaks associated w social functions like picnics

A

bacterial food posioning aka 4 hr food poisoning

caused by staph aureus

73
Q

1 cause of infant deaths from diarrhea

A

viral gastroenteris fr rotavirus

74
Q

which hepatitis virus have vaccines available?

A

HAV + HBV

75
Q

aka infectious hepatitis

A

hep A virus

76
Q

aka serum hepatitis

A

hep B virus

77
Q

amongst different ages, newborns are most likely to develop a chronic infection with hep __

A

hep B

78
Q

co-infections with these 2 hep viruses results in most severe acute liver damage

A

HBV + HDV

79
Q

female urinary tract is separate from..

A

the reproductive system

80
Q

normal floras in urinary system

A

lactobacillus + staphylococcus

81
Q

4 phases of syphilis

A 
1 primary (chancre lesion)
2 secondary (generalized rash)
3 latent
4 tertiary (neurosyphilis)
82
Q

which phase of syphilis is difficult to diagnose?

A

tertiary (neurosyphilis)

83
Q

conjunctivitis in newborns born from post vaginal delivery from mothers w gonorrhea

A

Ophthalmia Neonatorum

84
Q

chancre

A

is a painless genital ulcer most commonly formed during the primary stage of syphilis

85
Q

lymphogranuloma venereum

A

occurs in chlamydia

causes a genital lesion + bubo in groin

86
Q

various strains of chlamydia cause…

A

infections of lymph nodes, conjuctiva, + lungs

87
Q

most common reportable bacterial std in US

A

chlamydia

88
Q

1 cause of std in the US

A

HPV - genital warts aka condylomata acuminata

89
Q

2 serotypes of HIV

A

HIV 1 (europe, central africa, americas)

HIV 2 (w africa, India)

90
Q

opportunistic infections become a problem in which stage of HIV

A

stage 4-5

91
Q

trichomoniasis

pathogen

A

trichomonas vaginalis

92
Q

trichomoniasis

signs + sympt

A

W-vaginal discharge + irritation

M-asymptomatic

93
Q

trichomoniasis

epidemiology

A
  • most common curable STD in women

- trichomoniasis increases risk of HIV infection

94
Q

trichomoniasis

D T

A

D-presence of trichomonas in samples

T-single dose metronidazole

Microbiology (26 decks)

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