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Bact > FINAL REVIEW- Gastrointestinal system Urogenital system > Flashcards

FINAL REVIEW- Gastrointestinal system Urogenital system Flashcards

1
Q

Actinobacillosis

A

Wooden Tongue in cattle

Granumaltous

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2
Q

Prototheca is a

A

algea

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3
Q

Actinomycosis

A

mainly infects bone

Lumpy jaw- actinmycosis bovis

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4
Q

Calf diptheria

A

throat infection

Fuscobacterium necrophorum

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5
Q

Clostridial entertoxemia

A

Clostirium perfernents

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6
Q

Colibacillosis/Colisepticemia

A

E. coli

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7
Q

Johne’s disease

A

Mycobacterium avian subs psuedotuberculosis

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8
Q

What are the 3 most common GI diseases in sheep and goats?

A

Sheep and goats
Johnes disease

Clostridial Enterotoxemia

Salmonellosis

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9
Q

Edema Disease in pigs

A

Shiga toxin producing E. coli

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10
Q

Porcine Proliferative enteropathy

A

Lawsonia intercelluaris

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11
Q

Swine dysentry

A

Bracyspria hyodystenery

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12
Q

What bacteria is responsible for enterotoxemia in animals?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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13
Q

What is a very common GI disease in horses?

A

Salmonellosis

when horses are under stress, then they get this very easily

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14
Q

Potomac horse fever

A

neorickestesia

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15
Q

Rhodococcus equi

A

foal pnenumonia, but can have severe lymphatdidis and gastrointerositis

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16
Q

Tyzzer’s disease

A

gram negative clostridium

in rodents and sometimes in horses

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17
Q

Histoplasmosis

A

Dogs;

GI

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18
Q

What would you think about in dogs for a chronic hemorragic dirrahea vs actue hemorragic dirrahea

A

Prothecosis- chronic hemorragic dirrahea

Clostridial enteritis- Hemorrage acute diarrhea

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19
Q

When can you get Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium difficile?

A

Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium difficile: Antibiotic induced

diarrheas in horses and rabbits (lincomycin/clindamycin)

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20
Q

Enterotoxemia

A

Clostridium perfringens (types A, B, C, D and E); Enterotoxemia

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21
Q

Salmonella (various serovars) in pigs, cattle, and horses can cause

A

Salmonella (various serovars) in pigs, cattle, and horses can cause chronic enteritis/ colitis

serovar that comes uncooked eggs- salmonella enteristis

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22
Q

Button shaped ulcers

A

Button shaped ulcers due to bacterial toxin induced vasculitis and thrombosis of vessels and focal infarcts

SALMONELLA or Bracyspira or classical swine fever

23
Q

Potomac horse fever in horses

A

Potomac horse fever in horses
Equine monocytic ehrlichiosis,
Neorickettsia risticii infects epithelial cells, macrophages, monocytes Vectors;Snails and flies
Seasonal occurrence (May to September)
Necrotizing enterocolitis

24
Q

What is the target cell for Rickesetia?

A

Endothelium- that’s why they hemorrage

25
Q

Erlichia and Anaplasam

A

WBC are the targets

26
Q

Salmon poisoning in dogs

A

Salmon poisoning in dogs

Fatal granulomatous enterocolitis in dogs and foxes

Ingestion salmon carrying fluke Nanophyetus salmincola infected with Neorickettsia helminthoeca

Necrosis of the Lymphoreticular system and hemorrhagic diarrhea

27
Q

Rhodoccocus equi

A

Rhodoccocus equi enterocolitis and mesenteric lymphadenitis in foals

28
Q

Diagnosis of Enteric Disease

A

Enteric disease: Fecal sample for culture
Adequate amount of samples collected in a screw cap container and shipped to the lab under refrigeration conditions Biopsy and histopathology Fungal serology

29
Q

Why can’t you use a red top serum for fecal samples?

A

it’s vacu-sealed!

30
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum in cattle; liver abscess

31
Q

What else can cause liver abscesses?

A

Tuberculosis in cattle; granuloma

Bacillary hemoglobinuria, Clostridium hemolyticum

32
Q

Clostridium novyi

A

Infectious necrotic hepatitis in cattle and cattle ; Black disease, Clostridium novyi(type B) Associated with liver fluke migration

33
Q

Tyzzer’s disease

A

foals and lab animals; liver abscess

34
Q

What is the best samples to collect for salmonella in food animals?

A

Gallbladder

35
Q

Camylobactor’s characteristic lesion?

A

Doughnut shaped lesions in the liver

36
Q

Listeriosis hepatisis

A

ruminants; get infected sepeticemia and hepatitis

in very young calves: necrotizing hepatic necrosis

37
Q

are UTI’s more common in dogs or cats?

A

dogs

38
Q

Diagnosis of urinary tract infections

A

Culture and urine analysis

Urine collection by cystocentesis, Catheterization , Midstream catch

Refrigerated/Preserved

If transportation is delayed plate in the clinic and send if there is growth

Send samples before the initiation of antibiotic therapy. If you already have mention that in the submission form

Interpretation of results
• Dogs;100,000 (105)CFU of bacteria (single species)/ ml of urine • Cats; >103
• Always compare results from urine analysis and culture

39
Q

Leptospirosis;

A

Leptospirosis; Lymphoplasmacytic tubulointerstitial nephritis(Serum chemistry indicating renal failure)

like to be in the renal tubules

40
Q

Actinbacillus equuli

A

sleepy foal disease

emoblic nephritis

41
Q
A

Actinobacillus equuli

Embolic nephritis

42
Q

Clostridium perfringens type D

A

Pulpy kidney disease in sheep-Clostridium perfringens type D in enterotoxemia

43
Q

White spotted kidney

A

White spotted kidney in calves interstitial nephritis following bacteremia and septicaemia(E.coli)

44
Q

Porcine pyelonephritis

A

Actinobaculum suis

45
Q

What is the best sample to send in the case of abortion?

A

fetal abomasal fluid

46
Q

What are the two main pathogens suspected in Uterus; metritis, endometritis, pyometra?

A

Pyometra in dogs as a result of endometritis and metritis
• Cystic endometrial hyperplasia after estrus and growth of bacteria,

result in endometritis leading to pyometra • E.coli, Streptococcus

47
Q

How would a dog with Brucellosis present?

A
  • reproductive disorders in a female dog
  • acute orhcitis in a male dog
  • general illness and lymphadenopathy
  • disconspondylitis or oseomyelitis

REMEMBER IT”S ZOONOTIC!

48
Q

Brucella can cause

A
  • Abortion
  • conception failure
  • (due to embryonic death)
  • No interference with estrous cycle
  • Orchitis and epidydymitis
  • Scrotal dermatitis
  • Scrotal enlargement or atrophy

ADR
Lymphadenomegaly Diskospondylitis Osteomyelitis
Polyarthritis Meningoencephalitis
Wide range of ocular disease

49
Q

Scrotal Dermatis is common indicator of….

A

Brucella in dogs

50
Q

Canine Brucellosis

A
  • Canine brucellosis is mainly transmitted during breeding.
  • Nose and mouth contact with vaginal discharge from an infected female. This can occur while the female is in heat, after an abortion, or during whelping.
  • Brucellosis may also be transmitted through semen or urine and can be shed by intact or neutered males for several years in cases of chronic infection.
  • Puppies can become infected from their mother during pregnancy by way of the placenta.
51
Q

What do you want to request/do when you get a canine brucellosis diganostic tests?

A

Serology is key! You want to make sure that you are NOT just testing for Brucella canis because dogs can also get Brucella suis which is from feral swine.

• A serum sample free of hemolysis

  • Send overnight with ice packs
  • Request for brucellosis testing
  • Provide complete history

• Blood for culture( gold standard test) Serology Tests available
Indirect fluorescent antibody test Rapid slide agglutination test

Tube agglutination test
Agar gel immunodiffusion test

52
Q

Treatment for Brucella

A

Expensive, as several weeks of antibiotic therapy are required

Relapse may occur

Spaying/neutering of the dog can reduce transmission risk

Treatment is especially difficult in male dogs as the prostate gland and testicle is chronically infected.

The only proven method for eradication in kennels is to test all dogs and eliminate the confirmed positives.

Tetracycline, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolons

2-4 weeks durations

53
Q

Brucella is a

A

faculatative intercellular gram negative bacteria- it infects macrophages

54
Q

Public health considerations for Brucella

A
  • Brucella suis strains: Highest virulence
  • (Select Agent)

• B. canis: Low asymptomatic disease
Fever chills, fatigue, lymphadenomegaly, weight loss

Bact (34 decks)

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