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Biology I > Final Exam(LO1-LO5) > Flashcards

Final Exam(LO1-LO5) Flashcards

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1
Q

definition: begins with a specific observation and draws a general conclusion

A

inductive reasoning

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2
Q

definition: generalizes a specific fact to all possible examples which may or may not be valid

A

inductive leap

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3
Q

Inductive reasoning goes from what to what?

A

specific observation –> general conclusion

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4
Q

definition: begins with a well established premise and draws conclusions based on that infromation

A

deductive reasoning

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5
Q

This reasoning is hypothesis building

A

inductive reasoning

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6
Q

This reasoning uses theory to make predictions

A

deductive reasoning

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7
Q

Deductive reasoning goes from what to what?

A

general principle –> specific conlcusion

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8
Q

What are the steps of the scientific method?

A
  • an observation or problem leads to a question
  • a testable hypothesis and prediction is developed
  • an experiment is performed
  • data is analyzed
    -conclusions are drawn
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9
Q

definition: a tentative explanation for observation of the natural world

A

scientific hypothesis

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10
Q

What are the critical properties of a scientific hypothesis?

A
  • needs to be tested by observation or experimentation
    -can be rejected if unsupported
  • can never be proven true(just well supported)
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11
Q

definition: a comprehensive explanation of some phenomenon in nature that is supported by facts

A

scientific theory

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12
Q

definition: pure chemical substance consisting of only one atom

A

element

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13
Q

definition: elements responsible for >96%

A

essential elements

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14
Q

definition: elements that are critical but found in small amounts

A

trace elements

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15
Q

definition: number of protons an atom has

A

atomic number

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16
Q

definition: mass of al of the subatomic particles of an atom

A

atomic mass

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17
Q

How do you find the atomic mass?

A

add protons and neutrons

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18
Q

definition: atoms of the same element that have different neutron numbers

A

isotopes

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19
Q

definitio: unstable isotopes that decay over time to more stable isotopes

A

radioisotopes

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20
Q

valence electrons have what?

A

the most eneergy

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21
Q

definition: bond that forms when atoms share valence electrons to fill their valence shells

A

covalent bonds

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22
Q

covalent bonds are what kind of bonds?

A

strong and stable

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23
Q

what are the two types of covalent bonds?

A

nonpolar and polar

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24
Q

definitions: when covalently bonded atoms have similar electronegativities they form

A

nonpolar

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25
Q

definition: when covalently bonded atoms have different electronegativities they form

A

polar covalent bonds

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26
Q

bonds between cations and anions

A

ionic bonds

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27
Q

hydrogen bonds have what kind of attractions

A

weak

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28
Q

definition: bond that forms when a hydrogen atom with a parital positive is attracted to an atom with a partial negative

A

hydrogen bonds

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29
Q

Hydrogen bonds are individually ____, but collectively _____

A

weak; strong

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30
Q

definitions: nonpolar molecules form weak attraction is areas of slight opp charge due to random movement of their electrons

A

van der waal interactions

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31
Q

Are van der waal interactions strong or weak?

A

weak

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32
Q

water is a _____- covalent bond

A

polar

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33
Q

definition: hydrogen bonding to one another

A

cohesion

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34
Q

definition: hydrogen bonding to other substances

A

adhesion

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35
Q

Polar and ionic substances are hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

hydrophilic

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36
Q

nonpolar substances are hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

hydrophobic

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37
Q

acids are proton _____ and yield hydrogen ions

A

donors

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38
Q

bases are proton _____ and yield hydroxide ions

A

acceptors

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39
Q

definition: indicates H+ concentration

A

PH

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40
Q

definition: solutions that have a pH of 7 and equal H+ and OH ion concentration

A

neutral solutions

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41
Q

definition: solutions that have a pH less than 7 and greater H+ ion concentration

A

acidic solutions

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42
Q

definition: solutions that have a pH greater than 7 and greater OH ion concentration

A

base solutions

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43
Q

buffers do what in pH

A

resist changes

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44
Q

What do weak acids and bases do in solution?

A

do not dissociate completely and don’t affect pH dramatically

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45
Q

What system maintains homeostasis in blood pH?

A

vertebrate blood buffer system

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46
Q

example of a weak acid

A

carbonic acid

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47
Q

What does carbonic acid do if blood pH raises?

A

It will donate their H+ ions and lower pH

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48
Q

example of a weak base

A

bicarbonate ions

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49
Q

What do bicarbonate ions do if blood pH lowers?

A

will remove H+ ions from solution which will raise pH

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50
Q

What bond are carbon atoms bonded with to other carbon atoms?

A

covalent bonds

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51
Q

What are the properties of hydrocarbonds?

A
  • contain C and H
  • formed by nonpolar covalent bonds
  • hydrophobic and insoluble
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52
Q

definition: a group of atoms that determines the chemical behavior of a molecule

A

functional group

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53
Q

Name the bond and its property:

O — H

A

Hydroxyl group and polar

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54
Q

Name the bond and its property:

R — CH3

A

Methyl group, nonpolar

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55
Q

Name the bond and its property:

C === O

A

carbonyl group, polar

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56
Q

Name the bond and its property:

C === O — OH (COOH)

A

Carboxyl group, charged, and acidic

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57
Q

Name the bond and its property:

N – H – H (NH2)

A

Amino, charged, basic

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58
Q

Name the bond and its property:

P ==O–OH–OH

A

Phosphate group, charged, acidic

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59
Q

Monomers are covalently bonded through __________ reaction to create polymers

A

condensation

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60
Q

Polymers are degraded by ________ reactions

A

hydrolysis

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61
Q

definition: carbohydrate monomers

A

monosaccharides

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62
Q

monosaccharides have what functional group?

A

hydroxyl group

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63
Q

Monosaccharides are covalently bonded together by what?

A

glycosidic linkages

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64
Q

monosaccharides are what?

A

polar and hydrophilic

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65
Q

examples of energy storage polysaccharides?

A
  • starch in plants
  • glycoogen in animals
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66
Q

examples of structural polysaccharides?

A
  • cellulose in plants
  • chitin in cell walls of fungi and exoskeleton of arthropods
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67
Q

Lipids consists of which atoms?

A

C, H, and O

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68
Q

What properties do Lipids normally have?

A

nonpolar, hydrophobic, and insoluble

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69
Q

definition: the main energy storage for fats

A

triacylglycerols

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70
Q

What are triacylglycerols made of?

A

glycerol + three fatty acids joined by covalent ester linkages

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71
Q

definition: a long unbranched hydrocarbon chain with a carboxyl group at one end

A

fatty acid

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72
Q

definition: fatty acids that have C atoms that are bonded to the max number of H atoms

A

saturated fatty acids

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73
Q

definitions: fatty acids carbons are not fully saturated with H atoms and have at least one C==double bond

A

unsaturated fatty acids

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74
Q

What forms cell membranes?

A

phopholipids

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75
Q

What are phospholipids made of?

A

polar group, phosphate group, glycerol, two fatty acids

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76
Q

What are phospholipids properties?

A

they are amphipathic

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77
Q

What does DNA do?

A

stores information for protein and RNA sequences

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78
Q

What do Nucleic acids do?

A
  • store and transmit hereditary information
  • determine which proteins calls make
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79
Q

What does RNA do?

A

protein synthesis

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80
Q

DNA and RNA are both what?

A

polymers of nucleotides

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81
Q

What are nucleotides made of?

A

nitrogenous base, 5-C monosaccharide, and phosphate group

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82
Q

Single ring pyrimidines

A

Cytosine, thymine, and uracil

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83
Q

double ring purines

A

adenine and guanine

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84
Q

Phosphate groups make DNA and RNA what?

A

acidic and negatively charged

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85
Q

What are nucleotides joined by?

A

phosphodiester linkages

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86
Q

definition: a phosphate group covalently linked to the monosaccharide of the adjacent nucleotide

A

phosphodiester linkage

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87
Q

What is amino acids structure?

A

central C bonded to H, an amino group, carboxyl group, and an R group

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88
Q

Amino acids are classified based on the properties of what?

A

their R groups

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89
Q

amino acids are covalently bonded by _______ bonds

A

peptide bonds

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90
Q

definition: joins the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of another amino acid

A

peptide bond

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91
Q

definition: multiple amino acids covalently bonded by peptide bonds

A

polypeptide

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92
Q

How many levels of organization do proteins have?

A

four

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93
Q

definition: linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bonds

A

primary structure

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94
Q

_______ structure determines a protein’s conformation and function

A

primary

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95
Q

This protein structure is maintained by _________ bonding

A

hydrogen

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96
Q

definition: forms helical coils in a polypeptide

A

a - helix

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97
Q

a-helix provides what?

A

elasticity to proteins

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98
Q

What level of structure is a -helix?

A

secondary

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99
Q

What level of structure is b-pleated sheet?

A

secondary

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100
Q

definition: structure that forms when a polypeptide folds back on itself

A

b-pleated sheet

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101
Q

b-pleated sheets provide what to protein structure?

A

strength

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102
Q

Both of these protein structures are maintained by hydrogen and ionic bonds, and hydrophobic interactions

A

tertiary and quaternary structures

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103
Q

definition: protein structure that is the overall shape of a single polypeptide

A

tertiary

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104
Q

definition: protein structure that happens when two or more polypeptide chains are folded together to form a single protein

A

quaternary strucutre

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105
Q

3 parts of cell theorys

A
  • basic units of life
  • cells come from other cells
  • cells evolved from a common ancestor
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106
Q

surface area in a cell

A

plasma membrane

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107
Q

volume in a cells

A

cytoplasm

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108
Q

Cells need to have a ______ surface area relative to their volume

A

large

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109
Q

What does the plasma membrane do?

A

regulates the movement of material in and out of cells

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110
Q

The volume increases at a _______ rate then its surface area

A

greater

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111
Q

these cells are smaller and less complex compared to eukaryotes

A

prokaryotes

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112
Q

prokaryotes lack what?

A

internal membrane structures including. a nucleus

113
Q

How is a prokaryotes plasma membrane folded?

A

inward to increase surface area

114
Q

Where is DNA found in prokaryotes?

A

nucleoid region

115
Q

What structures do prokaryotic cells have

A

Cell wall, cytoplasm, ribosome, and a cytoskeleton
some have a flagella

116
Q

eukaryotes are larger and more complex than prokaryotes and include what

A

nucleus and membrane enclosed organelles

117
Q

definitions: internal cell membranes divide a cell into compartments that have specific jobs

A

membrane encolsed organelles

118
Q

definition: includes all cell components outside of the nucleus

A

cytoplasm

119
Q

definition: fluid component of the cytoplasm

A

cytosol

120
Q

definition: includes all components within the nucleus

A

nucleoplasm

121
Q

definition: site of transcription and ribosome assembly

A

nucleus

122
Q

definition: forms the nucleus

A

nuclear envelope

123
Q

definition: double membrane that has openings

A

nuclear envelope

124
Q

definition: opening in the nuclear envelope

A

nuclear pores

125
Q

What doe the nuclear pores do?

A

regulate the passage of materials between the nucleoplasm and the cytoplasm

126
Q

chromotin is what?

A

DNA + protein complex

127
Q

definition: where ribosomal subunits are assembles

A

nucleolus

128
Q

definition: individual pieces of chromatin

A

chromosomes

129
Q

What does chromatin do?

A

keeps the long thing DNA from getting tangled

130
Q

definition: nonmembranous organelles made from RNA + proteins

A

ribosomes

131
Q

Ribosomes consists of what?

A

large and small subunit

132
Q

What are ribosomes used for?

A

protein synthesis

133
Q

Where are ribosomes located?

A

in the cytosol or attached to the membranes of the RER or nucleus

134
Q

definition: a network of membrane bound organelles that exchange material with each other through transport vesicles

A

endomembrane systems

135
Q

What is in the endomembrane system?

A
  • plasma membrane
  • nucleus
  • ER
  • Golgi complex
  • lysosomes
  • peroxisomes
  • vesicles and vacuoles
136
Q

definition: a network of folded membranes that is continuous with the outer nuclear envelope

A

ER

137
Q

definition: internal fluid filled space of the ER

A

lumen

138
Q

The ER is the origin of what for a cell?

A

the new membrane

139
Q

definition: involved in protein synthesis because it has ribosomes attached to its outer surface

A

rough ER

140
Q

What happens to proteins that are made on the RER

A

they are folded and modified in the RER lumen

141
Q

the smooth ER makes what?

A

phospholipids, cholesterol and steroid hormones

142
Q

In the liver the smooth ER does what?

A

breaks down glycogen to glucose
and detoxifies the liver

143
Q

definition: modifies and routes proteins from the ER

A

golgi complex

144
Q

What is the golgi complex made up of?

A

stacks of flattened membrane sacs called cisternae

145
Q

What does the golgi complex do to vesicles received from ER?

A

chemically modifies and send them to other parts of the endomembrane system

146
Q

Golgi complex makes what?

A

lysosomes in animal cells and cell wall polysaccharides in plant cells

147
Q

once proteins have been modified in the RER lumen they are transported in vesicles to the ____ face of the Golgi

A

cis

148
Q

After going through the Golgi vesicles bud off from the ___ side of the Golgi

A

trans

149
Q

What happens after vesicles leave trans face of golgi?

A
  • they are transported to plasma membrane in a secretory vesicle and secreted from the cells
  • or they become lysosomes
150
Q

definition: small membranous organelles in animal cells that contain digestive enzymes

A

lysosomes

151
Q

They are digestive organelles

A

lysosomes and peroxisomes

152
Q

definition: small membranous organelles that break down fatty acids and toxins

A

peroxisomes

153
Q

What do lysosomes do?

A

fuse with other vesicles that contain extracellular or intracellular waste and breaks down the contents

154
Q

definition: membranous fluid filled sacs that lack internal strutures

A

vacuoles

155
Q

definition: water fills the large central vacuole to maintain cell firmness

A

turgot pressure

156
Q

evidence shows that mitochondria and chloroplasts descended from?

A

prokaryotes

157
Q

similarities of mitochondria and chloroplasts

A
  • double membrane structure
  • their own DNA and ribosomes
158
Q

mitochondria is the site for what?

A

aerobic respiration

159
Q

definition: folded to increase mitochondrias surface area

A

cristae

160
Q

definition: innermost fluid filled compartment of mitochondria

A

matrix

161
Q

Mitochondria regulares what?

A

apoptosis

162
Q

chloroplasts are the sites of what?

A

photosynthesis

163
Q

definition: contains photosynthetic pigments that capture light energy

A

chloroplasts

164
Q

definition: internal membrane that forms stacks in chloroplasts

A

grana

165
Q

definition: individual sacs in chloroplasts

A

theylakoids

166
Q

definition; fluid filled interior of a thylakoid

A

thylakoid lumen

167
Q

definition: fluid filled space outside of the thylakoids

A

stroma

168
Q

cytoskeleton does what for the cell?

A

shapes, strength and mobility

169
Q

definition: a supporting internal framework of protein filaments

A

cytoskeleton

170
Q

What do intermediate filaments do for cell shape?

A

they strengthen and stabilize it

171
Q

definition: an intermediate filament in vertebrate epithelial cells

A

keratin

172
Q

definition: hollow cylinders made from the protein tubulin

A

microtubules

173
Q

What do microtubules do?

A

shorten or lengthen

174
Q

definition: where microtubules extend from

A

MTOC

175
Q

Each centriole is made up of what arrangement

A

9x3

176
Q

MTOC is made up of ___ centrioles

A

2

177
Q

microtubules form what?

A

the spingle that moves condensed chromosomes

178
Q

cilia and flagella are made form what?

A

microtubules

179
Q

What are microtubules anchored by?

A

basal body

180
Q

cilia and flagella have what kind of arrangement

A

9+2

181
Q

What do microfilaments determine?

A

cell shape and aid movement

182
Q

definition: solid fibers made from the protein actin

A

microfilaments

183
Q

definition: microfilaments that form cell extensions that increase surface area

A

microvilli

184
Q

microfilaments form cell extensions know as what?

A

pseudopodia

185
Q

definition: used to capture particles/cells

A

pseudopodia

186
Q

definition: involved in muscle contraction and the separation of daughter cells during cell division

A

microfilament sliding

187
Q

definition: a gel-like mixture of carbohydrate + fibrous proteins

A

ECM

188
Q

animal cells lack a cell wall but have what?

A

ECM

189
Q

cell membranes are made of a

A

bilayer of phospholipids

190
Q

model where bilayer of phospholipids are constantly in motion

A

fluid mosaic model

191
Q

are self-sealing and fuse with other cell membranes

A

cell membranes

192
Q

when the cell membrane spontaneously round up to form vesicles

A

self-sealing

193
Q

fluidity buffer in animals

A

cholesterol

194
Q

cholesterol at low temperatures

A

acts as a spacer between fatty acid tails

195
Q

cholesterol restricts

A

van der walls interactions solidifying the membrane

196
Q

cholesterol at high temperatures

A

keeps membranes stable by preventing phospholipids from moving to much

197
Q

the ___ group of a cholesterol molecule interacts with the ___ head of a phospholipid to limit its movement

A

polar; polar

198
Q

_____ proteins are firmly embedded in the lipid bilayer

A

integral

199
Q

____ are at either surface of the bilayer

A

peripheral

200
Q

integral proteins are

A

amphipathic

201
Q

some proteins extend from

A

one side of a membrane to the other

202
Q

short carbohydrate chains are often attached to what?

A

to the extracellular surface of membrane lipids and proteins

203
Q

short carbohydrate chains form

A

glycolipids and glycoproteins

204
Q

cell membranes are permeable to

A

small nonpolar and some small polar molecules

205
Q

cell membranes are impermeable to

A

ions and larger polar molecules

206
Q

down their concentration gradient

A

higher to lower concentration

207
Q

particles are uniformly distributed but continue to move

A

dynamic equillibrium

207
Q

diffusion requires a

A

concentration gradient

208
Q

when solutions have an equal solute concentration

A

isotonic

209
Q

cells that have no net water movement

A

isotonic

210
Q

has a higher solute concentration

A

hypertonic solution

211
Q

a concentration gradient is a form of ______ energy

A

potential

212
Q

osmosis is the _____ of water

A

diffusion

213
Q

tendency of a solution to take in water by osmosis

A

osmotic pressure

214
Q

high solute concentration = ____ effective water concentration = ____ osmotic pressure

A

low; high

215
Q

cells will lose water and shrivel

a
hypertonic solution

A
216
Q

_____ proteins form hydrophilic channels for ion and H2O transport

A

Channel

217
Q

definition: if a cell wall is present (i.e. plant cell) the plasma membrane will shrink away from the cell wall

A

plasmolysis

217
Q

cell will take up water and may burst

A

hypotonic

218
Q

has a lower solute concentration

a
hypotonic

A

hypotonic

219
Q

channel proteins that transport H2O across cell membranes

A

aquaporins

220
Q

can be opened and closed in response to stimuli

A

ion channels that are gated

221
Q

___ proteins undergo a conformational change as they transport specific solutes across a cell membrane

A

carrier

222
Q

carrier proteins transport more ____ than channel proteins

A

slowly

223
Q

active transport moves materials from ___ to ____ concentrations

A

low to high

224
Q

_____________ pump transports Na and K ions against their gradient

A

sodium potassium

225
Q

sodium-potassium pump establishes an ______ gradient

A

electrochemical

226
Q

a ______ group from ATP is required for the pump to change shape

A

phosphate

227
Q

ejects substances from cells

A

exocytosis

228
Q

vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane and releases its contents outside the cell

A

exocytosis

229
Q

uptakes molecules or small cells by surrounding them with plasma membrane

A

endocytosis

230
Q

a ______ forms around the engulfed particles

A

vesicle

231
Q

a cell ingests a large particle (bacteria, food)

A

phagocytocis

232
Q

dissolved materials enter a cell enclosed in plasma membrane and gradually leak out

A

pinocytosis

233
Q

in this form of endocytosis membrane proteins with specific receptors bind with specific molecules to bring them into a cell

A

receptor-mediated endoxytosis

234
Q

______ is transported in the blood inside of LDL particles and is taken into cells via ____________

A

cholesterol, receptor mediated endocytosis

235
Q

how is cholesterol transported inside blood

A
  1. LDL particles bind to specific receptors on plasma membrane
    receptors and LDL particles are taken into the cell in a vesicle
    3&4. receptors are recycled back to the plasma membrane via a vesicle
    LDL particles are degraded by lysosomes
236
Q

membrane proteins from adjacent epithelial cells extend into the extracellular matrix and hold cells together

A

anchoring junctions

237
Q

prevent the passage of materials through the extracellular spaces between epithelial cells

A

tight junctions

238
Q

makes the lining of the intestines and blood-brain barrier

A

tight junctions

239
Q

hold cells together and allow for the exchange of ions and small molecules

A

cell junctions

240
Q

membrane proteins form channels between adjacent cell

A

gap junctions

241
Q

this is in animals, cardiac muscles cells, some nerve cells

A

gap junctions

242
Q

openings through the cell walls that connect the cytoplasms of adjacent plant cells

A

plasmodesmata

243
Q

facilitated diffusion is a form of _____ transport

A

passive

244
Q

concentration gradients are established by

A

active transport

245
Q

concentration gradients require

A

energy to build

246
Q

involve membrane proteins that may be linked to their cell’s cytoskeleton

A

cell junctions

247
Q

Four steps of cell signaling

A
  • signal transmission
  • reception
  • signal transduction
  • response
248
Q

definition: cell synthesize and secrete signal molecules that are received by target cells

A

signal transmission

249
Q

definition: one that has a receptor that can bind with a specific signal molecules

A

target cell

250
Q

signal molecules are usually what but can also be what?

A

hydrophilic; hydrophobic

251
Q

examples of signal molecules that are hydrophobic?

A

protein hormones

252
Q

What are examples of signal molecules that are. hydrophilic?

A

steroid hormones

253
Q

What happens if the transmitting cell and target cell are not in close proximity?

A

the signal molecule must be transported through the blood and fluid in animals

254
Q

definition:during this process a signal molecule binds to and activates its specific receptor

A

reception

255
Q

definition: signal molecule once it binds

A

ligand

256
Q

the receptor is usually what?

A

integral plasma membrane protien

257
Q

extracellular domain is for what?

A

binding

258
Q

intracellular domain does what?

A

transmits the infrormation

259
Q

Where are receptors for hydrophobic signal molecules?

A

intracellular in the cytosol or nucleus

260
Q

receptors that are hydrophilic are typically transcription factors that do what?

A

regulate gene expression

261
Q

What are receptors synthesized and degraded by?

A

lysosomes

262
Q

signal transduction is from what to what?

A

extracellular to intracellular signal

263
Q

definition: the information carried by an extracellular signal molecule is converted into an intracellular signal

A

signal transduction

264
Q

What occurs without the signal molecule ever entering the target cell?

A

signal transduction

265
Q

When does signal transduction begin?

A

when the intracellular domain of a receptor is altered due to ligand binding

266
Q

What are the happens after G protein linked receptors are activated

A
  • bind to and activate G proteins
  • which activates the enzyme adenylyl cyclase
  • cyclase catalyzes the formation of the second messenger cAMP
267
Q

defintion: small molecules produced in large quantities that help relay and amplify the signal inside a cell

A

second messengers

268
Q

during the signal transduction process what happens to the signal?

A

it is amplified

269
Q

What does cAMP do?

A

activates a protein kinase

270
Q

definition: enzymes that activate other proteins by phosphorylating them

A

kinases

271
Q

definition: enzymes the remove p groups from proteins typically deactivating them

A

phosphatases

272
Q

What is cholera caused by?

A

unterminated cell signals

272
Q

What happens when someone has cholera?

A
  • the toxin binds to G protein linked receptors in epithelial cells (sustained activation of G protiens)
  • results in production of too many cAMP molecules that activate too many protein kinases
  • kinases control Cl- ion channels ( too many Cl- leave)
  • water leaves by osmosis and people have severe diarrhea and dehydration
273
Q

What are the cell responses from cell signaling?

A
  • ion channels may open or close
  • enzyme activity may be changed
  • genes can be activated or repressed
274
Q

what happens when ion channels open or close?

A

motor neuron release ACh that bind to receptors
the binding opens Na+ channels which may result in muscle contraction

275
Q

what happens when enzyme activity may be changed?

A

bacteria release molecules that bind to receptors and the binding activates enzymes that assemble microfilaments

276
Q

What happens when genes can be activated or repressed?

A

steroid hormones bind to intracellular receptors that then bind to DNA to turn genes on or off controlling development

Biology I (15 decks)

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