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A&PII > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

When is erythropeoietin stimulated and what does it do?

A

EPO is stimulated with there are low blood oxygen levels. it is released by the kidneys and stimulates red blood marrow of the long bone to increase RBC’s. more red blood cells will increase the o2 carrying ability of the blood.

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2
Q

Hemocytoblasts

A

the stem cells where all blood cells originate. they are in the bone marrow of the long bones

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3
Q

erythropoiesis

A

the synthesis of red blood cells

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4
Q

hematopoiesis is _______ it occurs in the _________

A

blood cell formation, red bone marrow

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5
Q

primary function of red blood cells?

A

carry oxygen through the body.

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6
Q

what is the protein in blood that makes it red and binds easily and reversibly with oxygen?

A

hemoglobin

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7
Q

_______ a glycoprotein hormone, stimulates the formation of erythrocytes

A

Erythropoietin (EPO),

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8
Q

what blood type is considered the universal donor?

A

Type O-

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9
Q

what blood type is considered the universal recipient?

A

Type AB +

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10
Q

An ______ is anything the body perceives as foreign and that generates an immune response

A

antigen

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11
Q

The presence or absence of various _______ allows a person’s blood cells to be classified into each of these different blood groups

A

antigens

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12
Q

The ABO blood groups are based on the presence or absence of two agglutinogens:

A

type A and type B

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13
Q

The _____________, which has neither agglutinogen, is the most common ABO group in North America.

A

O blood group

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14
Q

Unique to the ABO blood groups is the presence in the plasma of preformed antibodies called _____________

A

agglutinins

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15
Q

The agglutinins act against RBCs carrying ABO antigens that are not present on a person’s own red blood cells.

A

True

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16
Q

O blood means they do not have the

A

A or B antigens

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17
Q

O has anti __ and anti __ antibodies.

A

A, B

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18
Q

AB blood has A and B _____ and does NOT have_______

A

antigen, anti A and anti B antibodies.

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19
Q

what antigens is on

type A blood? and what type of antibodies?

A

A, anti-B antibody

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20
Q

what antigens is on type B blood? and what type of antibodies?

A

B, Anti A antibody

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21
Q

what antigens is on

type AB blood? and what type of antibodies?

A

AB, neither antibody

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22
Q

what antigens is on

type O blood? and what type of antibodies?

A

no antigens, both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

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23
Q

What is the sequence of the conducting system in the heart?

A

AV node, SA node, bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

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24
Q

The conduction system of the heart is all

A

spontaneous

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25
Q

What makes the SA node the pacemaker

A

it keeps the pace of the heart, it is spontaneous and has more action potentials than anywhere in the heart.

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26
Q

Normal cardiac muscle cells need to be _______, they are not spontaneous

A

activated

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27
Q

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas

A

Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils

in order of most common to least common white blood cells

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28
Q

Neutrophil – multi-lobed nucleus – elevated during

A

acute bacterial infection

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29
Q

lymphocytes have large nuclei and play a huge role in

A

immunity

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30
Q

Monocytes have a kidney bean shaped nucleas – elevated during

A

chronic bacterial infection

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31
Q

Eosinophils have a ______ lead the counterattack against ________

A

bi-lobed nucleus, parasitic worms

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32
Q

basophils secrete ____________ elevated when you have an infection

A

histamine and heperain

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33
Q

we need _________ for blood clotting

A

calcium

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34
Q

when there is low calcium ________ will slow

A

blood clotting

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35
Q

when there is high calcium, _______ will be fast

A

blood clotting

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36
Q

what vitamin is needed for clotting

A

vitamin K

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37
Q

coagulation or blood clotting may be initiated by either

A

instrinsic or extrinsic pathways.

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38
Q

intrinsic pathways of blood clotting

A

Called intrinsic because the factors needed for clotting are present within (intrinsic to) the blood.

Triggered by negatively charged surfaces activated platelets, collagen, or glass.

Slower because it has many intermediate steps

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39
Q

The extrinsic pathway of blood clotting is

A

Called extrinsic because the tissue factor it requires is outside of blood.

Triggered by exposing blood to a factor found on cells in tissues surrounding the blood vessel. This factor is called tissue factor (TF) or factor III.

Faster because it bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway. In severe tissue trauma, it can form a clot in 15 seconds.

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40
Q

both pathways of blood clotting, intrinsic and extrinsic need

A

vitamin K and calcium

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41
Q

what is Hemostasis

A

a whole series of events involved in stopping the bleeding

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42
Q

what are the 3 steps of coagulation?

A

vascular spasm, platelet plug, coagulation

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43
Q

Platelet plugs are

A

clumps of platelets, there to seal off small tears

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44
Q

The third step, coagulation or blood clotting, reinforces the platelet plug with

A

fibrin threads that act as a “molecular glue” for the aggregated platelets

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45
Q

____________ that traps blood cells and effectively seals the hole until the blood vessel can be permanently repaired

A

a fibrin mesh

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46
Q

Thrombin catalyzes the transformation of the soluble clotting factor fibrinogen into fibrin. The fibrin molecules then polymerize (join together) to form long, hairlike, insoluble fibrin strands. (Notice that, unlike other clotting factors, activating fibrinogen does not convert it into an enzyme, but instead allows it to polymerize.) The fibrin strands glue the platelets together and make a web that forms the structural basis of the clot. Fibrin makes the liquid plasma become gel-like and traps formed elements that try to pass through it

A

True

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47
Q

route of blood flow through the heart

A

Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pul semi valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries, lungs
From lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic semi lunar valve, aorta, body, back again,

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48
Q

what are the three layers of the heart

A

the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

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49
Q

Endocardium is the

A

inner layer of the heart – 1 layer of simple squamous epithelial cells

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50
Q

What is the middle layer of the heart?

A

Myocardium – majority of the heart – cardiac muscle cells

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51
Q

What is the outer layer of the heart?

A

Epicardium - the visceral layer

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52
Q

What are baroreceptors?

A

(pressure-sensitive mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in arterial pressure and stretch) and associated afferent fibers.

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53
Q

__________ reflexes are integrated in the cardiovascular center of the medulla, and their output travels via autonomic fibers to the heart and vascular smooth muscle.

A

baroreceptor

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54
Q

what part of the brains senses blood pressure changes

A

medulla oblongata

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55
Q

when there is low blood pressure sensed by the medulla what are the steps to fix it

A

baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are inhibited, impulses from baroreceptors activate the cardioacceloratory center, stimulate the vasomotor center, sympathetic impulses to the heart increase, increase in HR, contractability, CO and vosomotor fibers stimulate vasocontriction - all to increase blood pressure.

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56
Q

Low blood flow, low blood pressure coming into the aortic arch, you will have less stretch in the blood vessels, the receptors are neurons and sense less stretch they will have less action potentials that go to the cardio vascular center in the medulla. The CVC will sense the less stretch, less blood flow, blood pressure, then it will increase

A

SNS.
You will see increased, Heart Rate, cardiac output goes up and pressure goes up.
Increase in contractility, increase stroke volume which increases cardiac output and blood pressure.

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57
Q

Affect of SNS on vasculature

A

increase in vasoconstriction. This will increases total peripheral resistance and increase venous return. That startlings law. Increase in endiastolic volume, increase in stroke volume, cardiac output and increase in blood pressure.

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58
Q

The degree to which cardiac muscle cells are stretched just before they contract, called the preload, controls stroke volume. In a normal heart, the higher the preload, the higher the stroke volume. This relationship between preload and stroke volume is called

A

the Frank-Starling law of the heart.

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59
Q

Affect of SNS on vasculature

A

increase in vasoconstriction. This will increases total peripheral resistance and increase venous return. That startlings law. Increase in endiastolic volume, increase in stroke volume, cardiac output and increase in blood pressure.

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60
Q

The isovolumetric contraction phase is the

A

split-second period when the ventricles are completely closed chambers and the blood volume in the chambers remains constant as the ventricles contract. As ventricular pressure continues to rise, it finally exceeds the pressure in the large arteries issuing from the ventricles

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61
Q

The isovolumetric stage ends as the

A

SL valves are forced open.

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62
Q

The major force moving fluid out of the arterial end

A

blood hydrostatic pressure

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63
Q

During capillary bed exchange, Higher blood pressure will cause more fluid to come out. How much of that fluid get taken by the lymph and how much of the fluid comes back into the blood?

A

1/10, 9/10

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64
Q

during capillary bed fluid exchange what draw the fluid back in

A

blood colloidal osmotic pressure

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65
Q

what is edema?

A

Abnormal increase in the amount of interstitial fluid; causes swelling.

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66
Q

what causes edema?

A

Either an increase in outward pressure (driving fluid out of the capillaries) or a decrease in inward pressure could be the cause.
• An increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure
• Increased interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
• Decreased capillary colloid osmotic pressure
• decreased drainage of interstitial fluid through lymphatic vessels that have been blocked

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67
Q

what is doc’s answer for what causes Edema

A

Blockage of the lymphatics. Having very high blood hydrostatic pressure or low blood colloidal osmotic pressure. Low plasma proteins. High blood pressure.

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68
Q

IVC vs. SVC

A

IVC drains the lower portion of the body. Superior vena cava drains the upper portion of the body. Lungs have their own drainage system

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69
Q

What is the role of increased sympathetic nervous system activity on heart rate, stroke volume and contractility?

A

If you increase SNS you increase HR, SV and contractility.

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70
Q

What is Cardiac output

A

Cardiac output (CO) is the amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in 1 minute

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71
Q

the sounds lub-dup are associated with

A

the ventricles closing

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72
Q

lub sounds has to do with

A

the atrial ventricular valve closing. It signifies the point when ventricular pressure rises above atrial pressure (the beginning of ventricular systole).

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73
Q

What does the dup sounds have to do with?

A

The second sound occurs as the SL valves snap shut at the beginning of ventricular relaxation (diastole), resulting in a short, sharp sound

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74
Q

Increasing venous return will causes an increase in

A

EDV and CO and blood pressure. Exercise will do this or any sympathetic stimulation

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75
Q

PQRST wave

A

P – atrial depolarization
QRS – atrial repolarization and ventricular depolarization
T – ventricular repolarization

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76
Q

Blood flows from

A

high pressure to low pressure

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77
Q

Resistance impedes

A

flow

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78
Q

If you increase the viscosity of the blood, increase the length of blood vessel or if you decrease the radias all of these will

A

increase resistance and lower blood flow

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79
Q

If you increase hematocrit you

A

increase the viscosity or the thickness of the blood

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80
Q

Radius of blood vessels changes from

A

vasoconstriction or vasodialation.

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81
Q

Continuum of blood vessels thru limbs

A

In the arms – subclavian, axillary, brachial

Legs – external iliac, femeral, popliteal

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82
Q

Lymph vessels are comparable to small veins. Thin walls and have valves.

A

True

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83
Q

How do valves open and close?

A

All valves open and close due to changes in pressure. In heart it’s changes in blood pressure that will influence the valves

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84
Q

Epinephrine increases contractility. When you stimulate the SNS your also stimulated the adrenal medulla which secretes

A

80% epi 20% nor epi. Adrenal medulla gives us the same effect as SNS

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85
Q

Sequence of hemostasis

A

Vascular spasm, platelet plug, coagulation

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86
Q

Starlings law of the heart

A

What goes in, goes out. If you increase EDV (amount of blood in the heart after filling) you will have a increase in contractility and stroke volume.
Contractility is the force of contraction

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87
Q

In terms of relative size and function, arteries can be divided into three groups, what are they in size order largest to smallest?

A

elastic arteries, muscular arteries, and arterioles.

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88
Q

Elastic arteries are the

A

thick-walled arteries near the heart—the aorta and its major branches (Figure 19.1). These arteries are the largest in diameter, ranging from 2.5 cm to 1 cm, and the most elastic

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89
Q

Elastic arteries contain

A

more elastin than any other vessel type. It is present in all three tunics, but the tunica media contains the most. There the elastin constructs concentric “holey” sheets of elastic connective tissue that look like slices of Swiss cheese sandwiched between layers of smooth muscle cells.

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90
Q

muscular arteries,

A

which deliver blood to specific body organs (and so are sometimes called distributing arteries). Muscular arteries account for most of the named arteries studied in the anatomy laboratory. Their internal diameter ranges from that of a little finger to that of a pencil lead.

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91
Q

The smallest of the arteries, ________ have a lumen diameter ranging from 0.3 mm down to 10 μm.

A

arterioles

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92
Q

What are the type of blood vessels leaving the heart?

A

elastic

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93
Q

What are the two largest veins

A

SVC and IVC

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94
Q

arteries and veins

A

elastic, muscular, arterioles, capillaries, venules, small veins, medium veins, large veins, SVC, IVC

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95
Q

Why lymph nodes swell ?

A

Increase proliferation of lymphocytes at the germinal centers. The lymph nodes starts making more cells to fight the infection, the infection itself is not swelling the lymph nodes.

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96
Q

Proliferation –

A

division of the lymphocytes

97
Q

Germinal centers are the area in the

A

lymph nodes where there are lymphocytes and where the division occurs

98
Q

Nonspecific defense mechanisms or immunity

A

Non-specific – things that try to keep the microorganisms off your body or from getting into your body. Non-specific has no memory.
Non – skin, mucous membrane, coughing, sneezing, nasal hairs, eyelashes, ear wax, urine – any barrier.

99
Q

Specific defense mechanisms or immunity

A

has memory, each time you are exposed to you fight back stronger faster.
Two parts – humoral – b-cells and antibodies
Cell mediated – T cells
Both of these have memory they make memory cells.

100
Q

Interferon

A

Proteins released from virus-infected (and other) cells that protect uninfected cells from viral takeover. Also inhibit some cancers.

101
Q

interferon

A

Chemical involved in non-specific immunity. Secreted from a cell that is infected with a virus and the interferon protects the neighboring cell from the infection. The cell that is infected does die

102
Q

Inflammatory response (study the charts)

A

Increase in vasodilation – more blood comes to the area which brings more cells to that area. Increase in vascular permeability so that you want the space between the simple squamous to be greater so the white blood cells can get across

103
Q

Maturation of T vs. B cells

A

All of these cells come from the hemocytoblasts of the red bone marrow. The b cells come out of the bone marrow mature. The t cells have to go to the thymus gland to mature. Then they circulate in the lymph and travel all over the body tyring to come in contact with foreign cells.

104
Q

When your B cells encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them, you are exhibiting

A

active humoral immunity.

105
Q

T lymphocytes mature in the

A

Thymus

106
Q

Which of the following is not an antigen-presenting cells (APC)?

dendritic cell
B cell
macrophage
T cell

A

T cell

107
Q

Regulatory T cells ________.

may function in preventing autoimmune reactions
release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells
decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decreases
aid B cells in antibody production

A

may function in preventing autoimmune reactions

108
Q

Which cells phagocytize antigen-bearing cells and bind them to their MHCs?

A

antigen presenting cells

109
Q

role of antigen presenting cell

A

to precent the processed antigen to the helper T cell.

110
Q

T and B cells comes from red bone marrow, which ones comes out mature

A

B

111
Q

Both b and t make

A

memory cells

112
Q

helper T

A

receive the processed antigen and activate the cytotoxic T cells and B cells. They are a link between the two types of specific immunity.

113
Q

Active immunity

A

you are making your own antibodies. The memory cells make this immunity life long.
Active Natural - exposure to the antigen
Active Artificial - vaccine

114
Q

Active Natural Immunity

A

exposure to the antigen

115
Q

Active Artificial immunity

A

vaccine

116
Q

Active immunity is

A

lifelong because you make memory cells. Exposed naturally or vaccinated.

117
Q

Passive immunity -

A

the antibodies are given to you from placent or breast milk or an injection where they harvest antibodies. But as soon as they are used up you have to make new. This is not lifelong

118
Q

Opsonization

A

(“to make tasty”), which greatly accelerates phagocytosis of that pathogen.

119
Q

complement system

A

provides a major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body. Its activation unleashes inflammatory chemicals that amplify virtually all aspects of the inflammatory process. Activated complement also lyses and kills certain bacteria and other cell types. (Luckily our own cells are equipped with proteins that normally inhibit complement activation.)

120
Q

Complement is a series of

A

proteins that are inactive but once they are active they will coat or cover the outside of the antigen to up it’s chances of being phagocytised.

121
Q

Route thru respiratory system

A

Trachea – brochi (primary, secondary, tertiary) terminal, respiratory bronchioles (no cartiledge), alveolar duct, alveolar sac, alveolus.
As you go down the respiratory tree there is less and less cartiledge and more smooth muscle.

122
Q

Inspiration is an

A

active process because there are action potentials that travel down the phrenic nerve and innervate the diaphragm.

123
Q

inspiration is an active process because

A

The diaphragm contracts and then flattens when it flattens that will increase the volume of the thoracic cavity lower the pressure and cause air to flow in.

124
Q

Expiration is considered to be

A

passive because you stop action potentials going down the phrenic nerve so the diaphragm relaxes, when the diaphragm relaxes it will become dome shaped this will decrease the volume in the thoracic cavity, decrease the pressure and air flows out.

125
Q

Phrenic nerve

A

phrenic nerve (fren′ik), which receives fibers from C3, C4, and C5. The phrenic nerve runs inferiorly through the thorax and supplies both motor and sensory fibers to the diaphragm (phren = diaphragm), which is the chief muscle causing breathing movements.

126
Q

Two things that cause the lungs to collapse

A

high surface tension and the elastic recoil of the elastic fibers.

127
Q

Two things that prevent the collapse of the lungs

A

surfactant and the negative intrapleural pressure
Surfactant lowers the surface tension 40x, negative intrapleural pressure like sucking the lungs against the body wall. You need both of them

128
Q

Oxygen unloading is enhanced by (a) increased temperature, (b) increased PCO2, and/or hydrogen ion concentration (decreased pH), causing the dissociation curve to shift to the

A

right. This response is called the Bohr effect.

129
Q

What causes the dissociation curve to shift to the right

A

increase body temp, increase co2, increase free hydrogen and a lower PH.

130
Q

What causes the dissociation curve to shift to the left

A

lower body temp, low co2, less free hydrogen and a higher PH.

131
Q

What influences the rhythmicity of breathing

A

Inspiratory center with influence from the higher brain centers in the pons. Apneustic center and pneumotactic center. The inspetory center is like the SA node is has spontaneous action potential. Expiratory center only plays a role in heavy labored breathing. When it is active it will inhibit the inspiratory center.

132
Q

How CO2 is transported in blood

A

70% in the form of bicarbonate.
20% bound to plasma proteins
10% dissolved in the plasma

133
Q

How O2 is transported in blood

A

98% bound to hemoglobin
2% dissolved in the plasma.
Gas exchange occurs in alveoli

134
Q

Gas exchange occurs in

A

alveoli

135
Q

Parietal cells secrete

A

hydrochloric acid

136
Q

chief cells secrete

A

pepsinogen

137
Q

Mucus neck cells secrete

A

mucus

138
Q

Stomach has a large amount of mucous in the lining

A

True

139
Q

Endocrine cells secrete hormones like

A

gastrin

140
Q

Where bile enters gallbladder thru

A

Cystic duct

141
Q

Mesentery helps to

A

anchor structures in place in the abdominal pelvic cavity, a route for blood vessels, nerves, lymphatics

142
Q

specialized mesentery that comes off the lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach and they store fats.

A

greater and lesser omentum

143
Q

What inhibits the Intestinal phase of gastric secretion

A

a PH less than 2

144
Q

What turns on the Intestinal phase of gastric secretion

A

A PH greater than 2

145
Q

CCK – helps to

A

digest and emulsify

146
Q

CCK stimulates the gallbladder and that causes the gallbladder to secrete

A

concentrated bile which will help emulsify the fats. Also causes the pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes

147
Q

Secretin – helps neutralize. causes the liver to secrete

A

dilute bile and that dilute bile will help to neutralize the situation. The pacrease secretes bicarbonate rich juice which will also help to neutralize.

148
Q

Metabolism is the

A

sum of all of the chemical reactions in the body

149
Q

Anabolic reactions are

A

synthesis reactions like making a hormone, a neural transmitter
Catabolic are breakdown reactions – decomposition.

150
Q

Essential nutrients

A

If something is essential you must have it in your diet because your body doesn’t make it or it doesn’t make enough of it. Certain amino acids, fatty acids, water, vitamins, minerals

151
Q

Saturated vs. unsaturated fatty acids

A

Saturated only have single bonds between carbons

Unsaturated have at least one double bond.

152
Q

Characteristics of cholesterol

A

Cholesterol Precursor to all steroids. We need cholesterol in the cell membrane for fluidity. It’s made in the liver. If you don’t ingest it, your liver will make it. It’s lipid soluble.

153
Q

Role of NADH

A

Electron carriers. They carry the electron to the electron transport chain for ATP synthesis. They are like taxi cabs.

154
Q

Lactic acid vs. pyruvic acid

A

both are the End products of glycolosis. When oxygen is available we get pyruvic acid, when O2 is not present we get lactic acid. When oxygen is present we get lots of ATP

155
Q

Fat soluble vitamins

A

Absorbed along with fats, they go through the lacteals and then the lymph where they eventually get into the blood stream. Since fat soluble vitamins can be absorbed with fats, they can also be stored with fats. You can overdose on these. You cannot overdose on water soluble vitamin, B and C

156
Q

Fatty acids catabolism

A

Beta oxidation – 2 carbons at a time are removed from the fatty acids. Those two carbons are converted to acetyle CoA which enters the kreb cycle. If break down too much fat you gets lots of aectyle coa you get ketons in your urine. This whole thing is reversible.

157
Q

characteristics of Juxamedulllary nephrons:

A

Have long loops of Henley.

158
Q

the longer loops of henly in Juxamedullary helps to

A

concentrate the urine

159
Q

most nephrons are coricol which are

A

shorter than juxtamedullary

160
Q

Factors influencing movement across glomerulus

A

The afferent arteriol has a bigger lumen than the efferent arteriole. Blood goes in easily but has a harder time coming out.

161
Q

Blood hydrostatic pressure or glomerular hydrostatic pressure moves blood ______ the glomerulus

A

into

162
Q

what keep the blood in

A

blood colloidal osmotic pressure due to plasma protein. There is a hydrostatic pressure in the bowmans capsule space

163
Q

in net filtration pressure there are two forces keeping the fluid in the space of the glomerular capsule

A

hydrostatic pressure in the space and blood colloidal osmotic

164
Q

in net filtration pressure there is one force pushing out which is the

A

the blood hydrostatic pressure which should always be higher than the two keeping fluid in.

165
Q

There are three major pressures that play a role in determining filtration. What are they?

A

: Glomerular hydrostatic blood pressure, Blood colloidal osmotic pressure and Capsular hydrostatic pressure

166
Q

When there is an increase in ADH and/or Aldosterone you’ll have ________ urine

A

less

167
Q

If you have high osmolality in the extracellular space and the hypothalamus senses this is will cause the posterior pituitary to increase __________

A

ADH secretion.

ADH travels through the blood goes to the kidneys and increases the number of open water channels so you reabsorb more water and make small volumes of concentrated urine.

168
Q

Aldosterone will be secreted when you have

A

low extracellular sodium and high extracelluluar potassium.

169
Q

when there is low extracellular sodium and high extracelluluar potassium, Aldosterone will travel through the blood, get to the kidneys and increase the number of sodium and chloride transport proteins. Sodium and chloride absorbtion increases and water follows. Increases potassaium secretion in the urine.

A

True

170
Q

If you have an increase in renin you’ll have

A

less urine

171
Q

Renin will be increased when

A

Low blood flow at the kidneys is sensed by the special cells at the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

172
Q

process of renin to angio tensin 2 to aldosterone

A

Renin will cut angiotensinogen to angio tensin 1 – both inactive. Angiotensin 1 goes to the lungs where there is ACE that breaks angioangio tensin 1 to angiotensin 2 it is a potent vasoconstrictor and it will increase blood pressure. It will also stimulate aldosterone secretion.

173
Q

ADH and aldosterone and angio tensin 2 will

A

will increase blood volume, blood pressure and cause you to make small volumes of concentrated urine.

174
Q

The internal urethral sphincters are _____________ and the outer are ___________. This is from the , highest brain center.

A

smooth muscle and involuntarily controlled , skeletal and voluntarily, cerebrum

175
Q

Characteristics of substances used to calculate plasma clearance

A

To measure plasma clearance you use inulin.

  1. Completely filtered at the glumurulus.
  2. 0% reabsorbed back into the blood
  3. 100% flted – 0% secreted in the urine
176
Q

When you exceed the transport maximum, the excess remains in the ___________________

A

filtrated and then goes into the urine.

177
Q

Differences between intra & extra cellular fluid

A

There’s more intracellular fluid. Intra has more potassium. Extracellular has more sodium. Water always goes across the cell.

178
Q

K+ levels are regulated by _____________

A

aldosterone

179
Q

Definition of pH

A

Measure the free hydrogen ion concentration. 0-14. As you increase the concentration of free hydrogen we see the ph go down. 7 is neutral. PH less than 7 is acidic, greater than 7 is basic.

180
Q

Acid will increase the concentration of free hydrogen in a solution
Base will decrease the concentration of free hydrogen.

A

True

181
Q

Buffers maintain the

A

PH

182
Q

Sensible vs. insensible perspiration

A

Sensible - Sweat – water loss through the lungs and skin but we can’t sense that which makes it insensible.

183
Q

How respiratory rate changes to fix pH

A

If you are acidic it means you have a low PH and lots of extra hydrogen and there will be an increase in respiratory rate. if respiratory rate goes up, you’ll have less c02, less free hydrogen and your PH will go up.
If your basic you have a higher PH, you’ll see a decrease in respiratory rate, we will retain c02, more co2, more free hydrogen and PH goes down.
Resp goes up, ph goes up, resp rate goes down PH goes down.
Fixes PH pretty quickly.

184
Q

High c02, high free hydrogen,______ PH

Low co2, low free hydrogen, _____ PH

A

low, high

185
Q

Location of kidneys

A

retroperitineal

186
Q

what are the 2 basic categories of hormones?

A

water soluble (hydrophilic) and lipid soluble (hydrophobic)

187
Q

water soluble hormones tend to be

A

amino acid based water soluble proteins

188
Q

lipid soluble hormones are usually

A

steroids and derived from cholesterol

189
Q

things that move readily across the cell membrane are

A

lipid soluble

190
Q

the things that do not move easily over the cell membrane

A

water soluble molecules

191
Q

for water soluble cells the receptors are on the _____ of the cell

A

outside

192
Q

water soluble hormones start a cascade effect once they bind to their receptors this is called

A

second messenger system or cyclic AMP - two atp

193
Q

The hormone is called the first messenger and its binding to a receptor causes the activation of a

A

G protein

194
Q

the second messenger, then floats in the cell and activates another enzyme,

A

protein kinase

195
Q

The second messenger system is an example of a

A

cascade effect

196
Q

what is the most common 2nd messenger in the body?

A

cAMP

197
Q

Up vs. down regulation

A

In up you have a low number of hormones so you up your receptors for that hormone
In down you have lots of hormone so you decrease your receptors for that hormone.

198
Q

Second messenger system is

A

FAST

199
Q

Relationship between hypothalamus & anterior pituitary

A

Hypo and anterior pituitary is a Portal system

200
Q

Relationship between hypothalamus & posterior pituitary

A

Hypo and posterior pituitary is a nerve tract

201
Q

What Two hormones are secreted from Posterior pituitary

A

ADH and oxytocin. They are made in the hypothalamus

202
Q

Oxytocin –

Causes

A

uterine smooth muscle contraction and smooth muscles in the aeriolar to help milk out but it doesn’t produce milk,

203
Q

What causes milk production

A

prolactin

204
Q

what does calcitonin do

A

it regulates blood calcium levels and is antagonistic with the action of Parathyroid hormone.

205
Q

parythyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone secretes in response to

A

low calcium levels.

206
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do?

A

increase osteoclast activity, increases calcium reabsorption by the kidnesy and increases vitamin D. We also release phosphate which will be excreted in the urine.

207
Q

phosphate gets excreted in the

A

urine

208
Q

PTH will increase the absorption of calcium in the small intestine, increase the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys

A

True

209
Q

What kind of hormone is a glucose sparing hormone needed for increase growth of bone and muscle. Use amino acids.

A

Growth Hormone (GH)

210
Q

Neurohormone secretions are

A

from adrenal medulla

211
Q

Adrenal medulla

A

80% epi, 20% norepi

212
Q

Neurohormones are named because they come from neurons but they travel in the blood so they are neuro-hormone.

A

True

213
Q

Glucocorticoids have three major effects

A

metabolic, developmental, anti-inflammatory

214
Q

cortisol is a

A

Glucocorticoid

215
Q

Glucocorticoids decrease of the secretions of the

A

white blood cells.

216
Q

Insulin is secreted from

A

beta cells in the pancreas

217
Q

glucogon is secreted from

A

alpha cells

218
Q

insulin is a

A

protein hormone that is secreted when you have elevated blood glucose levels

219
Q

insulin will

A

lower blood glucose levels

220
Q

Glucagon is secreted when

A

you have low blood glucose levels then there will be an increase in glucagon and there will be and increase in glucose.

221
Q

Testis are covered by white capsule called the

A

tunica vaginalis and tunica albuginia

222
Q

Where are sperm produced

A

Seminiferous tubules

223
Q

testosterone is secreted from the

A

interstitial cells of leydig

224
Q

sperm matures and stored in the

A

epidymis.

225
Q

Order sperm travel thru male reproductive tract

A

Seminiferous, rete testes, efferent ductules, epidydimis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct

226
Q

Order sperm travel thru female reproductive tract

A

Vagina, cerix, uterus, fallopean tubes,

227
Q

Role of ligaments in female reproductive tract

A

Hold things in place

228
Q

How many eggs are ever ovulated

A

400

229
Q

Where most of semen is produced

A

Seminal vesicles make 60%

230
Q

Where does implantation occur

A

Uterus, endometrium.

231
Q

Ovulation

A

The release of the oocyte of the egg at about day 14.

232
Q

Corpus luteum

A

The follicle that are around the egg, after the egg are released the cells are the corpus luteum, if you are pregnant it’s the corpus luteum of pregnancy until the placenta takes over and becomes the gland of pregnancy. If your not pregnant or after the pregnancy it starts to disintegrate and become the albigans.

233
Q

Menstrual cycle, length and which day ovulation is on

A

28, 14

234
Q

function of the vagina

A

to receive penis and out for baby

235
Q

Hormone changes during menstrual cycle

A

LH – spikes right before ovulation. During the whole follicular stage estrogen is rising. Second stage the luteal stage there is an increase in progesterone. When both P and E decrease you begin menstration.

236
Q

menopause

A

less menstruation, hormone levels go down.

237
Q

For each turn of the krebs cycle, we get:

A

Two CO2 molecules that come from two decarboxylations.

Four molecules of reduced coenzymes (3 NADH + 3 H+ and 1 FADH2). The addition of water at certain steps accounts for some of the released hydrogen.

One molecule of ATP (via substrate-level phosphorylation).

238
Q

Of the various lipids, only ____________ are routinely oxidized for energy

A

triglycerides

239
Q

triglyceride catabolism involves the separate oxidation of their two different building blocks: glycerol and fatty acid chains

A

True

A&PII (17 decks)

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