Final Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the forms of particulate radiation?

A

Alpha particles
Beta particles
Neutrons
Protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Particulate radiation occurs when subatomic particles are ejected from atoms at _____ speeds (high/low)

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

No ionization occurs when subatomic particles are:

A

At rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alpha rays are emitted from the nucleus in the process of:

A

Radioactive decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What makes up Alpha particles?

A

2 protons and 2 neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the size of an Alpha particle compared to a regular Hydrogen atom?

A

Large mass - 4 times greater than Hydrogen atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the charge of an Alpha particle?

A

Positive charge - twice that of an electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Beta particles are identical to:

A

High-speed electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the size of a Beta particle compared to an Alpha particle?

A

8000 times lighter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the electrical charge of a Beta particle?

A

Negative (-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Types of radiation on EM spectrum (list low energy radiation to high energy radiation)

A

Radio waves
Microwaves
Infared
Visible light
UV rays
Xrays
Gamma rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the EfD limits for the general public?

A

1 mSv for frequent exposures

5 mSv for infrequent exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the EfD limits for occupation workers

A

50 mSv annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the EfD limit for individuals engaged in non-life-saving activities during an emergency?

A

50 mSv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the EfD limit for individuals engaged in life-saving emergencies?

A

250 mSv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How to determine the cumulative EfD for occupation workers?

A

10 mSv x age in years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How to determine collective EfD?

A

Avg EfD for an individual belonging to the exposed population x the number of persons exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is LD 50/30 represent?

A

Radiation dose that can be letal to 50% of the exposed population within 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the estimated LD 50/30 for adult humans?

A

3-4 Gy without medical support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most accurate lethal dose for humans?

A

LD 50/60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Regardless of treatment, doses of ___ Gy are considered fatal

A

12 Gy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are organic compounds?

A

Proteins
Carbs
Lipids
Nucleic Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are inorganic compounds?

A

Water
Inorganic acids
Inorganic bases
Mineral salts (electrolytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the building blocks of the cell?

A

Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Protein makes up __% of the cell

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Proteins are formed from:

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many amino acids are required for humans?

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens during protein synthesis?

A

Chromosomes and genes organize amino acids to form structual and enzymatic proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Enzymatic proteins (enzymes) function as a:

A

Organic catalyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the function of an organic catalyst?

A

Affects the rate of chemical reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Antibodies are protein molecules created by:

A

B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of tissue is highly radiosensitive?

A

Epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of tissue is highly radioinsensitive?

A

Muscle and nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Radiosensitive cells

A

Basal cells of skin
Blood cells
Intestinal cyst cells
Reproductive cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

States that each cell has a master molecule that directs all cellular activities and if inactivated, results in cell dealth

A

Target theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cell radiosensitivity is described by:

A

Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cells are the most radiosensitive when they are:

A

Nonspecialized and rapidly dividing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Are full oxygenated cells more or less sensitive to radiation?

A

More

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The most radiosensitive cells in the body are:

A

Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is DNA composed of?

A

2 sugar phosphate chains that are linked together by nitrogenous bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the nitrogenous base pairs in DNA?

A

Adenine - Thymine
Cytosine - Guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How are the nitrogenous base pairs different in RNA compared to DNA?

A

Thymine in DNA is replaced by Uracil in RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Effective atomic number of soft tissue

A

7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Effective atomic number of bone

A

13.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The degree to which the diagnostic study accurately reveals the presense or absense of disease

A

Diagnostic efficacy

46
Q

Average energy deposited per unit length of track

A

Linear Energy Transfer

47
Q

What types of radiation are low-LET radiation?

A

Gamma
Xrays
Electrons

48
Q

What types of radiation are high-LET radiation?

A

Alpha particles
Ions of heavy nuclei
Charged particles
Low-energy neutrons

49
Q

How is LET and biological damage related?

A

Direclty proportional

50
Q

Main function of the NRC is to

A

Oversee nuclear energy industry

51
Q

The NRC does not regulate or inspect:

A

X-ray imaging facilities

52
Q

NRC was formally known as:

A

Atomic Energy Commission

53
Q

SI unit for Exposure

A

Coulombs per kg

54
Q

SI unit for Air Kerma

A

Gray

55
Q

SI unit for Absorbed Dose

A

Gray

56
Q

SI unit for EqD

A

Sievert

57
Q

SI unit for EfD

A

Sievert

58
Q

1 SI exposure unit equals:

A

1/(2.58x10^-4) R

59
Q

RSO must have sufficient authority, organizational freedom, and mangement prerogative to:

A

Identify radiation safety problems

Initiate, recommend, or provide corrective action

Stop unsafe operations involving byproduct material

60
Q

Responsibilites of RSC

A

Assist in the development of the radiation safety program

Provide guidance for the program

Facilitate the ongoing operations of the program

61
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining radiation monitoring records and for providing counseling

A

RSO

62
Q

ALARA concept presents an extremely conservative model with respect to the relationship between:

A

Ionizing radiation and potential risk

63
Q

In the US, Level 1 and Level 2 investigation levels are usual __ to __ of the applicable regulatory standards

A

1/10 to 3/10

64
Q

What group is run by the government of Japan and primarily studies the Japanese atomic bomb survivors

A

Radiation Effects Research Foundation

65
Q

Atomic bomb survivors exposed in utero have provided conclusive evidence of a dose-dependent increase in the incidence of severe mental retardation for fetal doses greater than:

A

0.4 Sv

66
Q

Atomic bomb data for Hiroshima and Nagasaki suggest that radiation-induced Leukemias and solid tumors occuring in the survivors may be attributed to exposure to:

A

Gamma radiation

67
Q

Atomic bomb studies show Leukemia has ______ since the 40s/50s, and the incidence of solid tumors has continuted to ________

A

Slowly decline/Escalate

68
Q

What happens to empryo-fetus when irradiated from .05-15 Gy?

A

Emryonic death

69
Q

What types of gonadal shielding provides the best protection for a male when AP, oblique, and lateral projections are obtained?

A

Shaped contact shield w/ 1mm lead

70
Q

Minimum Al. Eq. for stationary fluoro unit operating above 70 kVp

A

2.5mm

71
Q

Minimum Al. Eq. for machines operating from 50-70 kVp

A

1.5mm

72
Q

Image intensifying systems should have _______ Al Eq.

A

3-4mm

73
Q

What type of dose-response curve does cancer, leukemia, and genetic effects follow?

A

Linear nonthreshold

74
Q

What type of dose-response curve does cataracts and skin effects follow?

A

Nonlinear threshold

75
Q

What is the SSD for mobile fluoro units?

A

30 cm

76
Q

What is the SSD for fixed fluoro units?

A

38cm

77
Q

Benefits of using image intensifyer systems

A

Increased image brightness
Saving time for the radiologist
Patient dose reduction

78
Q

What type of radiation is considered low LET?

A

Xray and Gamma rays

79
Q

Gonadal radiation dose that causes permanent sterility in males

A

5-6 Gy

80
Q

What cells are the most radiosensitive:
Lymphocytes
Adult nerve cells
Erythrocytes
Muscle cells

A

Lymphocytes

81
Q

Neutrophils play an essential role in:

A

Fighting infection

82
Q

Which of the following contain cells that do not divide?
Epithelial
Muscle
Nervous tissue in adults

A

Muscle and Nervous tissue

83
Q

What type of white blood cells is essential in fighting infections?

A

Granulocytes

84
Q

What is the ratio to determine RBE?

A

Reference radiation/Test radiation

85
Q

What is the oxygen enhancement ratio?

A

Dose required to cause damage w/o radiation/Dose required to cause damage w/radiation

86
Q

What x-ray interaction with matter ocrrus below 10 kEv

A

Coherent

87
Q

What is the radiation protection philosophy?

A

Assume there is risk with any level of exposure

88
Q

What are late stochastic effects?

A

Birth defects and cancer

89
Q

T/F Conclusive proof exists that low-level ionizing radiation (below 0.1 Gy) causes a signficiant increase in the risk of malignancy

A

False

90
Q

Xray photon energy required to initiate pair production?

A

1.022 MeV

91
Q

What are Purines?

A

Adenine and Guanine

92
Q

1 Sv = ? Rem

A

100

93
Q

1 Rad = ? cGy

A

1

94
Q

CR imaging has greater ___ flexibility than conventional screen-film radiography

A

kVp

95
Q

What’s the basis for selecting proper technique?

A

Mass per unit volume of tissue

Atomic #

96
Q

In CR, the reading unit is used to scan the photostimulable phosphor plate with a helium-neon laser. This results in emission of violet light that is changed into electrical signal by a:

A

Photomultiplier tube

97
Q

In image intensification fluoro, an HVL of 3-4.5mm Al Eq. is considered acceptable when kVp is:

A

80-100

98
Q

In image intensification fluoro, the kVp range for adult patients is usually:

A

75-110

99
Q

What is the conversion process in direct DR?

A

Photoconductor
TFT
Electrical signal

100
Q

What is the conversion process in Indirect DR using TFT

A

Scintilator
Photodiode
TFT
Electronic signal

101
Q

What is the conversion process in Indirect DR using CCD

A

Scinilator
CCD
Electrical signal

102
Q

Cell component that contains the centrioles

A

Centrosomes

103
Q

What do highly organized enzymes in th einner membranes of the mitochondira break down

A

Protein, fat, carbs

104
Q

During which subphase of Mitosis do the centrioles migrate to opposite sides of the cell and bring to regulate the formation of mitotic spindle?

A

Prophase

105
Q

What causes an increase in cellular activity that in turn causes biochemical reactions to occur more rapidly to meet the needs of the cell?

A

Enzymes

106
Q

Tasks of cytoplasm

A

Assembles proteins, carbs, and fats

Breaks down organic material to produce energy

Packages substances for distribution to other areas of the cell

Eliminates waste

107
Q

What type of tissue are hand and nails

A

Acellular

108
Q

During mitosis, which page is the actual DNA sythesis period?

A

S

109
Q

During what phase of Mitosis are the centromeres severed, followed by the sister chromatids moving apart and are then subsequently pulled toward opposite poles of the mitotic spindle

A

Anaphase

110
Q

Highly coiled strand that is one of two duplicated portions of DNA in a replicated chromosome that appears during cell division

A

Chromatid

111
Q

What is the amount of inherent filtration in x-ray tube?

A

0.5mm