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Anatomy 2 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

pericardium

A
  • pericardial sac
  • covering that encloses the heart and the proximal ends of the large blood vessels to which it attaches
  • fibrous pericardium(covers the double layered serous membrane), visceral pericardium/epicardium(covers the heart), parietal pericardium(covers the inner surface of the fibrous pericardium)
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2
Q

myocardium

A
  • middle layer of the heart wall

- thick and consists largely of the cardiac muscle tissue that pumps blood out of the heart chambers

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3
Q

endocardium

A
  • inner layer of the heart wall

- consists of epithelium and underlying connective tissue that contains many elastic and collage fibers

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4
Q

auricles

A
  • earlike projections

- extend anteriorly from the atria, and slightly increase the atrial volume

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5
Q

atria vs. ventricles

A 
Atria:
-have thin walls
-receive blood returning to the heart
Ventricles:
-force the blood out of the heart into arteries
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6
Q

atrioventricular sulcus vs. interventricular sulci

A

Atrioventricular sulcus:
-deepest of the groove
-encircles the heart between the atria and ventricles
Interventricular sulci:
-mark the septum that separates the right and left ventricles

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7
Q

papillary muscles

A
  • cardiac muscle tissue
  • project inward from the walls of the ventricle
  • contract when the right ventricle contracts, and as the tricuspid valve closes, these muscles pull on the chord tendineae and prevent the cusps from swinging back into the right atrium
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8
Q

AV valves vs. semilunar valves

A

Atrioventricular valves:
-a valve in the heart through which blood flows from the atria to the ventricles.
-The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the mitral (bicuspid) valve;
- the right AV valve is the tricuspid valve.
Semilunar valves:
- pocketlike structures attached at the point at which the pulmonary artery and the aorta leave the ventricles
-The pulmonary valve guards the orifice between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
-The aortic valve protects the orifice between the left ventricle and the aorta

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9
Q

coronary sinus

A
  • drains venous blood into the right atrium from the myocardium of the heart
  • atrioventricular sulcus
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10
Q

coronary arteries

A
  • first two branches of the aorta
  • supply blood to the tissues of the heart
  • right coronary splits into the marginal a. and the posterior interventricular a.
  • left gives rise to the circumflex and the anterior interventricular a.
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11
Q

pulmonary vs. systemic circulation (circuit)

A

Pulmonary:
-between the heart and lungs
Systemic:
-pumping of oxygenated blood to the body and then pumping deoxygenated blood back

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12
Q

S-A node

A
  • Sinoatrial Node
  • natural pacemaker
  • by the right atrium and superior vena cava
  • determines the heart beat frequency through neural signals from the nervous system
  • key portion of the cardiac conduction system
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13
Q

A-V node

A
  • Atrioventricular
  • Right atrium by the interatrial septum wall and bicuspid valve
  • slows the signal down, which slows down the muscle contraction of the heart
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14
Q

functional syncytium

A
  • acts as a unit that is located in the atrial and ventricular walls.
  • Connecter in-between the atriums.
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15
Q

A-V bundle

A
  • Bundle of His
  • only electrical connection between the atrium and the ventricles
  • runs from the interventricular septum wall to the apex
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16
Q

brachiocephalic a.

A
  • supplies blood to the tissues of the upper limb and head
  • branched from aortic arch and rises through the mediastinum to a point near the junction of the sternum and right clavicle
  • divides, into the right common carotid artery and the right subclavian
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17
Q

common carotid a.

A
  • (Right)Transports blood to the right side of the neck and head; off of the brachiocephalic
  • (Left) second branch of the aorta, supply blood to the left side of the body
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18
Q

subclavian a.

A
  • (Right) leads blood into the right arm; off of brachiocephalic
  • (Left) third branch of the aorta; supplies blood to the left side of the body
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19
Q

circle of willis

A

-formed by the anterior and posterior cerebral arteries, which join the internal carotid arteries

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20
Q

hepatic portal system

A

-venous pathway that allows blood to flow from the gastrointestinal organs to the liver before returning to the heart

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21
Q

superior and inferior vena cava

A

-lead to the right atrium

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22
Q

celiac a.

A

-gives rise to the left gastric, splenic, and hepatic arteries, which supply upper portions of the digestive tract, the spleen, and the liver

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23
Q

systolic pressure

A
  • maximum pressure achieved during ventricular contraction

- aorta and pulmonary trunk

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24
Q

diastolic pressure

A

-lowest pressure that remains in the arteries before the next ventricular contraction

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25
Q

internal carotid arteries

A
  • begins lateral to the external carotid artery then follows a deep curse upward along the pharynx to the base of the skull
  • the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, and the anterior choroid artery all branch off of it
  • terminates into the anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries
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26
Q

electrocardiogram

A
  • EKG

- recording of the electrical changes in the myocardium during a cycle

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27
Q

QRS complex of EKG

A

-marks depolarization of the ventricles and signals repolarization of the atria

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28
Q

vagus nerve

A
  • Nerve #10
  • Parasympathetic
  • Slows down heart rate
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29
Q

tunica intima vs. tunica media vs. tunica adventitia

A
  • interna: innermost tunic, simple squamous epithelium. allows blood to flow through smoothly(prevent blood clotting)
  • media: makes up the bulk of the arterial wall; smooth muscles cells. give the vessel a tough elasticity which allows it to stretch for blood pressure/volume
  • externa: outer layer and thin, connective tissue with elastic and collagen fibers; attaches arteries to the surrounding tissues.
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30
Q

thoracic aorta vs. abdominal aorta

A

-thoracic aorta is above the diaphragm and the abdominal aorta is below the diaphragm

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31
Q

renal arteries

A

-pass laterally from the aorta into the kidneys

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32
Q

superior mesenteric a. vs. inferior mesenteric artery

A
  • (Superior) supplies to the small intestine and proximal large intestine
  • (Inferior) supplies blood to the distal large intestine
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33
Q

vertebral a.

A
  • arise from the subclavian arteries in the base of the neck near the tips of the lungs
  • runs through the transfers processes of the cervical vertebrae enter through the foramen magnum
  • runs together to form the basilar a.
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34
Q

brachial a.

A
  • couses along the humerus to the elbow

- branch off of the subclavian

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35
Q

radial a.

A
  • continuation of the brachial artery, extends along the radial side of the forearm to the wrist
  • how to take pulse at wrist
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36
Q

common iliac a.

A
  • divides into internal and external

- provide blood to the pelvic organs, gluteal region, and lower limbs

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37
Q

suprarenal a.

A
  • direct branch off of the abdominal aorta

- supplies blood to Adrenal gland

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38
Q

phrenic a.

A

-supplies blood to the diaphragm

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39
Q

great saphenous v.

A
  • longest vein in the body
  • has varicose vein problems
  • pull from great saphenous for bypass surgeries
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40
Q

median cubital v.

A
  • The vein we use to draw blood from

- Connects the cephalic and basilic

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41
Q

internal jugular v.

A

-descend through the neck beside the common carotid arteries and also join the subclavian veins, which creates the brachiocephalic vein.

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42
Q

atherosclerosis

A

-plaque build up in the arteries causing a hardening around the arteries

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43
Q

Which gland removes iodine from the blood?

A

thyroid gland

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44
Q

Which agent prevents blood coagulation

A

heparin

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45
Q

Name the artery that connects the right external iliac artery with the right popliteal a.?

A

R femoral a.

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46
Q

Which hormones travel the hypophyseal portal system

A

CRH, GnRH, GHRH, TRH, and SS

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47
Q

What is the strongest part of the heart?

A

Left ventricle

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48
Q

angina

A

blood flow to the coronary artery is blocked off

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49
Q

Describe the pressure changes in the atria and ventricles during a cardiac cycle?

A

high pressure in ventricles, low pressure in atria. Usually goes from high to low

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50
Q

What is the purpose of low pressure?

A

allows blood to refill the cavity once the ventricle contract

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51
Q

What causes heart sounds?

A

lubbers is when AV valves are closing dumb is when SL valves are closing

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52
Q

What is the function of the cardiac conduction system?

A

carry electrical impulses to the heart

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53
Q

What types of tissue make up the cardiac conduction system

A

SA node and AV node

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54
Q

The SA and AV are where?

A

right atrium

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55
Q

How is a cardiac impulse initiated?

A

by the SA node

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56
Q

How is the cardiac impulse transmitted from the right atrium to the other heart chambers?

A

firing from the SA node to the AV node

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57
Q

The heart is squeezed from what?

A

apex to base

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58
Q

P waves are created by what?

A

firing of the SA node

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59
Q

QRS wave?

A

pumping of the ventricels

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60
Q

T wave

A

atrium filling up again

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61
Q

What is the function of the smooth muscle in the atrial wall?

A

the blood can flow without obstruction

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62
Q

capillary wall

A

simple squamous tissue

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63
Q

function of a capillary

A

to carry blood; allows blood to go to body tissues; connects arteries to veins

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64
Q

What is the largest artery?

A

aorta

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65
Q

What is the largest vein/

A

vena cava

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66
Q

What is the longest vein?

A

Great saphenous v

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67
Q

What are the differences between an artery and vein

A

arteries are thicker and veins have valves

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68
Q

why do veins have valves

A

so that the blood doesn’t go backwards

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69
Q

which have more pressure arteries or veins?

A

arteries

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70
Q

purpose of the SA node

A

starts the heartbeat

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71
Q

Which valves have chord tendineae?

A

AV valves

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72
Q

What takes blood back to the right atrium?

A

superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus

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73
Q

What kind of capillaries are involved external respiration

A

pulmonary capillaries

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74
Q

what artery measures blood pressure?

A

brachiocephalic a; goes to the right side of the head and arm

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75
Q

what is called the blood reservoir

A

venus system

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76
Q

What is the most common artery for heart attacks?

A

left artery

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77
Q

Which tunic is the innermost layer of blood vessel?

A

intima

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78
Q

The adrenal gland receives blood from which a.?

A

suprarenal a.

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79
Q

T/F The function of the vagus nerve is to slow down the beating of the heart

A

True

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80
Q

T/F Papillary muscle is only in the ventricles of the heart

A

True

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81
Q

T/F The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine

A

True

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82
Q

mucosa

A
  • Absorption, protection, and secretion

- Have three parts: surface epithelium, lamina Propria, and Muscular Mucosa

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83
Q

submucosa

A
  • loose connective tissue
  • the vessels nourish the surrounding tissues and carry away absorbed materials
  • transport
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84
Q

muscular externa

A
  • Propulsion

- Two layers: circular muscle(inner layer) and longitudinal muscle(outer horizontal)

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85
Q

serosa

A
  • Protection
  • Serosa: lined with epithelium(body cavity)
  • Adventitia: not lined with epithelium
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86
Q

nasopharynx

A
  • superior to the soft palate
  • communicates with the nasal cavity and provides a passageway for air during breathing
  • contains the tonsil adenoids
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87
Q

oropharynx

A
  • posterior to the oral cavity

- a passageway for food moving downward from the mouth and for air moving to and from the nasal cavity

88
Q

laryngopharyx

A
  • inferior to the oropharynx

- passageway to the esophagus

89
Q

amylase

A

-an enzyme, found chiefly in saliva and pancreatic fluid, that converts starch and glycogen into simple sugars.

90
Q

pepsinogen

A
  • An in-active form of pepsin that is produced by chief cells of gastric glands
  • hydrochloric acid causes it to become pepsin
91
Q

trypsinogen

A
  • released by pancreatic cells(proteases) then dumped in the small intestine(duodenum)
  • activated to trypsin when it contacts the enzyme enterokinase, which the mucosa of the small intestine secretes
92
Q

emulsification

A

-The break down of lipids from the bile salts emulsifying the lipids and the lipase breaking them apart.

93
Q

duodenum vs. jejunum vs. ileum

A
  • duodenum: 25cm long and 5cm in diameter; it is the shortest and most fixed portion of the small intestine; most important site for absorption
  • jejunum: 2/5 of the small intestine; has a greater diameter and a thicker wall
  • ileum: lymph nodes(Peyer’s Patches)
94
Q

cecum

A

-beginning of the large intestine, dilated puttylike structure that hangs slightly inferior to the ileocecal opening

95
Q

vermiform appendix

A

-is a blind-ended tube connected to the cecum, from which it develops in the embryo.

96
Q

colon(ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid)

A

ascending:
-begins at the cecum and extends upward against the posterior abdominal wall to a point just inferior to the liver.
transverse:
-the longest and most movable part of the large intestine
-suspended by a folded peritoneum and sags in the middle below the stomach
descending:
-the transverse colon approaches the spleen, it turns abruptly downward and becomes the descending.
sigmoid:
-the colon makes an S shape, then becomes the rectum

97
Q

regions of the stomach (cardiac, fundic, body, and pyloric)

A
  • cardiac: esophagus connects

- pyloric: hard “lots of muscles”

98
Q

persitalsis

A

-contraction of the stomach, that moves food through the intestines

99
Q

tongue papillae

A
  • rough projections on the tongue

- some of these provide friction, which helps move food

100
Q

tonsils (palatine, lingual, and adenoids)

A
  • palatine tonsils: help protect the body against infections made of lymphatic tissues
  • adenoids: enrage and bloc the passage between the nasal cavity and pharynx, surgical removal may be necessary(tonsillitis)
  • lingual: anchored to the hyoid bone; covered with rounded masses of lymphatic tissues
101
Q

uvula

A
  • The soft palate forms a muscular arch, which extends posteriorly and downward as a cone-shaped projection called uvula.
  • prevents food from entering the nasal cavity
102
Q

deciduous teeth vs. permanent teeth

A

-deciduous teeth are the teeth that fall out and then the permanent teeth come in after them.

103
Q

incisors vs. cuspids vs. bicuspids (premolars) vs. molars

A
  • (incisors): sharp edges bite off large pieces of food
  • cuspid(canine): grasp and tear food
  • bicuspids(premolars)&molars: grind food particles
104
Q

enamel

A
  • covers the crown

- mainly consists o calcium salts and is the hardest substance in the body.

105
Q

salivary glands (parotid, submandibular, and sublingual)

A

parotid:
-largest of the major salivary glands.
-secrete a clear, watery fluid rich in salivary amylase because their secretory cells are primarily serous cells.
submandibular:
-floor of the mouth on the inside surface of the mandible
-secrete a more viscous fluid than the parotid glands.
sublingual:
-smallest of the major salivary glands

106
Q

lower esophageal sphincter

A

-just superior to the point where the esophagus joins the stomach, some of the cells of the circular smooth muscle layer have increased sympathetic muscle tone and form it.

107
Q

pyloric sphincter

A
  • located at the end of the pyloric canal, a thickening of the circular layer of smooth muscle
  • acts as a valve that controls gastric emptying into the small intestine
108
Q

gastric glands

A
  • contain three types of secretory cells: mucous cells, chief cells, and parietal cells
  • found in the mucosa
109
Q

enterogastric reflex

A

-the vagus nerve receives input from the duodenum that it is full and it then shuts off parasympathetic nerves so peristalsis is slowed down while the pyloric sphincter shuts so that no more chyme enters the duodenum.

110
Q

chymotrypsin

A
  • the active version of Chymotrypsinogen
  • acinar cells: proteases
  • trypsin activates it
111
Q

carboxpeptidase

A
  • the active version of procarboxypeptidase
  • acinar cells: proteases
  • trypsin activates it
  • breaks off the carboxyl group from polypeptides
112
Q

enterokinase

A
  • converts trypsinogen into trypsin
  • synthesized by the mucosal cells of the small intestine
  • brush border enzyme
113
Q

maltase

A

-splits the disaccharide maltose into the monosaccharide fructose

114
Q

falciform ligament

A

-a fold of visceral peritoneum that separates the lobes and fastens the liver to the abdominal wall anteriorly

115
Q

Kupffer cells

A

-fixed to the inner lining of the hepatic sinusoids, remove most of the bacteria from the blood by phagocytosis

116
Q

common bile duct

A
  • formed by the union of the common hepatic and cystic ducts

- leads to the duodenum, where the hepatopancreatic sphincter muscle guards its exit.

117
Q

greater omentum

A

-drapes like an apron from the stomach over the transverse colon and the folds of the small intestine.

118
Q

mesentery

A

-supports the blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels that supply the intestinal wall.

119
Q

plicae circulares

A

-circular folds of mucosa that line the small intestine

120
Q

ileocecal sphincter

A
  • joins the small intestines ileum to the large intestine’s cecum
  • at the distal end of small intestine
121
Q

intestinal flora

A
  • bacteria that normally inhabits the large intestine

- breaks down some of the molecules that escape the actions of human digestive enzymes

122
Q

feces

A
  • composed of materials not digested or absorbed, along with water, electrolytes, mucus, and bacteria
  • 75% water
  • color comes from bile
123
Q

Which major salivary glands have ducts the enter the mouth opposite the upper second molars?

A

Parotid glands

124
Q

Which region of the stomach attaches to the esophagus

A

cardiac

125
Q

How many permanent bicuspids are in the mouth of a human adult

A

eight

126
Q

Amylase chemically digests what?

A

carbohydrates

127
Q

the auditory tube connects the middle ear with what?

A

nasopharynx

128
Q

Enterokinase is synthesized by what?

A

brush border cells of the small intestine

129
Q

which region of the colon attaches to the transverse colon at the hepatic flexure?

A

ascending colon

130
Q

Which proenzyme is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach wall?

A

pepsinogen

131
Q

Which intestinal tunic is associated with the visceral peritoneum?

A

serosa

132
Q

What results from the enterogastric reflex?

A

inhibition of peristalsis

133
Q

Which tonsils are int he nasopharynx?

A

adenoids/palatine} Pharyngeal

134
Q

Maltose is secreted by what?

A

brush border cells

135
Q

T/F) The pancreas aids in digestion of proteins, carbs, lipids, and nucleic acids.

A

True

136
Q

Name the enzyme that splits plant starch and glycogen into disaccharides.

A

amylase

137
Q

The gastric cells that secrete intrinsic factor are called what?

A

parietal cells

138
Q

cholecystokinin

A

stimulates pancreatic enzymatic secretions

139
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

store and concentrate bile

140
Q

Three types of disaccharides and what they break into

A

maltose=glucose and glucose; sucrose=fructose and glucose; lactose=galactose and glucose

141
Q

functions of the digestive system

A

absorption, protection, secretion, digestion, propulsion, and defacation

142
Q

Trysinogen is synthesized by what?

A

acinar cells of the pancreas(proteases)

143
Q

What is the function of the large intestine?

A

absorption of water and electrolytes

144
Q

Which region of the colon attaches to the transverse colon at the splenic flexure?

A

Descending

145
Q

Which proenzyme is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach wall?

A

pepsinogen

146
Q

Which intestinal tunic is associated with he visceral peritoneum?

A

serosa

147
Q

The spleen is located in what portion of the abdominal cavity?

A

upper left portion

148
Q

Peyer’s patches are found in the what?

A

small intestine

149
Q

Teniae coli

A

bands of longitudinal smooth muscle that run the length of the colon

150
Q

Major duodenal papillae

A

the opening of the hepatopancreatic sphincter in the duodenum

151
Q

muscles involved in mastication?

A

masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and later pterygoid

152
Q

function of bile

A

contains breakdown products from hemoglobin and emulsifies fats

153
Q

function of bile salts

A

emulsify fat to fatty droplets

154
Q

Where can stratified cuboidal be found?

A

stomach, large and small intestine

155
Q

What do parasympathetic impulses do?

A

increase digestion, movement, and secretions

156
Q

mouth to stomach

A

4-8secs

157
Q

stomach to duodenum

A

4hrs

158
Q

small intestine

A

3-6hrs

159
Q

large intestine

A

12-24hrs

160
Q

glycolysis takes part in what of the cell

A

cytoplasm

161
Q

gonads

A
  • the primary sex organs of the male are the two testes

- makes gametes and haploid

162
Q

gubernaculum

A

-a fibrous cord attached to each developing testis and extends into the inguinal region of the abdominal cavity

163
Q

seminiferous tubules

A

-these tubules course posteriorly and unite to form a complex network of channels called the rete testis

164
Q

epididymis

A

-the rete testis is in the mediastinum testis and gives rise to several ducts that join a tube

165
Q

Leydig cells

A
  • lies between the seminiferous tubules

- produce and secrete male sex hormones

166
Q

sertoli cells

A

-the epithelium of the seminiferous tubules consists of supporting cells called sustentacular cells(Sertoli)

167
Q

spermatogonia vs. oogonia

A

spermatogonia:
-undifferentiated spermatogenic cells
-46 chromosomes in its nucleus, the number for most human body cells
-located within the seminiferous tubules, adjacent to the inside surface of the surrounding basement membrane
oogonia:

168
Q

meiosis vs. mitosis

A

meiosis:
-includes two successive divisions called the first and second meiotic divisions
mitosis:
-only one cell division

169
Q

spermatogenesis vs. oogenesis

A

spermatogenesis:
-the combined processes of meiosis and spermatogenesis
-takes about 65-75 days from start to finish
oogenesis:

170
Q

haploid vs. diploid

A

haploid:
-cells emerge from meiosis 1 with one member of each homologous pair
-a haploid cell has one set of chromosomes
diploid:
-has two sets of chromosomes that are in the form of 23 homologous chromosome pairs

171
Q

homologous chromosomes

A

-the same, gene for gene

172
Q

twin chromatids

A
  • two DNA molecules, that are replicated from chromosomes before meiosis 1.
  • each chromatid has the complete genetic information associated with that chromosome
173
Q

centromeres

A

-regions that the chromatids of a replicated chromosome attach at

174
Q

synapsis and cross-over

A
  • synapsis: the chromatids of the homologous chromosomes touch at various points along their lengths
  • cross over: an exchange between homologous chromosomes produces chromatids that contain genetic information from both parents
175
Q

cytokinesis

A
  • the moment when the membrane is splitting into two

- happens during Anaphase1&2

176
Q

acrosomal cap

A

-contains enzymes that aid the sperm cell in penetrating the layers surrounding the oocyte during fertilization

177
Q

vas deferens

A

-each testis carries a developing vas deferns that in later development will form parts of the spermatic cord that suspends the testis in the scrotum

178
Q

ejaculatory duct

A

-passes through the prostrate gland and empties into the urethra through a slitlike opening

179
Q

seminal vesicle

A

-are convoluted, saclike structures about 5cm long, each attached to the ductus deferent on the posterior surface and near the base of the urinary bladder

180
Q

prostate gland

A
  • just inferior to the urinary bladder

- secretes a thin, milky fluid

181
Q

bulbourethral glands

A

-inferior to the prostrate gland lateral to the intermediate part of the urethra and are enclosed by muscle fibers of the urogenital diaphragm

182
Q

capacitation

A
  • weakens the acrosomal membranes
183
Q

corpus spongiosum

A
  • one of the three columns of the shaft of the penis
184
Q

GnRH

A
  • secretes gonadotropins

- comes from the hypothalamus

185
Q

LH vs. FSH

A

LH
-has been referred to as interstitial cell stimulating hormone
-promotes development of the interstitial cells of the testes, mainly testosterone.
FSH
-stimulates the sustentacular cells of the seminiferous tubules to proliferate, grow, mature, and respond to the effects of the male sex hormone testosterone

186
Q

testosterone vs. dihydrotestosterone

A 
testosterone
-secreted by the testes and transported in the blood, loosely attached to plasma proteins
dihydrotestosterone:
-converted from testosterone
-stimulates the cells of these organs
187
Q

primary follicles vs. primary follicles

A

primordial follicles:
-formed by each primary oocyte being closely surrounded by a layer of flattened epithelial cells
primary follicles:
-primordial follicles mature into primary follicles

188
Q

secondary follicles vs. Graafian follicles

A

Graafian follicles:

  • the mature antral follicle
  • its fluid-filled cavity bulges outward on the surface of the ovary, like a blister
189
Q

polar bodies

A

-when a primary oocyte divides, the cytoplasm is distributed unequally

190
Q

zygote

A

-a large fertilized egg

191
Q

granulosa cells

A

a somatic cell of the sex cord that is closely associated with the developing female gamete

192
Q

thecal cells

A
  • follicles of the ovaries
  • endocrine cells that synthesize estrogen and progesterone
  • after ovulation they become part of the corpus luteum
193
Q

zona pellucida

A
  • a layer of glycoprotein
  • acellular, made of fibers
  • surrounds the egg like a shield
194
Q

corona radiata

A

-mantle of follicular cells attached to the secondary oocytes within the mature follicle is large, spherical cell, surrounded by a thick zona pellucida

195
Q

corpus luteum vs. corpus albicans

A
  • corpus luteum: what is left of the follicle after ovulation
  • corpus albicans: if the follicle doesn’t become pregnant then the corpus luteum degrades into the corpus albicans.
196
Q

fallopian tubes

A
  • suspended by portions of the broad ligament and open near the ovaries
  • this allows for the movement of the egg from the ovary to the uterus
197
Q

endometrium vs. myometrium vs. perimetrium

A
  • endometrium: the inner mucosal layer is covered with columnar epithelium and contains abundant tubular glands
  • myometrium: thick, middle, mucosal layer, consists largely of bundles of smooth muscle fibers in longitudinal, circular, and spiral patterns and is interlaced with connective tissue
  • perimetrium: consists of an outer serosal layer, which covers the body of the uterus and part of the cervix
198
Q

estrogens and progesterone

A
  • estrogens: stimulate enlargement of reproductive organs; stimulate the endometrium to thicken; and are also responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sex development
  • progesterone:
199
Q

follicular phase vs. luteal phase

A

follicular
-before ovulation
luteal
-same as secretory phase

200
Q

proliferative phase vs. secretory phase

A
  • proliferative phase: increasing concentration of esterogens during the first week or so of a reproductive cycle changes the uterine lining, thickening the glandular endometrium
  • secretory phase: Progesterone makes the endometrium more vascular and glandular. It also stimulates the uterine glands to secrete more glycogen and lipids
201
Q

hCG

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation.

202
Q

ovulation

A

-releases the secondary oocyte and first polar body from the mature antral follicle

203
Q

fertilization

A

the action or process of fertilizing an egg

204
Q

T/F the corpus albicans is in the uterus

A

F, found in the ovaries

205
Q

T/F Spermatogonia are diploid

A

T

206
Q

T/F Sertoli cells are int he walls of seminiferous tubules

A

T

207
Q

T/F Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is made in the hypothalamus.

A

T

208
Q

T/F The luteal phase of the ovaries occurs after ovulation

A

T

209
Q

T/F The corona radiate consists of granulosa cells

A

T

210
Q

T/F primary follicles are ovulated

A

F

211
Q

T/F Twin chromatids are pulled apart during anaphase 2.

A

F

212
Q

T/F Synapsis occurs in both meiosis and mitosis

A

F

213
Q

T/F Polar bodies are diploid

A

F; they are haploid

214
Q

Changes in blood oxygen concentration are sensed by what?

A

carotid bodies

215
Q

the chemical digestion of fats(lipids) mostly occurs where?

A

small intestine

Anatomy 2 (14 decks)

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