Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Q400 > FCOM 400 > Flashcards

FCOM 400 Flashcards

1
Q

Setting speed bugs 1, R, 2, 🔺🔼 Take off ?

A

1 = V1
R= VR
2= V2
🔺 = VFR/ V2 ICE 1
🔼 = VBG/VBG ICE 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Setting speed bugs landing 🔺🔼

A

🔺= VREF
🔼= VREF ICE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

V2 ICE is only to be bugged when ?

A

Only for takeoff in icing conditions if acceleration is above 1000ft AAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Min gate speeds

A

Desce
With Flaps 0 selected = 180 KIAS
With Flaps 5 selected = 165 KIAS
With Flaps 10 selected= 155 KIAS
With Flaps 15 selected for landing= VREF OR VREF ICE
With Flaps 15 selected for Flaps 35 landing = VREF ICE Flaps 35 + 10 KIAS
With Flaps 35 selected= VREF or VREF ICE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The PF is to verify that the [INCR REF SPEED] Message is not displayed on the ED prior to ?

A

slowing below VREF ICE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Auto call-outs, above 100ft RA, are treated as all other advisory calls and must be acknowledged by the PF. If an automated call fails to announce as programmed or is not responded to, the PM must ?

A

make the callout, and the PF must respond with ‘checked”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The Terminate Checklist may be completed as a ?

A

read and confirm’ by the Captain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Whenever the Power Levers are reduced to and remain at Flight Idle, the Pilot Flying shall ?

A

keep their hand on the Power Levers, unless operationally required for short periods of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

From the IAF (during an instrument approach) or upon joining the initial leg of the circuit (visual approach), the PF must keep ?

A

one hand on the Power Levers and one hand on the control wheel irrespective of whether the aircraft is in manual or auto flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

During a First Officer approach and landing, the Captain must guard the Power Levers from ?

A

500 ft HAA to touchdown. This is to ensure that the Captain is prepared to take control for an immediate go around if they deem necessary, and there is insufficient time to initiate a standard go around.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Small differences between charted navigation information and displayed navigation data may be noted. Differences of ?

A

of 3 degrees or less due to the equipment manufacturer’s application of magnetic variation or leg track averaging are operationally acceptable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Raw data (no flight director) approaches may be considered for crew proficiency or training in ?

A

VMC only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The pitch wheel should not be adjusted when ‘ALT *› is annunciated. Pilots should minimise pitch wheel use within ?

A

1000 ft of the selected level, or the vertical mode will revert to PITCH HOLD and ALT SEL will disarm resulting in a failure to capture the selected altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a descent clearance is received while still climbing the cleared level is to ?

A

be recorded. When established in cruise, the assigned altitude will be set in the AAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The de Havilland DHC-8 Model 402 is approved in ?

A

the Transport Category in compliance with the requirements listed for Canada on the Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1.2.2
The DHC-8 Model 402 is eligible for the following kinds of operations ?

A

• Day and night VFR
• IFR
• Icing Conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1.2.4
The maximum number. of occupants shall not exceed the following:

A

Flight Crew: 2
Observer:1
Cabin Crew: 2
Passengers:74
Infants:6
Total: 85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum Structural Weights ?

A

Max Ramp Weight : 29089 kg
Max Brakes Release Weight: 28998 kg
Max Landing Weight: 28009 kg
Max Zero Fuel Weight: 25855 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Compartment Limits ?

A

Forward Baggage Compartment: 412kg
Aft Baggage 1:1707 kg
Aft Baggage 2: 453 kg
Aft Baggage 1 and 2 (combined): 1707 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Locker 11 may be used for the carriage of flight and cabin crew overnight bags when ?

A

accessed through the internal baggage door only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Manoeuvring Limit Load Factors ?

A

Flap retracted +2.5g/-1.0g
Flap extended +2.0g/0.0g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum operating altitude
Maximum operating altitude for takeoff and landing ?

A

25,000 ft
10,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ambient Temperature Limits - Flight and Ground ?

A

50°C or ISA +35°C
-54°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maximum Runway Slopes

A

+/- 2% uphill and downhill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The maximum crosswind and tailwind components (measured at a height of 10 metres) approved for takeoff and landing are as follows ?

A

Hard Dry or Wet Runway(1) X-wind 32kts Tailwind 10kts
Contaminated Runway(2) X- wind 14kts Tailwind Nil
Standing Water, Slush, Loose Snow X- Wind 14kts Tailwind: NIL
Compacted Snow: X -wind: 20kts Tailwind: NIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tailwind component between 10 to 20 knots is permitted, only when ?

A

in compliance with approved Aircraft Flight Manual Supplement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

1.4.5
Setting takeoff power prior to brake release, with the nose of the airplane more than ?

A

45° out of wind, is prohibited for wind speeds greater than 8 knots (measured at a height of 10 metres).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

1.5.1
Taxi speed limitations are referenced to ground speed.
Taxi speed must not exceed ?

A

25 knots in a straight line taxi and 15 knots during turns.
On narrow taxiways (between 15 metres and 18 metres taxi speed must not exceed 15 knots in a straight line taxi and 10 knots during turns. Caution should be exercised when turning on narrow taxiways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Maximum Operating Speed (Vmo)

A

Altitude (ft)
0 - 8000 :245
10,000: 282
18,000: 286
20,000: 275
25,000: 248

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Manoeuvring Speed (VA) ?

A

204

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Turbulence Penetration Speed (Vs)

A

210

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Maximum Flap Extended Speed (VFE)

A

5: 200
10:181
15: 172
35: 158

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Operation Speed (VLo)

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE)

A

215

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Alternate Gear Extension Speed ?

A

185 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Maximum Tyre Speed (Groundspeed)

A

182 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Maximum air start Altitude?

A

20,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Max Takeoff power
(МТОР) (1) ?

A

106%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Max takeoff power MTOP
TORQUE
MAX ITT
MAX NL
MAX NH
MAX NP
OIL PRESSURE
OIL TEMP ?

A

TORQUE: 106%
MAX ITT: 880 degrees Celsius
MAX NL: 100%
MAX NH:100%
MAX NP: 1020
OIL PRESSURE: 61 to 72 PSI
OIL TEMP: 0 to 107 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Normal
Takeoff (NTOP)
TORQUE
MAX ITT
MAX NL
MAX NH
MAX NP
OIL PRESSURE
OIL TEMP ?

A

TORQUE: 90.3
MAX ITT: 822
MAX NL: 95.3%
MAX NH: 97.6%
MAX NP: 1020
OIL PRESSURE: 61 to 72
OIL TEMP:0 to 107

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Max continuous MCP
TORQUE
MAX ITT
MAX NL
MAX NH
MAX NP
OIL PRESSURE
OIL TEMP ?

A

TORQUE: 100%
MAX ITT: 880
MAX NL: 100%
MAX NH: 100%
MAX NP: 1020
OIL PRESSURE: 61 to 72
OIL TEMP: 0 to 107

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Max ITT starting ?
Max oil pressure starting?
Minimum oil temperature starting ?

A

920 degrees (20s)
100 max 165 if discing with OAT below 0 degrees Celsius
-40 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Transient max 20s

TORQUE
MAX ITT
MAX NL
MAX NH
MAX NP
OIL PRESSURE
OIL TEMP ?

A

TORQUE:135 %
MAX ITT: 920
MAX NL: 102.3%
MAX NH:101.2%
MAX NP: 1173
OIL PRESSURE: 44 to 61 72 to 100
OIL TEMP: 125 max for 5s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Max Reverse

TORQUE
MAX ITT
MAX NL
MAX NH
MAX NP
OIL PRESSURE
OIL TEMP

A

TORQUE: 35%
MAX ITT: 880
MAX NL: 100
MAX NH: 100
MAX NP: 1020
OIL PRESSURE: 61 to 72
OIL TEMP: 0 to 107

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

c. Minimum oil temperature required to ensure engine air inlet ice protection, prior to takeoff in icing conditions, is ?

A

55°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Minimum oil temperature required to ensure engine air inlet ice protection in icing conditions, in flight and within 3 minutes of setting takeoff power, is ?

A

65°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

To maintain the minimum engine oil temperature of 65 °C during descent, holding and approach, in icing conditions, it may be necessary to ?

A

increase engine power. The increase in engine power will be limited by the allowable maximum airspeed appropriate to VMO, VLO, VFE, aircraft system malfunctions, turbulence and ATC instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Engine and Propeller Ground Operating Limitations ?

A
  1. Maximum torque is 100%.
  2. Minimum NHis 64.2%.
  3. Maximum wind speed for ground operation, with the nose of the airplane more than 30 degrees out of wind is 50 knots.
  4. For wind speeds greater than 8 knots, with the nose of the airplane more than 30 degrees out of wind, the maximum power for ground manoeuvring is as follows:

9 to 20 = Flight idle ( Power levers may be momentarily increased above flight idle for acceleration)
21 to 35= Flight idle
36 to 50 gust to 55= flight idle (Power levers must be at disc with aeroplane static )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ground operations in winds greater than ?

A

50 knots must be recorded and the maximum wind speed provided to maintenance within 24 hours (flying day).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. For wind speeds greater than 8 knots, with the nose of the airplane more than 30° out of wind, the maximum power for ground static operation is as follows ?
A

9 to 20 = power lever angle at 60 degrees
21 to 35= Flight idle
36 to 50 gust to 55 = Disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Engine Airborne Operating Limitations ?

A

In-flight operation of the power levers aft of the Flight Idle gate is prohibited.
Minimum SAT for engine relight is -40°C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Starter Cranking limits ?

A

Start 1: 70s On 2 minutes off
Start 2 70s On 2 mins off
Start 3 : 70S on 30 mins off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Total usable fuel ?

A

5318 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Max fuel imbalance ?

A

272 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Takeoff and continuous in-flight operation with the fuel heater outlet temperature indication below what is prohibited?

A

0°C or above 71°C is prohibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Low Pressure Warning Light ?

A

44 to 50 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Minimum Hydraulic Fluid Quantity for Dispatch ?

A

1,2 = 40%
3 = 45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

1.10.1 Nominal Minimum Dispatch Pressures
Flight Crew Fixed Oxygen ?
Portable Oxygen - Cabin ?

A

FCFO = 1300
POC= 1600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If the bottle pressure is below the nominal minimum pressure, refer to ?

A

the Minimum Equipment List (MEL). The MEL provides further details on pressure requirements with respect to temperature variation and operating crew/passenger numbers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Fixed crew oxygen may not be used by a person occupying the jump seat if the oxygen pressure is below ?

A

1800 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Normal cabin pressure differential limit ?
Maximum cabin pressure differential limit ?
Maximum cabin pressure differential limit during taxiing, takeoff and landing?
Maximum cabin altitude (pressurised flight) ?

A

NCPDL= 5.46+/- 0.1 psi
MCPDL= 5.95 psi
MCPDLT/O,LDG = 0.5 psi
MCA= 8000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

1.12.1
The maximum altitude with the landing gear and/or flap extended is ?

A

15,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

1.12.2 Maximum Flap Position during Alternate Gear Extension
The maximum flap position during the conduct of an alternate landing gear extension procedure is ?

A

Flap 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

APU general ?

A

Is for ground operations only.
Must be shutdown prior to takeoff.
Must not be operated unattended with passengers on board.
Must not be operated unattended during pressure refuelling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The APU ambient temperature limitations are as follows ?

A

• Minimum: -35°C.
Maximum: 50°C or ISA+35, whichever is lower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

1.13.2 APU Starter Limits ?

A

Start 1 : 1 minute on 2 minutes off
Start 2 : 1 min on 2 min off
Start 3 : 1 min on 30 min off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

13.3 APU Generator Load Limits ?

A

1.13.3
The maximum APU load meter reading is not to continuously exceed 1.0.
Can read in excess of 1.0 during engine starts using the APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

1.13.4 Refuelling with the APU ?

A

• Gravity refuelling is not permitted
• Starting or shutting down the APU during refuelling is not permitted
• The left main fuel tank must contain sufficient fuel to ensure continuous running of the APU throughout the refuelling process
• The fuel truck must be parked at least 9.2 m (30 ft) from the APU exhaust outlet; and
• At ports not accustomed to refuelling Dash 8 aircraft, the re-fueller must be advised that the APU will be running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When ice is detected, the AIRFRAME MODE selector must be positioned ?

A

at FAST or SLOW.
Refer to Operations in Icing Conditions (Section 4).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

1.15
Position Error Correction (PEC)
For all flap settings, the altimeter Position Error Correction (to be added to the published Decision Altitude (DA) for a precision approach) is ?

A

20ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Maximum load meter reading for the main, auxiliary and standby batteries for takeoff ?
Minimum battery temperature for the main, auxiliary and standby batteries for takeoff ?

A

0.1
-20 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

1.17
The AFCS is approved for autopilot approaches to ?

A

CAT 1 limits only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

APP mode, autopilot engaged approaches, is approved for ?

A

• Flap 0 (minimum altitude 1000 ft AGL)
• Flap 5, 10, 15 and 35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

• Autopilot and flight director only approaches are approved for glideslope angle of ?

A

2.5° to a maximum of 4 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

1.18
Unless the forward and aft baggage compartments are empty, the airplane must not be operated further than ?

A

1 hour flying time from a suitable airport for landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When using the cockpit speakers, what must you do ?

A

HOT MIC select switches on the pilot and co-pilot ARCDU must be OFF and the INT/RAD switch on the observers Audio Control Panel must be centred, when using the cockpit speakers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where to find information on using an external battery for start or during a turn around ?

A

FCOM Supplemental procedures
External battery and Battery only start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Power During Disembarkation ?

A

Primary GPU
APU or battery cart to be used if GPU not available.
If none of above available then batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

If the aircraft is left unattended with external power on, the ?

A

main, aux, standby and master battery switches, emergency lights and battery bus lighting (such as boarding light and flight deck dome light) must be switched off. In this way, the aircraft batteries will not be drained if the external power source fails.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

If the APU is operating what must you do with the battery switches and do you need to attend the aircraft?

A

APU is operating, the battery switches must remain ON and the aircraft must not be left unattended. Unless supervision of the aircraft is handed-over to Engineering ramp staff, either one pilot must remain with the aircraft or the aircraft must be de-powered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

At night, the position lights must be ?

A

on whenever the aircraft electrical system is powered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where must you switch the external power on and off from ?

A

In the flight deck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Where would you find information on ferrying the aircraft without cabin crew ?

A

FCOM supplemental procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does your IPAD battery need to stay above ?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How many copies of the FCOM do we need on the flight deck ?

A

Two separate electronic copies of the FCOM shall be available on the flight deck. Should a copy of the FCOM be required, pilots are to contact Central Publications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Where would you find information about single EFB operations?

A

FCOM supplemental procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What to do if the GET LOAD function fails ?

A

Read FCOM supplement procedures

Load App GET LOAD Function Fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Load App ‘CONFIRM PAX COUNT’ Function Fails ?

A
  1. Select ‘Manual Crosscheck’ on the Passengers section of the Load App.
  2. Verify that the total passenger count is correct via one of the following approved methods:
    • Contact Customer Service Agent (SA) at point of departure; or
    • Contact Load Control; or
    • Review printed Passenger Information List (PIL) - available on request.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Each flight requires one submitted load sheet for departure. If one EFB fails to submit ?

A

the other EFB may be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

If an electronic NOTOC has been sighted (in the EFF+ app or received via email), the following statement must be written by the Pilot in Command on the bottom of the manual load statement ?

A

“I have received and retained an electronic copy of the NOTOC for the duration of the flight.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Load Sheet Fails to Submit ?

A

FCOM supplemental procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What’s considered a narrow taxiway?

A

Taxiways less than 18m wide (but not less than 15m) are considered narrow taxiways.
The following procedures apply to narrow taxiway operations:
• Straight line taxi speed is limited to 15 knots
• Turning taxi speed is limited to 10 knots
• Caution is to be exercised during turns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

As a guide, upon reaching a minimum radius turn on a minimum width taxiway, continue ?

A

straight ahead until the nosewheel is approximately 3.5 metres outside the marked taxiway centreline. During the turn, the nosewheel should remain parallel to and approximately 3.5m outside the marked centreline until it reaches the centre of the straight portion of the taxiway on completion of the tum (as shown). The amount of ‘oversteer’ will be reduced for wider taxiways and larger radius turns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

4.8
Hydraulic Fluid Transfer
To avoid inadvertent transfer of hydraulic fluid between the Number 1 and 2 systems, with the hydraulic systems pressurised?

A

the toe brakes should be fully applied before applying or releasing the parking brake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Can we do the hydraulic fluid transfer while flying ?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Releasing the parking brake with no engines running for the commencement of the pushback will transfer fluid from the Number 1 System to the Number 2 system. To compensate, it is recommended ?

A

that at the completion of the pushback the park brake be engaged without the toe brakes applied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

1 (Left) System to #2 (Right) System hydraulic fluid transfer?

A

Toe Brakes- Hold on
Park Brake- On
Toe Brakes- Release
Park Brake- off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

2 (Right) System to #1 (Left) System Hydraulic fluid?

A

Park Brake- On
Toe Brakes-Hold on
Park Brake-off
Toe Brakes-Release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Correct hand placement for approach with FO PF ?

A

should be on the power lever quadrant below the power lever stems. Care should be taken not to interfere with normal operation of the power levers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Small differences between charted navigation information and displayed navigation data may be noted. Differences of what are acceptable ?

A

3 degrees or less due to the equipment manufacturer’s application of magnetic variation or leg track averaging are operationally acceptable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

CAUTION The pitch wheel should not be adjusted when ‘ALT *’ is annunciated. Pilots should minimise pitch wheel use within ?

A

1000 ft of the selected level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

With bypass doors open, MTOP and MCP power settings are limited to a maximum ambient temperature of ?

A

ISA+25.

Open bypass doors can alter the airflow dynamics around the engine, potentially reducing the cooling efficiency. Limiting the power settings helps manage the engine’s internal temperatures more effectively, preventing overheating.
High ambient temperatures combined with high power settings can increase the thermal stress on engine components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Minimum oil temp on descent ?

A

65 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

APU load meter readings in excess of 1.0 are permissible during ?

A

engine starts using APU power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What should you do if the aft baggage smoke detector test is unsuccessful, it should be ?

A

conducted again with the applicable baggage compartment doors closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Can Fuel values be entered for anticipated APU fuel burn ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The aircraft requires one submitted load sheet for departure. If one EFB fails to submit ?

A

the other EFB may be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

f the Aerodata App is not available and information is being obtained from the Performance Handbook (PHB), V1 is to be confirmed from the ? What about Vr, V2, VFR,VBG ?

A

PHB and Vr, V2, VFR and VBG are to be confirmed from the Take Off Speed Schedule Card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

To avoid delays on the apron, pushback approval should only be requested once the ?

A

pushback machine has attached to the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

the First Officer shall select MFD2 to NAV when ?

A

When battery loads are 0.1 or less.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Propeller heating will not activate unless the Total Air Temperature (TAT) is less than or equal to +5°C. This corresponds to a Static Air Temperature (SAT) of approximately ?

A

0° at 200 KTAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

A period of how many minutes in NORM is required to confirm correct windshield heat operation?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Who sets the ISI ?

A

The Captain shall set the ISI as necessary, regardless of whom is Pilot Flying.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What to check with the altimeter indications through 10,000ft ?

A

Check that the difference in altimeter indications between PFD1 and PFD2 does not exceed 87 ft at 10,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

For cruise at altitudes below 10,000 ft, the Descent checks shall be completed at ?

A

top of descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

The position of the REF SPEED switch is not to be changed below ?

A

1500 ft AAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

In cases where the Cabin Ready light is unserviceable, Cabin Crew should?

A

make contact with the Flight Crew via interphone, stating “Cabin Prepared”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

For a VOR or LOC approach, use the FORMAT button to present ?

A

the CDI display for the underlying navaid (VOR or LOC) on the Pilot Monitoring’s MFD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

For an NDB approach flown in nav source FMS, monitor?.

A

the ADF on the RMI pointer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The Stby Hyd Press / PTU Control must be selected ON prior to?.

A

selecting Flaps 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Slope’ advisory calls based solely on the PAPI/VASIS below?

A

200-300ft HAA could be detrimental if the Pilot Flying is maintaining a visual aimpoint as the primary means of establishing aircraft flight path.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

An increasing sink rate during the flare must be corrected by?

A

an appropriate power increase to avoid pitch attitude exceeding 5°.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Reducing the power close to the ground or in the flare to idle may cause a sudden and unexpected increase in drag along with a reduction of lift. If a higher than normal descent rate is experienced during the landing phase?

A

the temptation to control this descent rate by pitching up must be avoided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Can you trim in the flare ?

A

Do not trim during the flare. Trimming in the flare increases the potential for a tail strike.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

NTOP rated power requires Bleed Air to be selected to?.

A

MIN/ON or OFF

126
Q

What happens if LNAV is active before the Go around button is pressed ?

A

If LNAV is active before the Go Around button is pressed, it is retained during the go-around. Do not inadvertently deselect LNAV.

127
Q

If the missed approach is initiated before the FAF, the FMS will not automatically sequence onto the published missed approach. To cancel FMS approach mode (APPR) and maintain required missed approach guidance, it will be necessary to?

A

select MISSD APPR [LSK 3R] or press the power lever GA button again inside the FAF.

128
Q

What should you do with the autopilot during a discontinued approach ?

A

The autopilot should remain engaged until the discontinued approach procedure is complete.

129
Q

Movement of the nose steering tiller without WOW and the system being active will result?

A

in a NOSE STEERING caution light

130
Q

Can you cancel the fire bell as soon as you get it ?

A

The Fire Bell, Master Warning and/or Master Caution may be cancelled at an appropriate time considerate of workload and potential distraction.

131
Q

The Engine Failure/Fire/Shutdown Recall is only required to be conducted from memory when?

A

time critical. At other times it can be called for by checklist.

132
Q

When can you reduce the ROD during an emergency decent ?

A

Descent rate may be reduced as appropriate when FL 130 or below

133
Q

If the engine is still producing power in an engine failure/Fire , the Pilot Monitoring should take care to? .

A

move the Power Lever and Condition Lever slowly in order to prevent excessive yaw

134
Q

If the engine is still producing power in an engine failure/Fire , the Pilot Monitoring should take care to? .

A

move the Power Lever and Condition Lever slowly in order to prevent excessive yaw

135
Q

MCP cannot be set until flaps are?

A

at 0

136
Q

When can acceleration be delayed ?

A

Acceleration altitude can be delayed based on workload

137
Q

What constitutes identification of a roll jam ?

A

Calling “Roll Jam” constitutes an identification of the Roll Jam malfunction.

138
Q

If the First Officer is PF and is performing the engine start as PF when the non-normal occurs, the Captain shall?

A

take control and stop the aircraft.

139
Q

Prior to the evacuation PA, the Captain shall confirm the engines are?

A

shut down and Propeller RPM is indicating approximately zero.

140
Q

Can you just keep increasing the pitch during a terrain avoidance procedure ?

A

It is not permissible to continue to increase pitch attitude until stick shaker occurs.

141
Q

In order to ensure consistent aircraft control and avoid uncommanded pitch up movement as a result of power lever application, it may be necessary to?

A

advance power levers in stages

142
Q

Recovering from the upset is the first priority. However, if possible, caution should be used to avoid overly-aggressive?

A

pitching inputs as variations in g forces may cause Cabin Crew or passenger injuries.

143
Q

Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim If necessary, consider reducing?

A

power to aid in achieving nose-down pitch rate.

144
Q

When we have a SAAP in place what do we do with the cabin altitude ?

A

Do not alter cabin altitude at any time unless advised by QEAT or until ready for final descent to land.

145
Q

If the PROP TEST switch is released early from the TEST position, wait?

A

30 seconds before repeating the test.

146
Q

Can just one person calculate the load ?

A

Both pilots must independently calculate the load.

147
Q

An electronic signature on the load app will constitute acceptance of the NOTOC (either paper or electronic). The paper NOTOC is only required to remain at the departure station if the?

A

electronic signature is not captured through the EFF+ Load App.

148
Q

Can we transfer hydraulic fluid in flight ?

A

Hydraulic fluid transfer may only be conducted on the ground. Ensure the power levers are adjusted so that the aircraft does not move forwards or backwards when the brakes are off.

149
Q

Releasing the parking brake with no engines running for the commencement of the pushback will transfer fluid from the Number 1 System to the Number 2 system. To compensate, it is recommended that?

A

at the completion of the pushback the park brake be engaged without the toe brakes applied.

150
Q

When doing a fuel transfer what page do we need up ?

A

For monitoring of the fuel state, the MFD FUEL page is to be displayed until the fuel transfer switch is selected off.

151
Q

Transmitter output power is radiated whenever the radar is in?

A

Test, Weather or Map mode. Do not operate during refuelling or in proximity to structures, buildings or personnel when the transmitter is radiating.

152
Q

During ground operation the radar automatically enters forced standby mode and no power is radiated. Forced standby mode is bypassed by?

A

selecting WX and pressing STAB four (4) times within 3 seconds.

153
Q

Under no circumstances should a premeditated penetration be made through a sharp edged or irregular shaped cell. The aircraft should?

A

orbit, hold or divert

154
Q

Under no circumstances should a premeditated penetration be made through a sharp edged or irregular shaped cell. The aircraft should?

A

orbit, hold or divert

155
Q

To avoid flying under or over storms, frequently?

A

adjust the tilt to scan both above and below your flight level.

156
Q

Low variable gain settings can ?

A

Low variable gain settings can eliminate hazardous targets from the display.

157
Q

What must we check when in the ground with the Wx radar !

A

Standby or forced standby mode must be verified in ground operations by the operator to ensure safety for ground personnel.

158
Q

When do we know that we might have ground icing conditions ?

A

Ground Icing Conditions is not defined by a specific set of environmental parameters but by the presence or possibility of ice accumulating on the airframe.

low ambient temperature (below approximately 10°C) particularly with high wind velocity, or • low aircraft skin temperature (cold soaked airframe or fuel) constitute conditions conducive to ground icing.

159
Q

To ensure engine inlet air ice protection a minimum oil temperature of what is required before takeoff ?

A

To ensure engine inlet air ice protection a minimum oil temperature of 55°C is required before takeoff. Oil temperature must reach 65°C or greater within 3 minutes after takeoff power is set.

160
Q

If airspeed is not increased before REF SPEEDS switch is selected to INCR what might occur ?

A

If airspeed is not increased before REF SPEEDS switch is selected to INCR, stall warning may occur.

161
Q

If airspeed is not increased before REF SPEEDS switch is selected to INCR what might occur ?

A

If airspeed is not increased before REF SPEEDS switch is selected to INCR, stall warning may occur.

162
Q

To ensure deice pressure is maintained at 15 psi or greater during descent, holding, and approach, it may be necessary to do what ?.

A

increase NL by advancing the power levers.

163
Q

When holding in icing conditions the flaps must be ?

A

at 0°

164
Q

The aircraft can only be considered aerodynamically clean when all ice is removed from where ?

A

the visible leading edges and wing tips.

165
Q

At night, when CAUT/AVDSY lights intensity is selected to DIM, all the ice protection system advisory lights (LEDs) will do what ?

A

be observed to glow faintly. This is considered normal. Activation of the applicable system results in normal illumination of the lights

166
Q

Can we use the door power switch in the air ?

A

The DOOR POWER switch is for ground use only.

167
Q

The lockdown deadbolt is ONLY to be used in accordance with what ?

A

the QRH or MEL when the electronic system has failed or is inoperative, or when complying with the Counter Threat Response procedures

168
Q

The INTERNAL DOORS caution light will illuminate: When the flight deck door is what ?

A

is open and/or unlocked; or, An Access Request has been made via the cabin keypad and the auto-unlock cycle is active.

169
Q

If DENY is not selected within 30 seconds of the ACCESS REQ indicator illuminating, the flight deck door will what ?

A

automatically unlock

170
Q

If DENY is not selected within 40 seconds of the AUTO UNLK (amber) light indicator illuminating, the flight compartment door will ?

A

automatically unlock

171
Q

When RNP(P) is in effect, the CDI scaling is equal to the ?

A

RNP value and not the phase of flight default indicated in the XTK( ) field.

172
Q

It is possible to enter waypoint altitude constraints on the FPL page that will violate the enroute and approach flight path angle limitations. These waypoints will ?

A

not be copied onto the VNAV pages, nor will it be possible to activate VNAV to these waypoints.

173
Q

With the exception of FMS approach mode, Flight Director coupled VNAV will not couple or remain coupled unless the ?

A

altitude preselector is below the aircraft altitude, and the ‘Top of Descent’ Alert message has been read.

174
Q

Should we use VNAV during descent

A

It is not recommended to use VNAV during descent when deviating away from the flight plan route. Therefore, if using LNAV HDG SEL to make minor lateral deviations off track, exercise caution if electing to use VPATH for vertical guidance. Always check FMS VPATH computations for reasonableness.

175
Q

Should we use VNAV during descent

A

It is not recommended to use VNAV during descent when deviating away from the flight plan route. Therefore, if using LNAV HDG SEL to make minor lateral deviations off track, exercise caution if electing to use VPATH for vertical guidance. Always check FMS VPATH computations for reasonableness.

176
Q

A cyan inverse video “I” appears in the upper right corner of the FMS MCDU to indicate ?.

A

‘Independent’ mode operation

177
Q

The INIT SYNC prompt will not be available when there is a fault that prevents synchronisation.

FMS synchronisation cannot be selected if ?.

A

one or both FMS are in approach mode

178
Q

If an approach is linked into the flight plan and is not armed before reaching 30nm from the destination, the system will?

A

automatically arm and the CDI scaling will change to 1.0 nm

179
Q

The Flight Deck Safety Check must be conducted by the Captain (or delegate) when ?

A

• Prior to the first flight of each day • Following an aircraft change

180
Q

A tyre pressure check is required to be conducted when ?

A

once each calendar day. Tyre checks and servicing are to be conducted by maintenance personnel. Tyre checks can be conducted as either a Hot or Ambient Tyre Check. Where hot tyre checks are being conducted, an ambient tyre check must be conducted no less than every 12 days. On the first hot tyre pressure check carried out in lieu of an ambient tyre pressure check, the engineers MUST raise a 12-day deferral that captures the requirement to carry out an ambient check. This deferral does not negate the requirement for a tyre check to be conducted once a calendar day.

181
Q

Exceptions on tyre pressure checks ?

A

The only exceptions are: • A one sector deferral may be applied at an outport to return the aircraft to a maintenance base if the Hot Tyre Check or the Ambient Tyre Check expire.

Some exceptional operational circumstances exist where a daily check is not possible due to network scheduling. In this situation an ambient check may be approved for a 72-hour validity on approval by the Continuing Airworthiness Manager (CAM) which will be obtained through Maintenance Watch.

182
Q

The Originating Checklist is to be actioned when ?

A

• Prior to the first flight of each day; • Following an aircraft change; • Following a change in flight crew; or • Following any maintenance activities or pilot servicing tasks including: • Opening of alternate gear extension panel and/or alternate gear release doors; • Ramp service or oil checks; and/or • Following defect rectification or application of MEL/DWL/PUS by LAME.

183
Q

The Originating Checklist is to be actioned when ?

A

• Prior to the first flight of each day; • Following an aircraft change; • Following a change in flight crew; or • Following any maintenance activities or pilot servicing tasks including: • Opening of alternate gear extension panel and/or alternate gear release doors; • Ramp service or oil checks; and/or • Following defect rectification or application of MEL/DWL/PUS by LAME.

184
Q

The First Officer will set the V1, VR and V2 bugs and each pilot must ?

A

must set their own VFR and VBG

185
Q

If a pushback is required and the APU is already in use, preference should be given to?

A

start both engines on the pushback using APU power for the first engine start. The second engine will normally be started via cross-generator.

186
Q

If a pushback is required and the APU is already in use, preference should be given to?

A

start both engines on the pushback using APU power for the first engine start. The second engine will normally be started via cross-generator.

187
Q

How should FMS 2 be set when getting a clearance ?

A

FMS 2 should be selected to FPL – MENU – 2 page. When requesting clearance from ATC, or on first contact with ATC if OCTA, the First Officer shall read off the flight number from the FLT NBR field to ensure it has been entered correctly

188
Q

At airports where IFR Clearance is not obtained before engine start, the transponder code shall be set to ?

A

2000 OCTA, 3000 CTA or 4000 over-water and ON ALT until the clearance is received

189
Q

FMS Flight Plan Review

Prior to the departure briefing the PM is to confirm?

A

the FMS has been set in accordance with the OFP.

190
Q

Prior to load sheet submission, both pilots must confirm the actual fuel on board is ?

A

is reasonable against the planned fuel uplift and greater than the minimum fuel required

191
Q

When the fuel check is complete what do you do ?

A

The FASTEN BELTS switch shall be selected ON by the Captain; and

• Either pilot is to enter the actual fuel on board into the FMS.

192
Q

Where do you find an example FM load sheet if EFF+ goes down ?

A

APM VOL 1

193
Q

If the Pax Count is incorrect what do you do ?

A

a new passenger count and headcount card must be completed. If after the recount there is a further discrepancy, the Cabin Crew will reconcile all passengers onboard using the RED App or a printed Passenger Information List (PIL). If a discrepancy remains, ground staff or Load Control are to be contacted to resolve the discrepancy.

194
Q

Prior to instructing the FA1 to close the door, the Captain must ensure that ?

A

the Load Sheet has successfully been submitted (or that the Manual Load Statement has been completed and the signed copy left with ground staff).

195
Q

What does the FO enter into the FMS once you complete the load sheet ?

A

The zero fuel weight.

196
Q

With instruction to close the door the captain must ?

A

Cascade Flight Deck Door: Door Power Switch ………………………….. On

Fortified Flight Deck Door: Lock Isolate Switch ………………………. Press

197
Q

Once the final take off weight has been confirmed, what do you need to check ?

A

The final takeoff weight shall be checked against the weight in the AeroData app or Performance Handbook. The final takeoff weight must be less than or equal to the AeroData computed TOW and also not greater than 1000 kg under the AeroData computed weight. Bleed status should be confirmed.

198
Q

When should you do the before start checklist ?

A

The Before Start checklist is to be conducted when the Load Sheet has been submitted and the internal Flight Deck door is closed.

199
Q

In the case of a bay where taxi-out is required how should you start the engines ?

A

both engines would normally be started with a GPU. If a GPU is not available, then the APU is to be used in accordance with the Engine Start procedure detailed later in this section.

200
Q

Communications with the Ground Crew must be established as follows ?

A

Cockpit to ground”

“Ground to cockpit, go ahead”

“Nosewheel steering off, confirm inspection complete”

“Nose gear lock stowed, doors secure”

201
Q

Communications with the Ground Crew must be established as follows ?

A

Cockpit to ground”

“Ground to cockpit, go ahead”

“Nosewheel steering off, confirm inspection complete”

“Nose gear lock stowed, doors secure”

202
Q

If engine start will occur during pushback when do you do the start checks ?

A

the Start checks are to be conducted when all doors are closed (and their associated caution/advisory lights extinguished), and start and pushback approval (if required) is received.

203
Q

What to do for the start checks ?

A

“Start checks”
Anti-collision Light ………………………….. Red
Fueling On Caution …………………………. Out
APU Bleed ……………………………….As Req’d

FO
Action the Start checklist “Checklist complete”

204
Q

Can you push back without a headset ?

A

If a pushback is planned, communication must be through a headset.

205
Q

How to communicate to the ground staff for starting both engines on the bay using GPU then taxing out ?

A

Cockpit to ground”

“Ground to cockpit, go ahead”

“Nosewheel steering off, confirm inspection complete”

“Nose gear lock stowed, doors secure”

Do start checks

“Clear 2 ?”

“Number ___ clear for start”

Conduct Engine Start

Clear 1 ?

Start 1

Start complete

DC External Power (if applicable) ………. Off

“Disconnect ground power”

Remove external power and wheel chocks

206
Q

How to communicate to the ground staff for starting one engine on the bay with GPU. Then start number 1 on the push back at DOM 1 A ?

A

1 clear for start, confirm brakes off”

Cockpit to ground”

“Ground to cockpit, go ahead”

“Nosewheel steering off, confirm inspection complete”

“Nose gear lock stowed, doors secure”

Start checks

Clear 2”

“Number 2 clear for start”

Start 2

DC External Power (if applicable) ………. Off

“Disconnect Ground Power” as required

Remove external power and wheel chocks

For pushback without towbar: “Release brakes for capture”

“Park brake released”

Get FO to get traffic DOM 1 A

“Ground we are ready for push back, confirm clear 1”

“Brakes off”

Ground staff commence push back

Start engine 1

When pushback is complete: “Pushback complete, brakes on”

“Brakes on, ready for disconnect”

“Disconnecting”

207
Q

How to communicate to the ground staff for starting both engines on the pushback using the APU on the push back at DOM 1 A ?

A

Cockpit to ground”

“Ground to cockpit, go ahead”

“Nosewheel steering off, confirm inspection complete”

“Nose gear lock stowed, doors secure”

”DISCONNECT Ground Power”
Remove external power.

For Towbarless Pushback:
“RELEASE BRAKES for Capture”

“PARK BRAKE released”
Obtain ATC approval. Or DOM 1 traffic
After nosewheel is captured and Ground Crew are positioned on tug ready for pushback
“GROUND we are ready for pushback
confirm CLEAR 1 AND 2”

Action: Look Left, Look Right to confirm all
clear

Number 1 and 2 CLEAR for START,
CONFIRM BRAKES OFF”

“BRAKES OFF”

COMMENCING PUSHBACK”

“STARTING 2”
START No.2 Engine

“STARTING 1”
START No.1 Engine

“PUSHBACK Complete – BRAKES ON”

“BRAKES ON, READY for DISCONNECT”

“DISCONNECTING”

208
Q

When to put the condition lever to Start and feather during start ?

A

When NH is indicated: Condition Lever …………… Start and Feather
Monitor engine instruments

209
Q

When should the start switch centre ?

A

50% NH

210
Q

When should the start switch centre ?

A

50% NH

211
Q

Engine should accelerate to what during start ?

A

64.2% NH

212
Q

What should you see during an engine Start ?

A

Monitor NH and ITT.

At 50% NH check engine Start switch centres.

Check engine accelerates to 64.2% NH.

Check oil pressure greater than 44 psi, ENG OIL PRESS, ENG FUEL PRESS and ENG HYD PUMP warning and caution lights go out.

The Start and Select lights go out.

The Select light will remain illuminated for approximately 15 seconds after the starter switches off.

213
Q

When you turn the APU off after start what should you see ?

A

Press APU BL AIR switchlight; check OPEN advisory light goes out. Press APU GEN switchlight; check green ON advisory light goes out and amber WARN advisory light illuminates. Press APU PWR switchlight and check that APU RUN and APU FUEL VALVE OPEN advisory lights go out. Ensure APU FUEL VALVE CLOSED light illuminates.

214
Q

When you turn the APU off after start what should you see ?

A

Press APU BL AIR switchlight; check OPEN advisory light goes out. Press APU GEN switchlight; check green ON advisory light goes out and amber WARN advisory light illuminates. Press APU PWR switchlight and check that APU RUN and APU FUEL VALVE OPEN advisory lights go out. Ensure APU FUEL VALVE CLOSED light illuminates.

215
Q

Proper rotate technique ?

A

Confirm airspeed and rotate smoothly at approximately 3 degrees per second to 8° nose up to achieve lift-off. After lift-off continue rotation to a minimum pitch attitude of 10° to achieve V2 +10 at 35 ft.

216
Q

Type I (High Speed) climb ?

A

210 KIAS to 15,000 ft; each 1000 ft thereafter, reduce IAS by 5 knots

217
Q

Type II (Intermediate) climb ?

A

185 KIAS to 20,000 ft; each 1000 ft thereafter, reduce IAS by 5 knots

218
Q

Type III (Low Speed) climb ?

A

160 KIAS from sea level to 25,000 ft

219
Q

The minimum speed in cruise is ?

A

190 KIAS or as per the LRC profile, whichever is less

220
Q

ATC must be advised if actual cruise TAS is greater than?.

A

± 10 KTAS from flight planned TAS

221
Q

Flight Crew must ensure that at all times during the flight, the fuel quantity is sufficient in accordance with?.

A

the fuel policy in the APM

222
Q

The minimum speed for holding is ?

A

190 KIAS unless required for endurance in accordance with the Holding Fuel Flow table in APM Vol 4.

223
Q

Type I (High Speed) descent ?

A

Increase from 238 KIAS at 25,000 ft to 277 at 18,000 ft; 277 KIAS from 18,000 ft to 12,000 ft; Decrease from 277 KIAS at 12,000 ft to 238 KIAS at 10,000 ft; 238 KIAS from 10,000 ft to sea level

224
Q

A Type II descent is accomplished by?

A

reducing the Power Levers to (or towards) flight idle at the top of descent, allowing airspeed to reduce to approximately 200 KIAS, and then adjusting the power setting to maintain approximately 200 KIAS.

225
Q

Type II (Intermediate Speed) descent ?

A

200 KIAS 200 KIAS from 25,000 ft to sea level

226
Q

A change to the planned flaps setting following the conduct of the descent checklist is only permitted if operationally necessary. If a change of landing flaps setting is required what must you do ?

A

• The change must be briefed, • The speed bugs and GPWS Landing Flap selector must be reset. • The Descent checklist must be repeated, • Speed bugs must not be changed by both Flight Crew at the same time, • For an instrument approach, the above process must be completed before the IAF. The Pilot-In-Command must not allow such a change unless it can be accomplished without distracting the flight crew from controlling and monitoring the aircraft flight path.

227
Q

The approach checklist shall be completed prior to?

A

the Initial Approach Fix, or 3000 ft HAA, whichever is higher.

228
Q

The DA may be set in the AAS when ?

A

At Glideslope capture or when above the Glideslope with LOC captured and GS armed.

229
Q

An APV is a ?

A

3D approach flown to a Decision Altitude

230
Q

For an APV Baro-VNAV what must you have ?

A

• The flight director must be used;

• Two altimeters must be operational and monitored;

• Local QNH and temperature must be used;

• Local temperature must be within the charted limits;

• One FMS must be operational and monitored; and

• EGPWS terrain alerting functions must be operative.

231
Q

During the final approach segment of a APV baro VNAV what the required vertical deviation?

A

The VDEV must be monitored to ± 75ft on a suitable page of either FMS.

A missed approach must be conducted if the vertical deviation after the FAF exceeds 75ft (momentary deviations above path are acceptable).

232
Q

A 2D approach is a ?

A

NPA (non-precision approach).

These types of approaches include:

• RNP APCH-LNAV; • VOR/DME or LOC/DME; • VOR; and • NDB.

233
Q

The minimum altitude for circling manoeuvres is 1,000ft HAA or the applicable charted circling MDA, whichever is higher, and is to be maintained until?

A

intercepting a 3-degree visual approach path to landing.

234
Q

The Approach Slope Guidance policy is detailed in?

A

OM1

235
Q

MEHT refers to the?

A

height at which the pilot’s eyes would need to be at over the threshold to see an ‘on-slope’ indication on the PAPI/VASIS

236
Q

The normal aimpoint is marked on the runway as?

A

2 large conspicuous stripes which indicate the commencement of the touchdown zone, normally at 300 m (1000 ft) beyond the threshold.

237
Q

Flap 35 Approach landing technique ?

A

At approximately 20 ft above touch down, smoothly bring the aircraft nose up into the flare, while reducing power, as required, allowing the aircraft to descend to the runway. During the flare the pitch attitude changes from approximately 2 degrees nose down to 3 degrees nose up, giving approximately a 5 degree pitch attitude change. Set the power levers to disc after main wheel touchdown.

238
Q

Flap 15 Approach landing technique?

A

At approximately 20 ft above touch down, smoothly bring the aircraft nose up into the flare, while reducing power as required allowing the aircraft to descend to the runway. During the flare the pitch attitude changes from approximately 0 to 1 degrees nose up to 4 to 5 degrees nose up, giving approximately a 4 to 5 degree pitch attitude change. Set the power levers to disc after main wheel touchdown.

239
Q

Landing performance is based on what power and braking ?.

A

power to disc and maximum braking

240
Q

The Return to Land checklist must not be used if?

A

• The Fasten Belts sign is turned OFF; or • Flight is continued above 10,000ft; or • A diversion to the departure point or alternate destination is conducted.

241
Q

Reverse thrust should only be used for safety or operational reasons. If the ROLL OUTBD and/or ROLL INBD SPOILER advisory lights do not illuminate at mainwheel contact ?

A

consideration must be given to the use of reverse thrust where a stop within the landing distance available cannot be assured.

242
Q

If reverse thrust is used for operational reasons, caution should be exercised in a crosswind, and Power Levers should be returned to DISC as the aircraft decelerates through?

A

60 knots to prevent engine FOD damage.

243
Q

Single Engine Taxi-In (#1 engine shutdown) is to be conducted unless unsafe or inappropriate to do so. Consideration should be given to ?

A

to wind, taxi surface condition, and turn direction approaching the bay

244
Q

Where it is not appropriate to conduct Single Engine Taxi-In, the use of Reduced Power Taxi-In (#1 Condition Lever at Start/Feather) should be considered for fuel efficiency for anticipated taxi periods of less than?.

A

5 minutes

245
Q

The single engine (or reduced power) taxi procedure is considered to be the normal taxi condition and is to be used except under the following conditions ?

A

• Taxiways and bay/apron areas expected to be slippery • Any of the following equipment is inoperative: • Nose steering system inoperative • Alternate Gear Extension has been used • Any hydraulic system failure • #2 DC Generator inoperative • #2 AC Generator inoperative

246
Q

After shutdown, crew are required to complete and submit the QL-2 in the FirstFlight application. Specifically?

A

• Takeoff and landing times must be recorded from the applicable FMS data; • Fuel at shutdown must be recorded from the fuel gauges; and • The actual fuel burn must be checked against the estimated fuel burn from the operational flight plan

247
Q

If the aircraft will be left unattended with external power connected?

A

• Dim the CAUT/ADVSY lights, EFIS, ARCDU and FMS displays. • Select the EMER LIGHTS to OFF. • Select the STBY, AUX, MAIN and BATTERY MASTER switches to OFF.

248
Q

If the aircraft will be left unattended with external power connected?

A

• Dim the CAUT/ADVSY lights, EFIS, ARCDU and FMS displays. • Select the EMER LIGHTS to OFF. • Select the STBY, AUX, MAIN and BATTERY MASTER switches to OFF.

249
Q

When leaving the aircraft not in attendance of the next crew?

A

• Ensure that the DOME and BOARDING lights are selected OFF • Complete Post-Flight Walk Around.

250
Q

The Terminate checks shall be completed when ?

A

After the last flight of the day and when all passengers have left the aircraft • In the case of an unserviceable aircraft and being left with maintenance personnel • If the aircraft is being depowered.

251
Q

If Immediate Action Items have been actioned in accordance with the Immediate Action section of the QRH are they required to be repeated when actioning the body of the checklist?

A

No

252
Q

The checklist shall always be started at the beginning, in the event that Recall items have been actioned, are the recall items to be confirmed by checklist ?

A

Yes

253
Q

It is not necessary to confirm Recall Actions, Immediate Actions or QRH reference checklist actions if the aircraft is?

A

on the ground.

254
Q

The Captain of an aircraft with one engine inoperative shall consider?

A

• The nature of the malfunction and any possible ensuing difficulties if the flight is continued • Availability of the inoperative engine for restart • Aircraft altitude, weight and fuel on board • Distance to be flown • Relative characteristics of available aerodromes • Weather conditions; enroute and terminal • Air traffic congestion • Terrain • Familiarity with the aerodrome to be used.

255
Q

At an appropriate time after a depressurisation, consideration is to be given to initiating communication with ?

A

with the cabin. This will indicate to Cabin Crew to move to the interphone to receive more information, don supplemental oxygen and/or carry out other duties.

256
Q

Any substantial loss of thrust on takeoff is dealt with as an?

A

engine failure. A partial loss of thrust (that does not trigger the autofeather and uptrim systems) would normally be dealt with after retracting the flaps.

257
Q

One pilot, as directed by the captain, shall complete the Engine Fire (On Ground) immediate actions. The other pilot shall advise ATC of the following?

A

• Requirement for emergency services; • Number of persons on board; and • Fuel on board.

258
Q

The Flight Crew must conduct a go-around/missed approach if the glideslope alert is coincident with?

A

an unstable approach

259
Q

This recovery procedure shall be used in the event of a stall warning and/or stall. Indication of this includes but is not limited to one or a combination of the following?

A

Inability to arrest descent rate • Lack of pitch authority • Lack of roll control • Activation of the stick shaker • Unusual airframe buffet • Uncommanded wing drop • Activation of stick pusher • Red low airspeed cue

260
Q

The AIP recommends climb or descent rates of no greater than how many feet per minute for the last 1,000 feet of altitude change when in the vicinity of other traffic?

A

1500 FPM

261
Q

The AIP recommends climb or descent rates of no greater than how many feet per minute for the last 1,000 feet of altitude change when in the vicinity of other traffic?

A

1500 FPM

262
Q

Do we have a procedure to follow for a suspicious article found on board ?

A

Yes it’s in the FCOM non normal section.

263
Q

The intensity of precipitation within a storm correlates with the degree of turbulence, however, the most severe turbulence is not necessarily found in the same place in the storm as the strongest radar return. Severe turbulence is associated with areas of ?

A

steep rainfall gradient

264
Q

updraughts and downdraughts often extend up to how far from the edge of the storm?

A

20 miles

265
Q

Best tilt and range setting for Wx radar on takeoff ?

A

A tilt of as much as +10° may be necessary to detect cells within close proximity of the airport, and should be preselected for takeoff and retained until established on climb as this avoids excessive ground return. The 10 mile or 20 mile range is the best setting for scanning on the ground and immediately after takeoff.

266
Q

Neither takeoff nor landing should be attempted when a large or sharp edged cell is within?

A

5 nm and moving towards the runways

267
Q

All sharp edges red areas (cells) should be avoided by how far ?

A

5nm below the freezing level and by 10nm between the freezing level and 20,000ft

268
Q

The TGT switch is an alternate-action button that enables and disables the radar target alert feature. When selected, target alert monitors?

A

50nm beyond the selected range and 7.5° on each side of the aircraft heading.

269
Q

The SECT switch is an alternate-action button that is used to?

A

select either the normal 12 looks per minute 120° scan or the faster update 24looks per minute 60° sector scan.

270
Q

Calibrated gain is the normal mode and is used for weather avoidance. In calibrated gain, the rotary portion of the GAIN control does nothing. When the GAIN switch is pulled out, the system enters the?

A

variable gain mode. Variable gain is useful for additional weather analysis and for ground mapping. In WX mode, variable gain can increase receiver sensitivity over the calibrated level to show weak targets or it can be reduced below the calibrated level to eliminate weak returns.

271
Q

If WX FAIL is annunciated on the MFD but the radar appears to function normally, what should you do ?

A

Select the radar OFF then immediately (less than 1 sec) back to WX. This reset procedure will initiate a ‘warm start’ and the radar will return to normal operation in approximately 5 seconds. If the WX FAIL message clears the event should be regarded as a nuisance message annunciation and no further action is required. If the WX FAIL message reappears the radar is inoperative and maintenance action is required.

272
Q

The rear door net is only to be fitted in the instance of?

A

thermal stress, when air conditioning is unavailable.

273
Q

The net may be fitted to either rear door at any time when ?

A

prior to, or during boarding.

274
Q

If customers are on board with the rear door net in place what must a crew member do ?

A

a Crewmember must remain in the vicinity of the galley between customers and the open door while the net is in place.

275
Q

If catering is conducted while the net is in position, catering staff will ?

A

will remove and replace the net prior to leaving the aircraft.

276
Q

At no time is the aircraft to be left unattended with the net in place. If the aircraft is to be left unattended by aircrew what must you do ?

A

AFT doors must be closed and rear door nets returned to stowage.

277
Q

representative surface on the Dash 8 is the?

A

outboard roll spoiler on the left wing. Note that the left and right outboard roll spoiler panels are painted black and red to assist in recognition of ice accumulation

278
Q

Loss of fluid effectiveness is indicated when the representative surface, which should appear wet and shiny, exhibits a?

A

loss of gloss. Similarly, blanching (whitening) of the surface as snow/ice accumulates indicates the aircraft is no longer free of ice.

279
Q

If it cannot be determined that the representative surfaces are free of ice the only option is to?

A

repeat the de-icing/anti-icing process.

280
Q

It is preferred that the APU is not running during de-icing. If the APU is running ?

A

the APU bleed air must be off to avoid ingestion of de-icing fluid into the cabin via the air-conditioning system. The engines or the APU must not be started while de-icing is in progress.

281
Q

When de-icing/anti-icing has been completed, the ground staff will provide Flight Crew with a?

A

completed De-Ice/Anti-Ice Verification Slip

282
Q

Where do we find hold over time table for de/anti icing ?

A

FCOM supplemental procedures

283
Q

Icing conditions exist when the SAT on the ground and for takeoff is ?

A

10°C or below, or SAT in flight is 5°C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 2km or less, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals). Icing conditions also exist when the SAT on the ground and for takeoff is 10°C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.

284
Q

For acceleration altitudes at 1000 ft AAL in icing conditions At 1000 ft AAL?

A

Airspeed…………………………………………………………………………….. Increase to VBG +20

Flaps ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 0° at VFR

REF SPEEDS switch ………………………………………………………………………………. INCR Check [INCR REF SPEED] appears on ED.

285
Q

Acceleration altitudes above 1000 ft AAL in icing conditions At 1000 ft?

A

Airspeed……………………………………………………………………………….. Increase to V2+20 REF SPEEDS switch ………………………………………………………………………………. INCR Check [INCR REF SPEED] appears on ED.

CAUTION If airspeed is not increased before REF SPEEDS switch is selected to INCR, stall warning may occur. At acceleration altitude:

Airspeed……………………………………………………………………………… Increase to VBG+20

Flaps …………………………………………………………………………………………… 0° at VFR+20

286
Q

When ice accumulation is no longer detected and the ICE DETECTED advisory is not present on the ED, continue to operate the boots for?

A

two complete cycles, then:

AIRFRAME MODE SELECT selector …………………………………………………………… OFF

287
Q

What should you do when taxing with Anti/de ice fluid applied ?

A

Avoid using excessive thrust to taxi the aircraft as this may displace any anti-icing fluid applied.

288
Q

What can we do if we want to taxi in icing conditions with standing water ?

A

If the taxi route will be through standing water or slush in freezing temperatures, taxi with flaps 0. The Flaps and takeoff warning test are to be held until clear of all such areas followed by the completion of the After Start Checklist.

289
Q

Before lining up, perform the pre-takeoff check of the representative surface (left outboard roll spoiler) to ensure that the aircraft is free of ice, snow and frost. If the holdover time has been exceeded?

A

this check is mandatory. If the takeoff will be performed within the expected holdover time the pre-takeoff check of the representative surface is optional but it is strongly recommended that all surfaces visible from the flight deck are checked before every takeoff in icing conditions.

290
Q

If icing conditions exist on the ground, ice-protection systems must remain on until parked. They must, however, be switched off before?.

A

feathering the propellers

291
Q

If severe icing is encountered, the following procedure must be actioned ?

A

AUTOPILOT ………………………………………………………. DISCONNECT IMMEDIATELY

Be prepared for a possible roll force requirement by firmly holding the control wheel prior to disconnecting the autopilot.

CONDITION LEVERS ………………………………………………………………………………. MAX

POWER LEVERS …….. ADJUST AS REQUIRED – UP TO MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS POWER

MINIMUM AIRSPEED …………………………………………………………………………. 190KIAS Exit icing conditions by changing altitude and/or course, as required. Avoid aggressive manoeuvring.

292
Q

During normal operations, the dry runway landing distance is increased by an operational factor of 1.15 to account for the reduced stopping performance on the wet surface. For simplicity, the wet runway factor listed in the QRH is?

A

1.65 (1.43 x 1.15 = 1.645

293
Q

After landing and before exiting the flight deck, verify that the control switch is in the?

A

AUTO position. Otherwise, if the DOOR CONTROL SWITCH is inadvertently left in the DENY position while the RAS is powered (DOOR POWER switch ON with RIGHT DC ESS Bus powered) and the door is accidentally closed, the flight deck will not be accessible until power is removed from the aircraft and/or the batteries are exhausted.

294
Q

Control Module RED light, what does that mean RAS door ?

A

An access request has been made by entering the correct code in the keypad. The auto-unlock Control Module cycle is active.

295
Q

Control module AMBER light, what does that mean ?.

A

The door is open and/or unlocked

296
Q

Keypad Assembly large RED light Indicates what ?

A

that the RAS is powered (should always be on when aircraft is powered)

297
Q

Keypad Assembly
large GREEN light means what ?.

A

The door is open and/or unlocked

298
Q

On the keypad assembly a small RED light means what ?

A

An incorrect code has been entered in the keypad

299
Q

On the Keypad assembly a small GREEN light indicates what ?

A

The correct code has been entered into the keypad and the auto unlock cycle is active.

300
Q

Flight Compartment Door Emergency Access Test done when ?

A

The Flight Compartment Door Emergency Access Test is conducted first flight of day in the Flight Deck Check on aircraft fitted with the Fortified Flight Compartment Door. This check is conducted from the flight deck and will require the assistance of another crew member to activate the Flight Attendant emergency access switch.

301
Q

FMS Fuel display parameters are advisory only, therefore what ?

A

aircraft fuel management and range calculations must not be predicated upon its use.

302
Q

Engineering will ensure that the new database is available in the FMS before the expiry date of the current database. To activate the new database ?

A

If the FMS has not been initialised, ACCEPT the INIT page (with the expired database)

Select DATA – NAV page 2/2

Select ACTIVATE for the new database

303
Q

In cold conditions the ISI may initialise with a mirror image or ghost image of the top portion of the attitude display visible in the lower half of the display. If the mirror effect occurs at power-up, adopt the following procedure ?

A

Leave the ISI powered for 5 minutes to warm up • After 5 minutes, pull and reset the ISI circuit breaker (H1 left essential) • Wait for the ISI alignment sequence to complete

304
Q

What would the representative surface look like if you had accumulation of ice again before takeoff ?

A

Loss of fluid effectiveness is indicated when the representative surface, which should appear
wet and shiny, exhibits a loss of gloss. Similarly, blanching (whitening) of the surface as
snow/ice accumulates indicates the aircraft is no longer free of ice.

305
Q

400 taxi fuel rate ?

A

5kg / min

306
Q

If the estimated arrival is prior to schedule, Flight crew are to?

A

reduce cruise speed for fuel
efficiency (not below LRC).

307
Q

Where to find information on carriage of Personal oxygen if a passenger comes on with one ?

A

OM1 section 6

308
Q

Where to find information on the carriage of service dogs ?

A

OM1 Section 6

309
Q

Why do you get a reduced performance when using ice protection for takeoff ?

A

Reduced thrust, increase load on the AC generator and ice accretion

310
Q

What do you do when you take off out of CBR and you have an engine failure. You have an acceleration altitude of 3000ft 1200ft above runway and you have ice protection on for take off ?

A

Should have V1, Vr , V2, V2 ice, VBG ice Bugged before take off. Have an engine failure then Get to 1000ft Accelerate to V2 ice speed. Ask for ref speeds on.
Then through acceleration altitude ask for VS + 100 then accelerate to VFR ice retract the flaps, accelerate to VBG ice and set that in the IAS.

Q400 (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions