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Q400 > Avsoft Review Day 1 > Flashcards

Avsoft Review Day 1 Flashcards

1
Q

RAS door correct code?

A

Small green light

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2
Q

MRW

A

29,089

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3
Q

MLW

A

28,009

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4
Q

MZFW

A

25,855

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5
Q

MBRW/MTOW

A

28,998

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6
Q

(RAS door) Does the big green light mean the code is correct?

A

No it doesn’t

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7
Q

What does the handwashing basin have?

A

Heated drain mast

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8
Q

When would you use the cockpit key?

A

Just on the ground to secure the flight comp

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9
Q

If the door loses power?

A

It unlocks use deadbolt if flying

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10
Q

What happens if the door gets jammed?

A

Red Hinge release pins pull them out

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11
Q

Which doors have inflatable seals?

A

Airstair and aft baggage comp

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12
Q

Internal doors caution light? 3 things

A

Locker 11 open not if it’s unlocked. You won’t know if it’s just unlocked

Flight deck door open or unlocked will trigger caution light

Or access request

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13
Q

Will control lock trigger take off config horn?

A

No

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14
Q

Altitude deviation tone when?

A

Altitude deviation 1000ft to go and 250ft deviation

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15
Q

Does the fuselage door wanting light trigger the take off warning horn?

A

No

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16
Q

Do both SPM need to agree for pusher to go?

A

Yes

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17
Q

How to cancel stick pusher?

A

Press stick pusher shutoff switch light on gladeshield
Opposing force of 36kg doesn’t CANCEL the pusher

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18
Q

Do both stick shakers go at once?

A

No one will go and the other will feel it as they are linked

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19
Q

Autopilot on with stick shaker?

A

Auto pilot disengage

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20
Q

GPWS envelope

A

50-2450ft

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21
Q

TCAS surveillance area where to control it?

A

ARCDU

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22
Q

TCAS Proximate traffic?

A

Solid cyan diamond

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23
Q

What happens sitting at holding point and get TA with no aural warning? With range?

A

Auto range to 10nm it doesn’t go back out to the range you had before

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24
Q

TCAS button changes between?

A

Pop up and continuous

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25
Q

Default TCAS mode?

A

Pop up

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26
Q

What range do you need to see traffic?

A

40nm or less

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27
Q

How can you tell if it’s in pop up mode?

A

Use the range ring

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28
Q

Auto range and get TA?

A

Auto range to 10nm

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29
Q

Where to find hyd and flaps info?

A

PSA MFD 2

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30
Q

MFD 1 PSA shows?

A

PFCS

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31
Q

Does PFCS show ailerons?

A

No

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32
Q

All battery switches on, turns on what screens?

A

MFD 1 and 2
PFD 1 and 2
ED

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33
Q

INCR REF SPEED in brackets means?

A

Fly blue speeds so fly faster. Switch is already on just fly faster

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34
Q

Does PFD auto revert if it fails?

A

No manual change required

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35
Q

ED auto revert?

A

Yes unless PFD is already on MFD

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36
Q

If there is a failure and low speed cue can’t be calculated what is shown on PFD?

A

Yellow CUE message. You can still calculate airspeed and high speed cue will still be present

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37
Q

IAS mismatch message indication?

A

10kts (not 17kts like when it start failing)

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38
Q

AHRS alignment takes how long? Ground and air

A

60 ground
90 airborne

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39
Q

Basic light green?

A

Lost TAS, pitch rate won’t be shown very smoothly. Degraded performance but still accurate.

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40
Q

Eg. ATT 2 / HDG 2 selected on both PFDs

A

Flags. ATT 2 and HDG 2 flags
Both PFD using same source information

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41
Q

If you lose one of your attitude or heading systems will you lose YD?

A

Yes

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42
Q

How much % does each avionics fan provide?

A

50% for each fan

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43
Q

What will you see with single avionics fan fail?

A

Nothing

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44
Q

Double avionics fan failure what do you see?

A

FANS FAIL on ED
And on ground AVIONICS caution light

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45
Q

Where is the nav source always displayed?

A

PFD to the right of the HSI

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46
Q

LOC EXCESS DEV (full scale deflection on the expanded scale) or GS EXCESS DEV below what height?

A

Below which alt 1200RA

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47
Q

What will you see above the VNAV or GS on top of the glideslope (next to the speed tape)

A

V for vpath or VNAV
G for glide slope

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48
Q

DME hold what will show?

A

Yellow H

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49
Q

What will you see with ADF failed?

A

No needle displayed

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50
Q

Which axis does STAB button on weather radar work in?

A

Pitch and roll

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51
Q

How to override forced standby mode on wx radar?

A

4 times within 3 seconds

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52
Q

Off to on on weather radar?

A

WX WAIT is shown

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53
Q

Automatic autopilot disengaged what do you see?

A

AP disengaged on glaresfield and flash until acknowledged.
AP DISENGAGED flashes on FMA and is continuous and once acknowledged remain steady for 5 secs
And aural tone continuous and remain steady for 5 secs once acknowledged

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54
Q

Manual disengagement of autopilot what do you get?

A

AP DISENGAGED on FMA it would remain in view for 5 seconds and get 1.5 second tone

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55
Q

Can the autopilot function with the YD not engaged?

A

No

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56
Q

Can you engage the autopilot when the YD is disengaged?

A

Yes, it will auto engage the YD

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57
Q

What happens if you hit the pitch wheel when LOC or GS armed?

A

Pitch mode

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58
Q

Pitch trim shown?

A

Elevator trim spot not on screen displays
Power quadrant next to captains knee

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59
Q

TCS engaged what do you see?

A

Dashes displayed and FD removed

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60
Q

How do you change TCAS modes etc?

A

TCAS, then hit the expand button

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61
Q

Single ARCDU failure what should you do for comms?

A

Change to aux to listen to offside ARCDU

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62
Q

Double ARCDU failure what to for comms?

A

Use VHF1 STBY controller on to tune vhf 1

63
Q

VHF 1 failure what will you see?

A

FAIL msg next to VHF on ARCDU

64
Q

How long does beacon last underwater?

A

30 days

65
Q

Aux Jack used for?

A

Off side audio

66
Q

How long do the batteries supply power for in emergency?

A

60mins

67
Q

Aux batt caution light when?

A

Not connected to main bus

68
Q

With DC power connected what bus ties are closed?

A

Not the secondary just the vertical

69
Q

DC external power connected what does it power?

A

All DC buses

70
Q

How many DC power sources used in flight?

A

4

71
Q

3 DC power sources lost what happens?

A

Load shedding

72
Q

Does standby battery get charged by main bus? And supply it?

A

No is only charged by main bus not powered

73
Q

Battery master switch connect batteries to what?

A

R ess (STBY)
L ess (aux)
R ess (main)

74
Q

Individual battery switch does what? (Down below in diagram)

A

Connect STBY to L main
Aux to L main
Main batt to r main

75
Q

Where does DC external power connect?

A

L main

76
Q

Where does APU connect?

A

R main bus

77
Q

When DC external power supplied what is inhibited?

A

DC GENs and APU gen

78
Q

Can DC gens power whole aircraft?

A

No because they can’t do AC and we don’t have inverters

79
Q

Can AC gens power whole aircraft?
(Rec 8 22 mins in)

A

Yes. We need just one because it’ll power both TRUs and with cross tie relay and that gives us the minimum 2 dc power sources and 1 ac source we need to power all aircraft

80
Q

Emergency mode (two DC gens and 1 TRU lost) what happens? Eg two gens and r tru lost?

A

L secondary and r secondary
Both main buses shed
Main and aux batteries will be disconnected automatically from main buses.
And batteries start to drain and 60 mins start.
(Screens MFD 1 and ED and ISI only)

81
Q

L main bus fault what caution lights?

A

DC BUS
#1 DC GEN
STBY BATT
AUX BATT

82
Q

Can essential buses power main buses?

A

No they never share

83
Q

R main bus fault cation lights?

A

DC BUS
MAIN BUS
#2 DC GEN

84
Q

Where to see fuel temp?

A

ED and fuel syst page

85
Q

Where is fuel temp taken from that’s displayed on the ED?

A

After the fuel oil heat exchanger and displayed on ED

86
Q

Aux pump power?

A

AC power 115V

87
Q

Fuel valves can only be manually closed how?

A

Pull FUEL/HYD handle

88
Q

Where to see total fuel page?

A

Fuel page

89
Q

What filled the collector bay?

A

Scavenge pumps

90
Q

Primary ejector pump purpose?

A

Supply EDP and powered by motive flow

91
Q

Temperature on the fuel page measured?

A

Left collector bay

92
Q

Fuelling on caution light?

A

Means door is open

93
Q

3 hydraulic pressure

A

2600-3250psi

94
Q

Is the hydraulic ISO VLV automatic to isolate?

A

Yes

95
Q

What do you lose when the hydraulic ISO VLV closes? #1 and #2 system

A

(BAI)
Brakes
Anti skid
Inboard spoilers

(LONE)
Landing gear
Outboard spoilers
Nose wheel steering
Emergency brake

96
Q

What is the hydraulic isolation valve to do with? And is it permanent?

A

It is to do with quantity and is permanent. Once you lose hyd fluid there is not going back.

97
Q

Priority valve lose what?

A

Flaps
PTU

98
Q

What is the priority valve to do with? And is it permanent?

A

To do with pressure and it may come back

P for Pressure and Priority (to remember which ones which)

99
Q

How do you know SPU is working once you press it?

A

Producing pressure on the HYD pressure gauge. Look at standby pressure gauge.

100
Q

When does SPU come on automatically? Normal ops

A

Park brake off and flaps extended

101
Q

Fuel or HYD shutoff what manual and what’s auto?

A

Fuel is manual only
Hyd shutoff is manual or automatic (high temp or fluid loss)

102
Q

ELEVATOR PRESS caution light

A

3 hydraulic systems powering elevator

103
Q

3 HYD PUMP caution light parameters?

A

DCMP failed
<900 psi
Run for too long for 60secs on ground

104
Q

I love Jacob Houghton!!!

A

Hi honey!! Here is a special flash card just for you!! It’s currently 24th June 2024 and you’re at the gym, we had an awesome morning watching whales! He’s a little flash card you’ll see when you start doing your 400 training. Just a reminder I love you SOOOOO much!! You are the most amazing guy ever and I am so lucky to do life with you!! 🥰♥️😘

105
Q

NTOP is how much percent of MTOP?

A

90%

106
Q

What does the RAS door do in auto?

A

Allows the keypad to work.

107
Q

What does the switch in deny do ?

A

Prevent Auto Unlock

108
Q

Large green light means what on RAS door ?

A

Door is unlocked or open.

109
Q

How long after the code does the RAS door unlock and how long does it stay open for ?

A

After 30s of entering the correct code, stays open for 15s

110
Q

Which doors are used in a ditching ?

A

FWD cabin doors, pull ditching doors down to the floor

111
Q

How many chimes for master warning and caution ?

A

3 chimes for warning
1 chime for caution

112
Q

What is the left AOA vane heated by ?

A

Left 115v AC bus

113
Q

What does the Increase Ref speed switch do ?

A

Tells the stick shaker and stick pusher to activate at a lower AOA, also changes the low speed cue

114
Q

Does a failure of the enhanced terrain warning system cause a caution light ?

A

No

115
Q

How do you know your enhanced terrain warning system has failed ?

A

TERRAIN FAIL on the MFD

116
Q

What’s the altitude above and below for the TCAS system?

A

Above is -2700 to 9000
Below is -9000 to 2700
Norm is 2700 to -2700

117
Q

What’s a non threat/ other traffic ?

A

Cyan non filled in diamond

118
Q

What’s a non threat/ other traffic ?

A

Cyan non filled in diamond

119
Q

What’s a +03⬆️ on the TCAS mean ?

A

300ft above and climbing at more than 500ft/min

120
Q

How to test the TCAS ?

A

ARCDU top right key in expand mode to press test

121
Q

When are Aural advisories inhibited for TCAS ?

A

600ft on climb and 400ft RA on descent

122
Q

What buttons are inhibited when you get a TCAS RA/TA?

A

Automatic 10nm range, TCAS button, Range knob and format button are inhibited.

123
Q

What screens are turned on when you turn the battery master on ?

A

MFD1 and ED

124
Q

What does a display indication in brackets mean ?

A

It’s a required action or instruction. Eg increase ref means fly faster (Blue speeds)

125
Q

Failure of MFD1 results in what on MFD2 ?

A

Composite PSA shown

126
Q

What does ADC1 in yellow mean ?

A

Both PFDs using one ADC

127
Q

With just the battery power on how many fans operate and at what speed ?

A

1 fan at low speed.

128
Q

What do you see if you have one avionics fan fail ?

A

No indication to crew

129
Q

If NAV source displayed in yellow on both PFDs what does that mean ?

A

Both crew have selected a single source

130
Q

How to change from PLAN to ARC ?

A

Format button on the EFIS

131
Q

What’s green on the FMA mean ?

A

Active and asterisk is capture phase

132
Q

What does selecting 1 or 2 on the ATT/HDG source on the EFIS do ?

A

Allow you to display attitude and heading information from the no.1 or 2 AHRS

133
Q

Min height for autopilot engagement after takeoff and before landing ?

A

After takeoff min is 1000ft
Min height during landing is 200ft

134
Q

Can you engage the autopilot if you have an AHRS 1 or 2 fail ?

A

No

135
Q

When you have a failure of the ARCDU how does it change its power source ?

A

Through the emergency lights relay

136
Q

How to erase the CVR ?

A

Park brake on and press erase button

137
Q

What’s the ELT powered by ? How long does it last ?

A

Powered by its own battery pack
48hrs

138
Q

DC gen volts and max load ?

A

28.5V and 400amps

139
Q

DC starter gen in starter mode till when ?

A

50% NH

140
Q

AC gens location ?

A

Prop reduction gearbox

141
Q

DUAL TRU failure and single DC GEN failure what do you lose ?

A

Lose secondary buses

142
Q

DUAL DC Gen and single TRU failure ?

A

EPCU emergency mode, main bus lost secondary bus powered, essential bus powered by batteries

143
Q

Back up fuel check ?

A

Magnetic dipstick shown in litres
Only accurate between 15% and 85%

144
Q

Aux fuel pump powered by ?

A

115V Variable AC

145
Q

Status of the Fuel/HYD shutoff valve is shown where ?

A

Fire protection panel

146
Q

Max fuel imbalance?

A

272kg

147
Q

1/2 ENG FUEL PRESS caution light means what ?

A

EDP inlet pressure is low

148
Q

1 or #2 TANK FUEL LOW means ?

A

150kg left in the collector bay, park brake needs to be set and engine operating.

149
Q

What does the no. 1 and no. 2 hydraulic systems power ?

A

No.1
Brakes
Flaps
Antiskid
Inboard rollspoliers
Rudder lower
PTU
Elevator outboard

No.2
Landing gear
Outboard spoilers
Nose wheel steering
Emergency park brake
Rudder uppper
Elevator centre

150
Q

What’s min dispatch for #3 hydraulic system?

A

45%

151
Q

PTU powered by what ?

A

1 HYD system

152
Q

Does the fuel firewall shutoff valve close automatically or manually?

A

Only manually with Pull fuel/HYD off handle

153
Q

Does the hydraulic firewall shutoff valve close automatically?

A

Automatically and manually

Q400 (31 decks)

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