exam two cram Flashcards
1
Q
causes of hyper kyphosis
A
osteoporosis, vertebral compression fracture, osteomalacia, heavy weight lifting during adolescence, abnormal vertebral growth
2
Q
causes of hyperlordosis
A
osteoporosis, vertebral compression fracture, osteomalacia, heavy weight lifting during adolescence, abnormal vertebral growth, abnormal weight gain (pregnancy/obesity)
3
Q
causes of scoliosis
A
unilateral muscle paralysis. usually develops during puberty
4
Q
what is a herniated disc
A
when the inner nucleus pulposus protrudes through the annulus fibrosis
5
Q
what percent of adults have a sternal foramen
A
4-10
6
Q
what causes a sternal foramen
A
failure of L and R ossification centers to fuse completely
7
Q
what is the thing that compresses axillary artery/nerves and causes tingly pain
A
cervical rib (C7 costal elongation)
8
Q
what percent of people have the condition where ribs split when meeting the sternum
A
1.2% (bifid ribs)
9
Q
what is the space encircled by both pubic and ischial rami called
A
obturator foramen
10
Q
what divides the true/false pelves
A
pelvic brim
11
Q
what are carpals/tarsals
A
wrist bones, feet bones
12
Q
what is the largest and second largest tarsals called
A
calcaneus and talus
13
Q
what are the metacarpals/tarsals
A
the bones in between the wrist and knuckles
14
Q
what are the three arches of the feet
A
medial longitudinal arch (med. surface of foot lifted)
lateral longitudinal arch
transverse arch
15
Q
what would the sacrifice the aztecs did be called if it was a surgery
A
bilateral transverse thoracotomy
16
Q
what is the fracture of the distal radius called
A
colles fracture
17
Q
what else can happen in a colles fracture other than dist. radius fracturing
A
dist. ulnar fracture due to forces traveling through interosseous membrane
18
Q
BLANK will fracture before BLANK dislocates
A
clavicle, sternoclavicular joint
19
Q
what is the most commonly fractured bone
A
clavicle
20
Q
3 structural classes of joints
A
fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
21
Q
types of fibroid joint
A
gomophoses, sutures, syndesmoses
22
Q
what is the type of fibrous joint that is joined together by long connective strands
A
syndesmoses
23
Q
what is an example of a syndesmosis
A
interosseous membrane
24
Q
types of cartilaginous joints
A
synchondroses and symphyses
25
definition/example of synchondroses
where bones are joined by hyalin cartilage. costochondral joint (ribs and costal cartilage)
26
what is the outer and inner layers of an articular capsule found in synovial joint
outer: fibrous layer
inner: synovial membrane
27
outside and physically seperate from the articular capsule
extrinsic ligaments
28
represent thickenings of the articular surface itself
intrinsic ligaments
29
what is a bursa
a fibrous sacklike structure that cotains synovial fluid and is lined by a symovial membrane
30
what is the space between the labia minora called
vestibule
31
the erectile bodies on either side of the vaginal opening
bulb of the vestibule
32
_____ are in the posterolateral walls of the vestibule and secrete mucin during coitus
greater vestibular glands
33
what is the body of the clit formed by
corpus cavernosa
34
what is the tissue that causes the nipple to become errect under stimulation
smooth muscle
35
what hormone is responsible for milk production
prolactin
36
what hormone is responsible for milk expulsion
oxytocin
37
what is gangrene
the death of soft tissue due to diminished/blocked arterial blood supply
38
obstruction of the blood supply to the intestines
intestinal gangrene
39
in _____ _____, the body part is shrivelled due to constricted blood vessels from extreme cold
dry gangrene
40
____ ____ is caused by bacterial infection of tissues that have lost blood supply
wet gangrene
41
what are the bacteria that are associated with wet gangrene
streptococcus, staphlococcus, enterobacter, klebsiella
42
the bacteria responsible for gas gangrene
clostridium
43
what is the fracture of the distal tibia and often fibula involving the malleoli specifically
pott's fracture
44
what causes pott's fracture
forced inversion of the ankle
45
progression of potts fracture:
forced inversion damages deltoid ligament which breaks the medial malleolus which then causes lateral movement which damages the lateral ligament. The fibular shaft can also be broken as well
46
localized swelling at first metatarsal joint that causes the big toe to point towards toe #2
bunion
47
flat feet
pes planus
48
claw foot
pes cavus
49
feet are permanantly inverted and ankles are plantar flexed
talipes equinovarus (club foot)
50
what is a common cause of club foot
not enough room in the womb
51
the biaxial types of joints
saddle and condyloid
52
the saddle joints you need to know for the test
carpometacarpal #1
sternoclavicular joint
malleus and incus
53
the tunics of the vagina
mucosa, muscularis, adventitia
54
uniaxial joints
planar/gliding, hinge, pivot
55
the planar/gliding joints (6)
intertarsal/carpal
tarsal/carpal
sacroiliac
articulating process of vertebrae
56
the hinge joints (5)
tibeofemoral
talocrural
interphalangeal
humeroulnar
metacarpo-phalangeal #1
57
the pivot joints (2)
radioulnar
atlantoaxial
58
the condyloid joints (4)
metacarpophalangeal #2-5
metatarsalphalangeal #1-5
radiocarpal
atlantooccipital
59
the saddle joints (3)
malleus and incus
sternoclavicular
carpometacarpal #1
60
the ball and socket joints (2)
glenohumeral, acetabularfemoral
61
irritation and inflammation of the costochondral joints resulting in localized chest pain
costochondritis
62
what are temperomandibular joints problems usually a result of
usually a result of alterations in the ligament that secure it causing gradual displacement of articular disks
63
what are the two places dislocation is most common
(shoulder joint) glenohumeral and acromioclavicular
64
_____ _____ refers to acromioclavicular seperation
shoulder seperation
65
where does the nail go in the upper extremities during crucifiction
between distal ends of radius/ulna or in the carpal bones
66
the meat of the palm is called
thenar eminence
67
when repetitive stress is applied to lateral epicondyle, such as when stoking a tennis racket
lateral epicondylitis
68
repetitive stress is applied to the medial epicondyle such as occurs when frequently swinging a golf club, bowling, or pitching a baseball
medial epicondylitis
69
what is a colles fracture
fracture of the distal radius
70
the skin dimples that can be seen just above and lateral to the gluteal cleft are called
fossae lumbales laterales (dimples of venus)
71
a good site for bone marrow biopsies
posterior portion of the iliac crest
72
the space in the os coxae that is encircled by both pubic and ischial rami
obturator foramen
73
what is the false pelvis
the upper portion of the pelvic basin thats enclosed by the flared iliac bones
74
what is the true pelvis
the lower portion of the pelvic basin which encloses the pelvic cavity
75
what is the inferior exit from the true pelvis called
pelvic outlet
76
where are babies born from (not looking for the word vagina)
pelvic outlet
77
the pelvic outlet can be measured by _________ to determine if normal vaginal birth is possible,
pelvimetry
78
where is relaxin produced
corpus luteum
79
the passage of a child's head during childbirth is called
parturition
80
what does relaxin effect
the pubic symphysis and sacroiliac joint, it can also effect ligaments and make them more stretchy, like in the feet so the arches colllapse!!
81
the life saving procedure that quickly delivers fluids to somebody. in past only performed on children but development in technology lets it be done on adults now
interosseous transfusion
82
how many tarsal bones are ther
7
83
what are the two tarsal bones you need to know the name of
talus and calcaneus
84
the name for the thumb (great finger)
pollux
85
the name for the big toe (great toe)
hallux
86
the medial and lateral malleolus serve the same purpose as the ____ ____ in the arms
styloid processes
87
the 2 things that can be done after femoral shaft fractures to stop the sharp ends of the bones from cutting through soft tissue in the leg due to pulling from strong thigh muscles
hare traction split or sager traction splint
88
the patella is in which tendon
the quadriceps femoris tendon
89
in mortons toe, which bones of the first toe are shorter
metatarsal foot bones
90
inflammation of the greater trochanters bursa
trochanteric bursitis
91
the study of the functional relationship or biometrics of the skeleton, joints, muscles, and nerves
kinesiology
92
the study of joints is called
arthrology
93
__________ are false joints that occur when a fractured long bone heals as two seperate bones
pseudoarthroses
94
______ ____ lacka joint cavity
fibrous joints
95
interosseous membranes are
amphiarthrotic fibrous syndesmoses
96
sutures in the skull are
synarthrotic fibrous sutures
97
the fancy name for soft spots on a babies head
fontanelles
98
teeth are
synarthrotic fibrous gomphoses
99
teeth are secured by
periodontal ligaments
100
epiphyseal growth plates are
synarthrotic cartilaginous synchondroses
101
the two syndesmoses you need to know for the test
between the radius and ulna, between the tibia and fibula
102
the pubic symphasys is a
amphiarthrotic cartilaginous symphyses
103
_________ have a pad of fibrocartilage between the articulating bones
symphyses
104
the two examples of symphyses you need to know for the test
pubic symphysis, intervertebral disks
105
facts about marfan's syndrome
defects in the heart valves and aorta, weak ligaments/joints, can effect the lungs, eyes, dural sac surrounding the spinal cord, the skeleton, and the hard palate. People with marfans syndome tend to be really tall with long limbs and thin fingers. Its caused by a misfolding of the protein fibrillin-1 coded by the gene FBN1. autosomal dominant disorder
106
the only freely moveable joint in the skull
temperomandibular joint
107
the _________ ____ strengthens the fibrous joint capsule of the acromioclavicular joint
acromioclavicular ligament
108
the ______ ______ binds the clavicle ot the coracoid process of the scapula. responsible for most of the stability of the joint
coracoclavicular ligament
109
the fibrocartilaginous ____ _____ encircles and covers the surface of the glenoid cavity
glenoid labrum
110
another name for the rotator cuff
musculotendinous cuff
111
the ligaments that minimally strengthen the glenohumeral joint
coracoacromial ligament
coracohumeral ligament
glenohumeral ligaments (3)
112
the supporting ligaments of the elbow joint
radial (lateral) collateral ligament
ulnar (medial) collateral ligament
anular ligament
113
ligamentous fibers called ____ ____ reflect around the neck of the femur and provide additional stability to the capsule
retinacular fibers
114
the ligament that contains the foveal artery
ligamentum teres
115
the knee is composed of 2 seperate articulations which are:
tibiofemoral joint (condyles fo the femur and condyles of the tibia)
patellofemoral joint (patella and patellar surface of femur)
116
the patella is inside the ____ ____ which is a part of the ______ _____
patellar ligament; quadriceps femoris
117
the _____ _____ ____ ____ reinforces the lateral surface of the knee joint
lateral/fibular collateral ligament
118
the lateral/fibular collateral ligament (LCL) prevents
hyperadduction or varus deviation
119
varus deviation
knee goes lateral, ankle goes medial. tears lateral collateral ligament
120
the lateral collateral ligament is ____ ____ the meniscus
NOT TOUCHING
121
the medial collateral ligament is ____ ____ the meniscus
FUSED TO
122
how to test the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament
varus stress test
123
the medial/tibular collateral ligament prevents
hyperabduction or valgus deviation
124
valgus deviation
knee goes medial, ankle goes lateral. tears medial collateral ligament
125
how to test the integrity of the medial collateral ligament
valgus stress test
126
the newly discovered ligament that prevents the knee from collasing inward
anterolateral ligament
127
the ligaments deep to the articular capsule associated with the intercondylar fossa on the posterior of the distal femur
cruciate ligaments
128
the cruciate ligament that runs from the posterior femur to the anterior side of the tibia
anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
129
when the knee is extended, the ______ is pulled taut
ACL (anterior cruciate ligament)
130
the ACL prevents
the tibia from moving too far anteriorly of the femur
131
the cruciate ligament that runs from the anteroinferior femur to the posterior side of the tibia
posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
132
when the knee is bent, the ____ is pulled taut
PCL (posterior cruciate ligament)
133
what is it called when a replacement part for the ACL comes from a cadaver
allograft
134
what is it called when a replacement part for the ACL comes from the same person
autograft
135
the ligament on the medial side of the talocrural articular capsule
deltoid ligament
136
the deltoid ligament prevents
overeversion of the foot
137
the ligaments (3) on the lateral side of the talocrural articular capsule
anterior talofibular ligament
posterior talofibular ligament
calcaneofibular ligament
138
the fancy name for a high ankle sprain
syndesmotic ankle sprain
139
os trigonum syndrome
the extra foot bone mom has
140
osteoarthritis
wear and tear of the joints
141
the scary tetanus position
opisthotonos
142
what is it called when the femur fractures outside the articular capsule
extracapsular/intertrochanteric fractures
143
what is it called when the femur fractures inside the articular capsule
intracapsular/subcapital fractures
144
what group of people is most commonly affected by intertrochanteric fractures
young people as a result of trauma
145
what goup of people is most commonly affected by subcapital fractures
elderly people with osteoporosis
146
which ligament is attached to the medial meniscus
tibial collateral ligament
147
when is the ACL damaged
when the leg is hyperextended
148
what is it called when a physician pulls on the tibia (anteriorly.) gently to test the ACL
anterior drawer test
149
what is it called when a physician gently pushes on the tibia to test the PCL
posterior drawer test
150
what does the unhappy triad refer to
injury of the tibial/medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and ACL
151
what is a common surgical treatment for unhappy triad injuries
arthoscopy
152
a group of inflammatory or degenerative diseases of the joints
arthritis
153
what type of people does gouty arthritis affect
middle aged to older people
154
what is the process of gouty arthritis
build up of uric acid
uric acid crystals build up in the blood, synovial fluid/membranes
body's response to said buildup is inflammation
articular cartilage can eventually fuse together leaving joint immobile
155
where does gouty arthritis usually start
one joint usually on the big toe
156
what can be used to treat gouty arthritis
non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and colchine
157
what is the most common type of arthritis
osteoarthritis/degenerative arthritis
158
what is the process of degenerative arthritis
wear and tear of joint, eventually, articulating cartilage is worn down and bone rubs on bone
joint stiffens and hurts bc no cartilage
159
what can be used to treat osteoarthritis/degenerative arthritis
NSAIDs and corticosteroriod injections
160
what type of people are usually effected by rheumatoid arthritis
younger/middle aged women
161
what are the 3 types of arthritis you need to know
gouty arthritis, osteo/degenerative arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis
162
how is rheumatoid arthritis different from the other 2
its an autoimmune disorder where the body attacks its own tissues
163
what is the progression of rheumatoid arthritis
synovial membrane inflammation
consequently, joint swells and membrane thickens
eventually, cartilage and underlying bone are eroded
scar tissue forms
scar tissue ossifies
bone ends fuse together
164
what is it called when the bone ends fuse together in rheumatoid arthritis
ankylosis
165
what are the fast, 1st line treatments for rheumatoid arthritis
NSAIDs and corticosteroroids
166
what are the slow, 2nd line treatments for rheumatoid arthritis
methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine
167
what is it called when bad skin is surgically replaced with good skin
grafting
168
and autograft is where
the skin is taken from the same person who needs it
169
what is it called when a skin graft is taken from a genetically identical person
synergetic graft or isograft
170
what is it called when a skin graft is taken from a genetically different person
allograft
171
the term 'allograft' can be in reference to skin grafts as well as ____ _____
organ transplants
172
allografts can come from ____
cadavers !!!
173
what is it called when a graft is taken from an animal and put into a human
xenograft
174
what do patients have to do to make sure allografts/xenografts dont reject
for both: take powerful immunosuppressants
for allograft: find someone very genetically similar
