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General Surgery > ER EOR EXAM cardio > Flashcards

ER EOR EXAM cardio Flashcards

1
Q

what is the MC valve involved with bacterial endocriditis

A

mitral

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2
Q

what is the difference between acute bacterial endocarditis and sub acute bacterial endocarditis

A

subacute is abnormal valved

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3
Q

what is the organism with sub acute endocarditis

A

S. Viridans

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4
Q

what is the organism with acute bacterial endocarditis

A

S aureus

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5
Q

what is the organisms with IVDU endocarditis

A

MRSA

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6
Q

what is the organisms with prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

prostheic valve epidermidis

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7
Q

what are the 4 patho pneumonic aspects of endocarditis

A

roth spots
splinter hemorages
jane way lesions
splinter hemmorages

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8
Q

what is the first thing you do with endocarditis

A

blood clltures

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9
Q

what typr of murmur with endocarditis

A

new regurg murmur

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10
Q

what criteria for endocarditis

A

duke criteria

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11
Q

How do you tx acute bacterial endocarditis

A

nafcillin + gent

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12
Q

how do you tx sub acute endocarditis

A

ampcillin + gent

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13
Q

how do you tx prostehic valve endocarditis

A

Vanco + Rifampin + Gent

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14
Q

how do you tx fungal endocarditis

A

ampcillin

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15
Q

what are the 4 groups that get treated with prophalyaxis endocarditis

A
  • prosthetic valve
  • heart repairs using prosthetic materials
  • congenital heart disease
  • prior history of ABE
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16
Q

what is the medication used for ABR prophalaxis

A

amoxicillin

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17
Q

irregularly irregular

A

A fib

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18
Q

what are the 3 meds for rate control and A fib (class)

A
  • beta blocker
  • CCB
  • Digoxin (this is if they have CHF or hypotension)
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19
Q

how do you tx unstable a fib

A

direct synchronized cardiovestion

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20
Q

how do you know if someone needs to be on anticoag for a fib

A 
CHF
HTN 
Age > 65
Dm 
stroke
Vascular
Age > 75
Sex
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21
Q

what 2 medication calsses cause long QT syndrome

A
  • macrolides

- TCA

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22
Q

narrow SVT you treat with what 2

A
  • Vagal

- adonosine

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23
Q

how do tx wide complex tach

A

amiodrone

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24
Q

how do you tx wolff parkinson white

A

procanimide

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25
Q

what is the epi shock epi arrthmia

A

PEA

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26
Q

how do you tx unstable VT with a pulse

A

cardiovertion

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27
Q

how do you tx unstable VT no pulse

A

unsechnriszed cardiovertion

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28
Q

what is the MC cause of CAD

A

athersclerosis

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29
Q

what class of angina is the best

A

stage I

30
Q

what are the three anginal equilivnats

A
  • epigastic
  • shoulder
  • dyspnea
31
Q

what are the 4 indications for CABG

A
  • ED < 40
  • 3 vessel disease
  • LAD
  • stenosis > 70%
32
Q

what is the MCC of an MI

A

athersclerosis

33
Q

what are the 4 EKG progressions for an MI

A
  • Peaked T waves
  • ST elevation
  • Q waves
  • T wave invertion
34
Q

what are thee non MI reasons for elevated troponisns

A
  • renal failure
  • heart failure
  • PE
35
Q

who gets CCB with an MI

A

cocaine induced MI

36
Q

what are the 6 parts to treating acute MI

A
  • asprin
  • nitro
  • heperin
  • BB
  • ace
  • reperfuion
37
Q

what are the three meds you will use in systolic HF

A
  • ace
  • diurteic
  • BB
38
Q

what are the two main causes of pericarditis

A
  • idiopathic

- enterovirius (coxachkie)

39
Q

ST elevation in V1- V6

A

pericarditis

40
Q

do people have a fever with pericarditis

A

yes

41
Q

what are the two meidcations used to treat pericarditis

A
  • NSAIDS

- colchicine

42
Q

what is becks triad

A
  • muffled heart sounds
  • JVD
  • hypotension
43
Q

what is becks triad associated with

A

cardiac tamponade

44
Q

what is the tx for tampanode

A
  • pericardiocentesis
45
Q

what is a pericardial knock associated with

A

constrictive pericarditis

46
Q

what are the two medications used in hypertensive emergency

A

clonidine

lebetalol

47
Q

how fast do you lower BP

A

25% in 24 hours

48
Q

what are the thee medications for PAD

A
  • cliostazole
  • aspirin
  • clopedogril (plavix)
49
Q

what is the MC RF for a AAA

A

athersclerosis

50
Q

AAA

4-4.5

A

monitor every 6 months

51
Q

AAA

3.0 -4.0

A

monitor every year

52
Q

AAA

>4.5

A

vascular surgon

53
Q

sudden onset tearing backpain

A

aortic dissection

54
Q

what is the highest RF for aortic disection

A

HTN

55
Q

what is teh CXR finding for aortic disection

A

widendened midiastinum

56
Q

what is the murmur with new aortic dissection

A

aortic regurg

57
Q

what is the first test for aortic dissection

A

CT

58
Q

what are the 4 types of shock

A
  • hypovolemic
  • carcinogenic
  • obstructive
  • distributive
59
Q

what are the worst two symptoms of hypovolic shock

A
  • lethargy

- no urine output

60
Q

what type of shock has increased cap wedge pressure

A

cardiogenic

61
Q

what type of shock do you not give IV fluids

A

cardiogenic

62
Q

what are the 4 types of distrubitive shock

A
  • septic
  • anaphylactic
  • neurogenic
  • endocrine
63
Q

what type of shock is the only one that is warm

A

septic

64
Q

what type of shock is the only one with an increased CO

A

septic

65
Q

what are the two components of orthostatic HTN

A

decrease SBP 20 mmhg

Increase in HR 15 BPM

66
Q

what is the sphinter tone with cauda equina

A

decreased sphinter tone

67
Q

what areas are the MC for costochondritis

A

ribs 2-5

68
Q

what is the MC organism for osteomyelitis

A

s aureus

69
Q

what are the two primary routs for osteomyelitis

A
  • acute hematoganous spread (mc kids)

- direct inoculation

70
Q

what is the 2 medications for osteomyelitis

A
  • nafcillin

- vanco

71
Q

what are the 2 MC organisms for septic arthriris

A
  • s aureus

- neisseria gonorrhea

72
Q

septic arthriris tx 2

A
  • nafcillin

- vanco

General Surgery (30 decks)

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