Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

General Surgery > ER EOR EXAM cardio > Flashcards

ER EOR EXAM cardio Flashcards

1
Q

what is the MC valve involved with bacterial endocriditis

A

mitral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the difference between acute bacterial endocarditis and sub acute bacterial endocarditis

A

subacute is abnormal valved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the organism with sub acute endocarditis

A

S. Viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the organism with acute bacterial endocarditis

A

S aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the organisms with IVDU endocarditis

A

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the organisms with prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

prostheic valve epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the 4 patho pneumonic aspects of endocarditis

A

roth spots
splinter hemorages
jane way lesions
splinter hemmorages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the first thing you do with endocarditis

A

blood clltures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what typr of murmur with endocarditis

A

new regurg murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what criteria for endocarditis

A

duke criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you tx acute bacterial endocarditis

A

nafcillin + gent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how do you tx sub acute endocarditis

A

ampcillin + gent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how do you tx prostehic valve endocarditis

A

Vanco + Rifampin + Gent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do you tx fungal endocarditis

A

ampcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the 4 groups that get treated with prophalyaxis endocarditis

A
  • prosthetic valve
  • heart repairs using prosthetic materials
  • congenital heart disease
  • prior history of ABE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the medication used for ABR prophalaxis

A

amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

irregularly irregular

A

A fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 3 meds for rate control and A fib (class)

A
  • beta blocker
  • CCB
  • Digoxin (this is if they have CHF or hypotension)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how do you tx unstable a fib

A

direct synchronized cardiovestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do you know if someone needs to be on anticoag for a fib

A 
CHF
HTN 
Age > 65
Dm 
stroke
Vascular
Age > 75
Sex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what 2 medication calsses cause long QT syndrome

A
  • macrolides

- TCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

narrow SVT you treat with what 2

A
  • Vagal

- adonosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how do tx wide complex tach

A

amiodrone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how do you tx wolff parkinson white

A

procanimide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the epi shock epi arrthmia

A

PEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how do you tx unstable VT with a pulse

A

cardiovertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how do you tx unstable VT no pulse

A

unsechnriszed cardiovertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the MC cause of CAD

A

athersclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what class of angina is the best

30
Q

what are the three anginal equilivnats

A
  • epigastic
  • shoulder
  • dyspnea
31
Q

what are the 4 indications for CABG

A
  • ED < 40
  • 3 vessel disease
  • LAD
  • stenosis > 70%
32
Q

what is the MCC of an MI

A

athersclerosis

33
Q

what are the 4 EKG progressions for an MI

A
  • Peaked T waves
  • ST elevation
  • Q waves
  • T wave invertion
34
Q

what are thee non MI reasons for elevated troponisns

A
  • renal failure
  • heart failure
  • PE
35
Q

who gets CCB with an MI

A

cocaine induced MI

36
Q

what are the 6 parts to treating acute MI

A
  • asprin
  • nitro
  • heperin
  • BB
  • ace
  • reperfuion
37
Q

what are the three meds you will use in systolic HF

A
  • ace
  • diurteic
  • BB
38
Q

what are the two main causes of pericarditis

A
  • idiopathic

- enterovirius (coxachkie)

39
Q

ST elevation in V1- V6

A

pericarditis

40
Q

do people have a fever with pericarditis

41
Q

what are the two meidcations used to treat pericarditis

A
  • NSAIDS

- colchicine

42
Q

what is becks triad

A
  • muffled heart sounds
  • JVD
  • hypotension
43
Q

what is becks triad associated with

A

cardiac tamponade

44
Q

what is the tx for tampanode

A
  • pericardiocentesis
45
Q

what is a pericardial knock associated with

A

constrictive pericarditis

46
Q

what are the two medications used in hypertensive emergency

A

clonidine

lebetalol

47
Q

how fast do you lower BP

A

25% in 24 hours

48
Q

what are the thee medications for PAD

A
  • cliostazole
  • aspirin
  • clopedogril (plavix)
49
Q

what is the MC RF for a AAA

A

athersclerosis

50
Q

AAA

4-4.5

A

monitor every 6 months

51
Q

AAA

3.0 -4.0

A

monitor every year

52
Q

AAA

>4.5

A

vascular surgon

53
Q

sudden onset tearing backpain

A

aortic dissection

54
Q

what is the highest RF for aortic disection

55
Q

what is teh CXR finding for aortic disection

A

widendened midiastinum

56
Q

what is the murmur with new aortic dissection

A

aortic regurg

57
Q

what is the first test for aortic dissection

58
Q

what are the 4 types of shock

A
  • hypovolemic
  • carcinogenic
  • obstructive
  • distributive
59
Q

what are the worst two symptoms of hypovolic shock

A
  • lethargy

- no urine output

60
Q

what type of shock has increased cap wedge pressure

A

cardiogenic

61
Q

what type of shock do you not give IV fluids

A

cardiogenic

62
Q

what are the 4 types of distrubitive shock

A
  • septic
  • anaphylactic
  • neurogenic
  • endocrine
63
Q

what type of shock is the only one that is warm

64
Q

what type of shock is the only one with an increased CO

65
Q

what are the two components of orthostatic HTN

A

decrease SBP 20 mmhg

Increase in HR 15 BPM

66
Q

what is the sphinter tone with cauda equina

A

decreased sphinter tone

67
Q

what areas are the MC for costochondritis

68
Q

what is the MC organism for osteomyelitis

69
Q

what are the two primary routs for osteomyelitis

A
  • acute hematoganous spread (mc kids)

- direct inoculation

70
Q

what is the 2 medications for osteomyelitis

A
  • nafcillin

- vanco

71
Q

what are the 2 MC organisms for septic arthriris

A
  • s aureus

- neisseria gonorrhea

72
Q

septic arthriris tx 2

A
  • nafcillin

- vanco

General Surgery (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions