Endocrine Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

GH receptor antagonist

A

Pegvisomant

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2
Q

Somatostatin analog used for variceal bleeding

A

Octreotide

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3
Q

SSx of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (3)

A

Ovarian enlargement
Ascites
Hypotension

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4
Q

Drug class used in infertility due to hypogonadism in men

A

FSH analogs: Follitropin alfa, Menotropins, Urofollitropin, Follitropin beta

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5
Q

Leuprolide dosing in controlled ovarian hyperstimulation

A

Intermittent

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6
Q

Leuprolide causes temporary exacerbation of these diseases (2)

A

Precocious puberty

Prostate cancer

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7
Q

Oxytocin receptor blocker

A

Atosiban

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8
Q

Only nonsteroidal hormone that can act in nuclear receptors

A

Thyroid hormones

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9
Q

Levothyroxine dose must be (decreased/increased) in oatients with cardiovascular disease

A

Decreased

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10
Q

Intravenous loading dose of levothyroxin in myxedema coma

A

300-400 mcg

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11
Q

Drug of choice for pregnant hyperthyroid patients

A

Propylthiouracil

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12
Q

Prodrug of methimazole

A

Carbimazole

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13
Q

Teratogenic effect of methimazole

A

Aplasia cutis congenita

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14
Q

Antithyroid agents’ onset of action

A

3-4 weeks

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15
Q

Antithyroid medication that can cause fulminant hepatitis

A

Propylthiouracil

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16
Q

Antithyroid medication that can cause cholestatic jaundice

A

Methimazole

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17
Q

Permanent hypothyroidism is a side effect of this drug used for hyperthyroidism

A

131-I (radioactive iodine)

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18
Q

Between PTU and SSKI, which one should be administered first in thyroid storm

A

PTU

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19
Q

Teratogenic effect of SSKI

A

Fetal goiter

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20
Q

Three antithyroid drugs that inhibit peripheral conversion of T4

A

Hydrocortisone
Propranolol
Propylthiouracil

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21
Q

Three drugs that can cause hyperthyroidism

A

Amiodarone
Clofibrate
Methadone

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22
Q

Most common side effect of clomiphene

A

Hot flushes

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23
Q

Amiodarone, when given for less than two weeks, causes hypothyroidism. What do you call this phenomenon?

A

Wolff-Chaikoff effect

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24
Q

These antithyroid drugs block uptake of iodide by the thyroid gland through competitive inhibition of the iodide transport mechanism.

A

Anion inhibitors: Perchlorate, pertechnetate, thiocyanate

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25
Q

Enzyme that converts cholesterol to pregnenolone

A

Desmolase

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26
Q

Enzyme that converts testosterone to its active form

A

5 alpha reductase

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27
Q

Corticosteroid with the highest salt-retaining activity

A

Fludrocortisone

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28
Q

Corticosteroid with the highest anti-inflammatory properties

A

Betamethasone

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29
Q

Glucocorticoids (2) used to hasten fetal lung maturation

A

Betamethasone

Dexamethasone

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30
Q

Drug of choice for acute adrenal insufficiency

A

Hydrocortisone

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31
Q

Strategies (3) to minimize steroid side effects

A

Local application
Alternate-day regimen
Dose-tapering

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32
Q

Side effect of fludrocortisone on the bone

A

Osteoporosis

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33
Q

Most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome

A

Iatrogenic

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34
Q

ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma is also known as

A

Cushing’s disease

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35
Q

Glucocorticoid synthesis inhibitor that acts on desmolase

A

Aminogluthetimide

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36
Q

Azole antifungal that acts as a glucocorticoid synthesis inhibitor

A

Ketoconazole

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37
Q

Glucocorticoid synthesis inhibitor used in diagnostic testing for adrenal insufficiency

A

Metyrapone

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38
Q

Drug of choice for pregnant patients with Cushing’s syndrome

A

Metyrapone

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39
Q

Metyrapone inhibits this step of steroid synthesis to interfere with cortisol and corticosterone synthesis

A

11-hydroxylation

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40
Q

When given alone, ethinyl estradiol increases the risk of:

A

Endometrial cancer

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41
Q

Teratogenic effect of diethylstilbestrol

A

Clear cell vaginal adenocarcinoma

Penile carcinoma

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42
Q

Effect of estrogen and progestin on blood cholesterol levels, respectively

A

Estrogen: Increased triglycerides
Progestin: Decreased HDL

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43
Q

Type of oral contraceptive that closely mimics hormonal changes in the menstrual cycle

A

Biphasic/Triphasic

44
Q

Type of oral contraceptives for lactating women

A

Progestin-only pills

45
Q

Progestin used as an appetite stimulant

A

Megestrol

46
Q

Effect of combined oral contraceptives on lifetime risk of breast cancer

A

No effect

47
Q

Component of combined oral contraceptives that is highly antiandrogenic

A

Drospirenone

48
Q

Intramuscular preparations of medroxyprogesterone acetate are given how frequently?

A

Every 3 months

49
Q

Emergency contraception with levonorgestrel must be taken within how many hours after unprotected intercourse?

A

72

50
Q

Full estrogen receptor antagonist used in hormone receptor positive metastatic breast cancer

A

Fluvstrant

51
Q

Tamoxifen exerts its antagonist and agonist activity on these organs, respectively

A

Estrogen antagonist: Breast and CNS

Estrogen agonist: Uterus, liver bone

52
Q

Effect of raloxifene on the uterus

A

Estrogen antagonist

53
Q

This selective estrogen receptor modulator reduces the incidence of breast cancer in women who are at high risk

A

Raloxifene

54
Q

Indication for clomiphene

A

Induction of ovulation

55
Q

Effect of clomiphene on gonadotropins?

A

Increased FSH and LH secretion

56
Q

With long term use, this SERM increases the risk of low-grade ovarian cancer

A

Clomiphene

57
Q

This estrogen synthesis inhibitor acts by inhibiting aromatase and is effective against breast cancers that have become resistant to tamoxifen

A

Anastrazole

58
Q

Indications (4) of danazol, an ovarian inhibitor

A

Endometriosis
Fibrocystic disease
Hemophilia
Angioneurotic edema

59
Q

Pharmacologic antagonist of glucocorticoid and progesterone receptors used in medical abortion and Cushing’s syndrome

A

Mifepristone

60
Q

Mifepristone, when combined with misoprostol, results in abortion in how many % of early pregnancies?

A

95%

61
Q

Sepsis due to Clostridium sordelli is a side effect of this progesterone antagonist

A

Mifepristone

62
Q

Side effects (2) common to all androgens

A

Virilization in females

Paradoxical femininization in males

63
Q

This drug is used to treat male hypogonadism, delayed puberty, and wasting syndromes and is contraindicated in pregnant women and patients with prostate cancer

A

Testosterone

64
Q

Oxandrolone can cause this malignancy

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

65
Q

This drug is given to patients following surgical castration

A

Nilutamide

66
Q

Leuprolide must be co-administered with this androgen antagonist to prevent acute flare up of prostate cancer

A

Flutamide

67
Q

This androgen antagonist decreases sex drive in men

A

Cyproterenone

68
Q

Drugs used to treat male pattern baldness inhibit this enzyme

A

5 alpha reductase

69
Q

Glucose transporter that needs insulin to uptake glucose

A

GLUT 4

70
Q

Three rapid acting insulin preparations

A

Aspart
Glulisine
Lispro

71
Q

All preparations of insulin contain this trace mineral

A

Zinc

72
Q

Human regular insulin peaks in the blood at

A

30 minutes to 3 hours

73
Q

Duration of action of rapid acting insulin

A

3-4 hours

74
Q

Three population groups prone to developing hypoglycemia with insulin use

A

Advanced renal disease

Children

75
Q

In Somogyi effect, hypoglycemia develops at around 3 AM with subsequent pre-breakfast hyperglycemia. What is the treatment for this?

A

Decrease evening dose of insulin

76
Q

Blood sugar pattern in waning of insulin dose

A

Hyperglycemia both at 3 AM and 7 AM (treated by increasing evening insulin dose)

77
Q

Mild pre-breakfast hyperglycemia in dawn phenomenon is attributed to this hormone

A

Growth hormone

78
Q

Most physiologic strategy for insulin therapy

A

Basal bolus

79
Q

Insulin secretagogues increase insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells by closing this channel

A

ATP-sensitive K+ channel

80
Q

Insulin secretagogues that cause disulfiram reaction

A

1st generation sulfonylureas

81
Q

Three 1st generation sulfonylureas

A

Chlorporpamide, Tolbutamide, Tolazamide

82
Q

This 2nd generation sulfonylurea can cause cholestatic jaundice

A

Glibenclamide

83
Q

Insulin secretagogue that may be used in patients with chronic kidney disease. This drug also has the least incidence of hypoglycemia.

A

Nateglinide

84
Q

Biguanides activate this enzyme to inhibit hepatic and renal gluconeogenesis

A

AMP-stimulated protein kinase

85
Q

Drug of choice for obese diabetics

A

Metformin

86
Q

Thiazolidinediones bind to this receptor

A

PPAR gamma

87
Q

Thiazolidinedione that reduces mortality and macrovascular events

A

Pioglitazone

88
Q

Hypoglycemia from acarbose can be treated with

A

Oral glucose

89
Q

Acarbose, miglitol, and voglibise inhibit this enzyme

A

Alpha glucosidase

90
Q

Amylin analog that has an anorectic effect.

A

Pramlintide

91
Q

Aside from hypoglycemia, GLP-1 agonists such as exenatide and liraglutide have this side effect

A

Acute pancreatitis

92
Q

Sitagliptin, saxagliptin, and linagliptin inhibit the enzyme dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) which degrades:

A

GLP-1 and other incretins

93
Q

This bile acid binder lowers glucose through an unknown mechanism

A

Colesevelam

94
Q

Mechanism of action of Orlistat

A

Inhibits gastrointestinal and pancreatic lipases

95
Q

Sibutramine, an antiobesity drug removed from the market due to increased macrovascular risk, acts by

A

Inhibiting norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake

96
Q

Rimonabant, a cannabinoid-1 receptor blocker, was removed from the market due to

A

Increased risk of suicides, depression, and serious psychiatric problems

97
Q

Net effect of parathyroid hormone on phosphate levels

A

Decreased

98
Q

Indications of ergocalciferol

A

Vitamin D deficiency: Osteomalacia, Rickets

99
Q

Active vitamin D used to treat hypocalcemia in hypoparathyroidism

A

Calcitriol

100
Q

Skin disease that can be treated with calcipotriene

A

Psoriasis

101
Q

Side effects of calcitriol (3)

A

Hypercalcemia
Hypercalciuria
Hyperphosphatemia

102
Q

This endocrine drug is a tumor marker for thyroid cancer. It is also administered as a nasal spray to treat Paget’s disease of the bone, hypercalcemia, and osteoporosis.

A

Calcitonin

103
Q

Alendronate, a bisphosphonate used for osteoporosis, can cause osteonecrosis of:

A

the jaw

104
Q

Contraindications of alendronate

A

Esophageal motility disorders
Peptic ulcers
Renal impairment

105
Q

Phosphate binding resin used in hyperphosphatemia from CKD

A

Sevelamer

106
Q

Calcium carbonate, the calcium supplement preparation that has the highest elemental calcium content, is how many % calcium

A

40%